SERVICES FOR SKILLED NURSING FACILITIES. REMITTANCE SYSTEM.
Beneficiaries are eligible to receive covered services in skilled nursing facilities if they require short-term skilled care (nursing or rehabilitation services) on an inpatient basis following a hospital stay of at least three days (SNFs).
SNF is what kind of service?
Post-hospital care given at an SNF is known as skilled nursing facility (SNF) care. Medication administration, tube feedings, and wound care are all included in skilled nursing care. Remember that SNFs may be a component of nursing homes or hospitals.
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A nurse notices a small spark from an outlet when plugging in an IV infusion pump. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
The action that the nurse should take is that a) tag the pump as broken.
In the hospital, any kind of electric spark should be reported immediately as a spark can cause damage to the entire hospital and patients.
In the above case, the nurse should remove the plug immediately and report about the spark. The hospital in turn should check the plug and replace it in order to prevent any major accidental happening in the hospital.
A small spark may be ignored considering that it is normal but such sparks can cause damages to the hospital.
A part of your question is missing which is:
A nurse notices a small spark from an outlet when plugging in an IV infusion pump. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a) Tag the pump as broken.
b) Ignore as the spark was small
c) Report after the IV infusion is done
d) None of the above
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The lower the client's viral load,
the longer the survival time.
As viral loads go down, their chances of getting better go up. These symptoms may get worse if you have an underlying condition, especially one that weakens your immune system.
What is the importance of the viral set point and how does it affect our care?The higher the viral load at the set point, the faster the virus will progress to AIDS; the lower the viral load at the set point, the longer the patient will remain in clinical latency, the next stage of the infection.Regardless of CD4 cell count, the decision to initiate ART should always include consideration of any co-morbid conditions, the willingness and readiness of the patient to initiate therapy, and the availability of resources.The first and most reliable sign of compartment syndrome. Pain out of proportion to injury, extreme pain on passive movement and pain unrelieved with opioid analgesia. Paralysis: Is generally a late sign of compartment syndrome and results from prolonged nerve compression or muscle damage.Almost everyone who starts taking their HIV medication daily as prescribed, viral load will drop to an undetectable level in six months or less. Continuing to take HIV medications as directed is imperative to stay undetectable.To learn more about viral load refer to:
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How many MDC's are there under the MS-DRG system?
Group of answer choices
30
50
25
40
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Question 2
4 pts
What is meant by Severity of Illness?
Group of answer choices
Refers to the probable outcome of an illness including the likelihood of improvement or deterioration in the severity of the illness, the likelihood for recurrence and the probable life span.
Refers to the relative levels of loss of function and mortality that may be experienced by patients with a particular disease.
Relates to the consequences in terms of severity of illness that lack of immediate or continuing care would produce.
Refers to the relative volume and types of diagnostic, therapeutic and bed services used in the management of a particular illness.
Flag question: Question 3
Question 3
4 pts
The Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (P.L.109-171) requires CMS to eliminate any increase in
payment due to the occurrence of selected post-admission complications, known as
Group of answer choices
Hospital Acquired Condition
Present on Admission
Major Diagnostic Categories
Diagnoses
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Question 4
4 pts
Resource intensity is defined as
Group of answer choices
Refers to the patient management problems which a particular illness presents to the health care provider.
Refers to the relative levels of loss of function and mortality that may be experienced by patients with a particular disease.
Refers to the relative volume and types of diagnostic, therapeutic and bed services used in the management of a particular illness.
Refers to the probable outcome of an illness including the likelihood of improvement or deterioration in the severity of the illness, the likelihood for recurrence and the probable life span.
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Question 5
4 pts
Prognosis is defined as
Group of answer choices
Refers to the relative volume and types of diagnostic, therapeutic and bed services used in the management of a particular illness.
Relates to the consequences in terms of severity of illness that lack of immediate or continuing care would produce.
Refers to the probable outcome of an illness including the likelihood of improvement or deterioration in the severity of the illness, the likelihood for recurrence, and the probable life span.
Refers to the relative levels of loss of function and mortality that may be experienced by patients with a particular disease.
According to the MS-DRG system, there are 25 MDCs.
This dataset includes the DRGs assigned to each of the 25 MDCs (Major Diagnostic Categories). The information is arranged by MDC, with each MDC's related surgical classes and the MS-DRGs that are a part of each surgical class provided in hierarchical order.
There are how many MS-DRG categories?The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) have identified over 740 DRG categories. It is intended for each category to be "clinically coherent." In other words, it is assumed that all patients who are assigned to an MS-DRG have a comparable clinical status.
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According to research, which of the following is a behavior demonstrated by happy couples?
a. Happy couples express concern for each other even when disagreeing.
b. Happy couples are able to mentally withdraw from their relationship.
c. Happy couples are realistic, not idealistic.
d.Happy couples attribute good outcomes to situations.
According to research, the behavior that is demonstrated by happy couples is a. Happy couples express concern for each other even when disagreeing.
Happy couples have a genuine concern for each other which lacks in couples that are not happy.
According to research, happy couples also do have their fair share of disagreements and fights but they still have concern and care for each other even when there is a fight or disagreement.
On the other hand, couples who are unhappy have no major concern for their partner during disagreements. They just want to prove their perspective as right and the other person as wrong. An unhappy couple does not have sincere concern for each other.
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We hear much about peace officers in the news. Sometimes it is negative, because officers are human like all of us and sometimes
make mistakes. But more often it's about how police officers and peace officers are dedicated to helping us and even willing to die to protect us.
Think about your interactions with peace officers. Then, offer some ideas about how you, as a student and citizen, can work with
peace officers to contribute to the safety and harmony of your environment.
There are several ways that students and citizens can work with peace officers to contribute to the safety and harmony of their environment:
Report any suspicious or criminal activity to the police. If you see something that doesn't seem right, don't be afraid to speak up and let the police know.Support your local police department by participating in community events and volunteering your time.Respect the authority of peace officers and follow their instructions. This includes obeying traffic laws and not interfering with their duties.Educate yourself about the role and responsibilities of peace officers, as well as the laws and policies that they enforce.Show appreciation for the work that peace officers do by thanking them for their service and expressing your gratitude for their dedication to keeping your community safe.A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?
"I won't go to see my sister while she has a cold."
"I can eat whatever I want as long as it's low in fat."
The most well-known example of a secondary immune deficiency is the immunodeficiency caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, or HIV.
What should be taught to discharging patient who is immunosuppressed?A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is immunosuppressed, then the statement by the client that indicates the need for additional teaching is: "I can eat whatever I want but it should be low in fat."The client requires additional teaching if he/she says that they can eat anything. Immunosuppressed clients should not have raw fruits and vegetables because they may have bacteria that can increase the risk of infection.Foods must be properly cooked. Avoiding people who are sick, products having alcohol, and people who have just received vaccines are some appropriate actions for an immunosuppressed patient.Hyperparathyroidism is the condition in which there is excess parathyroid hormone, responsible for the balance of calcium, vitamin D and phosphorus present in the blood and tissues that need these nutrients, such as bones, for example. This hormone is produced by the four parathyroid glands, which are the size of a grain of rice and are located in each of the quadrants of the thyroid gland present in the neck.
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what conclusion should the nurse draw when a client's digoxin level is reported to be 2.2 ng/ml?
When a client's digoxin level is reported to be 2.2 ng/ml, the nurse should draw the conclusion that digitalis toxicity is a possibility.
Digitalis toxicity (DT) occurs when an individual takes too much digitalis (also referred to as digoxin), a medication used for the treatment of heart conditions. Signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity include vomiting, nausea, and an irregular heartbeat. When the digoxin level of a patient is reported to reach a certain limit that is 2.2 ng/ml, it is concluded that there is a possibility of digitalis toxicity. In order to prevent digitalis toxicity, it is important to monitor the intake of digitalis to make sure that it is not being taken too much of that medication.
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Dosage calculation RN Fundamentals proctored assessment 3.0 form b test bank
Dosage calculation RN Fundamentals proctored assessment 3.0 form b test bank: Divide X by 3. 240 mg = 80 mg3
What is dosage calculation?
Dosing and Calculations is a course that nursing students must take as part of their nursing program. There are some grooming programs that offer medications and calculations as part of all other grooming courses. Nurses must use calculations to determine the dose a patient receives from a typical dose. Also, if the prescribed dose differs from the available dose, the calculation is used to administer the prescribed dose.
Nurses need to know how to calculate dosages to help patients. This skill is essential for a successful nursing career. Nurses must have good math skills to calculate patient dosages. Knowing the correct way to calculate dosage can mean the difference between a patient's life and death.
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Complete question is:
Calculate dosage of RN Fundamentals proctored assessment 3.0 form b test bank?
if your intake was higher in insoluble fiber it would impact your health in the following way(s)
Insoluble fiber prolongs your feeling of fullness, which speeds up the absorption of glucose. By securing bile for good health .
Insoluble fiber gives feces more volume and seems to hasten food transit through the stomach and intestines. It may be found in foods including whole grains, veggies, and wheat bran. A healthy diet must have enough of fiber, which can also help with weight management. Weight loss: Insoluble fiber, like soluble fiber, can help people manage their weight by preventing food cravings. Digestive health: Consuming a lot of insoluble fiber keeps you regular, and if you do become constipated, increasing your intake of it can assist.
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The nurse is working with a colleague who has a delayed hypersensitivity (type IV) allergic reaction to latex. Which statement describes the clinical manifestations of this reaction?
Symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands.
Clinical manifestations of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction are localized to the area of exposure. Clinical manifestations of an irritant contact dermatitis can be eliminated by changing glove brands or using powder-free gloves. With an irritant contact dermatitis, avoid use of hand lotion before donning gloves; this may worsen symptoms, as lotions may leach latex proteins from the gloves. When clinical manifestations occur within minutes after exposure to latex, which is described as a latex allergy, an immediate hypersensitivity (type I) allergic reaction has occurred.
Symptoms are localized to the area of exposure, usually the back of the hands , describes the clinical manifestations of this reaction.
What is Hypersensitivity allergic reaction?Hypersensitive reactions, often known as allergic reactions, are unwarranted immune system responses to a typically benign chemical. Typically, allergies include sneezing, runny noses, itchy skin, rashes, and watery, itchy eyes. Anaphylactic responses, which are a type of allergic reaction, can be fatal.The classification system most frequently used today is that of Coombs and Gell, which categorises lymphoid cell-mediated (delayed-type) hypersensitivity/cell-mediated immunity as a type IV reaction and immunoglobulin-mediated (immediate) hypersensitivity reactions as types I, II, and III.Type II hypersensitivity A type II hypersensitivity reaction is an immunological response mediated by antibodies (IgG or IgM) that are directed against cellular or extracellular matrix antigens, causing cellular death, loss of function, or tissue damage.To Learn more about Hypersensitivity allergic reaction refer to:
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a nurse suspects that a client who is receiving a cephalosporin and has ingested alcohol may be experiencing a disulfiram-like reaction based on assessment of which sign? select all that apply.]
Based on the signs of Flushing, Respiratory difficulties, Vomiting, and Sweating, a nurse feels that a client who is taking a cephalosporin and has consumed alcohol may be having a reaction similar to that of disulfiram.
A, B, D, and E are the proper choices.
Cephalosporins: What Are They?Beta-lactam antibiotics known as cephalosporins are used to treat a variety of gram-positive and gram-negative bacterial infections. The multiple generations that cephalosporins are effective against meningitis, skin infections, and germs with a high level of resistance.
Why would someone take a cephalosporin drug?To stop the body from reject a transplanted organ, cyclosporine is taken along with other medications (e.g., kidney, liver, or heart). It is one of a class of drugs called immunosuppressive medications.
I understand the question you are looking for is:
A nurse suspects that a client who is receiving a cephalosporin and has ingested alcohol may be experiencing a disulfiram-like reaction based on assessment of which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Flushing
B) Respiratory difficulty
C) Hypertension
D) Vomiting
E) Sweating
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Question 24 (4 points) ______systems focus on reasoning to an appropriate action. O virtue ethics O
consequence-oriented O duty-oriented O deontological
Deontological systems focus on reasoning to appropriate action.
What is deontology?Deontological ethics is a theory of moral philosophy that teaches that an action is right if it conforms to the principle of obligation relevant to it.
Deontological ethics emphasizes the importance of a person carrying out obligations, whether a person is good or bad in behaving based on whether or not the person's behavior is in accordance with his obligations.
Deontological ethics has several weaknesses, one of which is that it does not provide a place for moral dilemmas and solutions when there is a conflict of moral principles.
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what is (are) the focus area(s) for health care leadership ethics?
The focus areas for healthcare leadership ethics are Bioethics and managerial ethics.
Ethical leaders take an interest in their followers' welfare, pay attention to their worries, and offer assistance when required. As a result, ethical leadership fosters a productive and secure work environment for healthcare professionals.
Our healthcare system and the majority of hospitals have well-developed clinical ethics and clinical ethics supports, particularly with regard to resource allocation and end-of-life decisions. This is not the case for the broader category of leadership ethics, however. Most health managers and executives frequently have to make ethically challenging decisions as leaders.
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Hyaluronic acid device injections should always be mixed with lidocaine.
True
False
False. Hyaluronic acid device injections do not require lidocaine to be mixed with them.
The Benefits of Hyaluronic Acid Device Injections for Aesthetic EnhancementHyaluronic acid device injections are a type of aesthetic injection used to add volume to the skin and soften wrinkles. The injections are made of hyaluronic acid, a naturally-occurring substance found in the body that helps keep skin hydrated and plump. The injections do not require lidocaine to be mixed with them, as the hyaluronic acid itself is used to smooth and fill out wrinkles. Lidocaine, a numbing agent, is sometimes used to reduce discomfort associated with the injection. However, it is not always necessary and should only be used if the patient requests it.
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a nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the client's tracheostomy at home
When outside, use tracheostomy coverings.
How should a tracheostomy be dressed?Fold a single 4x4 gauze pad in half, then in half once more to form a little square.Cover your stoma opening entirely by placing the square piece pf gauze over it.Gauze should be covered with the first layer of tape.Firmly wrap the gauze with the tape.
A trach shield: what is it?A Precision Medicine Trach Shield is a shield for tracheostomy tubes.It assists in avoiding chubby chins, bedding, bandage dressings, clothing, and other obstructions from the tube opening.Additionally, it prevents respiratory apparatus from being unintentionally connected to a patient's endotracheal.
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Which statement should the nurse convey to the mother of a 3-year-old son who has not achieved urinary continence?
Boys may take longer for daytime continence than girls.
Children in North American cultures usually achieve daytime urinary continence by 3 years of age; boys may take longer than girls.
Nighttime continence may not occur until 4 or 5 years of age.
Urinary incontinence may be a temporary condition that results from an underlying medical condition.
Why does incontinence occur?The nurse should inform the mother of a 3-year-old boy who has not gained urine continence that boys sometimes take longer to attain daytime urinary continence.Numerous conditions, such as urinary tract infections, vaginal infections or irritations, or constipation, can cause incontinence. Some medications have the potential to cause momentary bladder control issues. Weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder may be to blame for incontinence that lasts longer.Patients frequently mention triggers for urge incontinence, such as chilly temperatures, running water, or inserting a key into a lock. A urodynamic diagnosis of leakage accompanied by uncontrollable detrusor muscle spasms is called detrusor overactivity incontinence.Over a five-year period, approximately 1 in 10 men over the age of 70 and almost one in three men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention is much less common in women. Each year, about 3 in 100,000 women develop acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention in children is rare.To know more about urinary continence visit:-
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when riley, a physical therapist, prescribes stretches and exercises to his patients, he is communicating externally. true or false
TRUE . Physical therapist Riley is communicating externally when he advises his patients to do stretches and exercises.
Describing communication.
When information (messages) is transferred from one person (the sender) to another (the recipient or receiver), communication can be defined as a strategic process, particularly when semiotics, symbols, signs, and network channels are used.
What forms of communication are there?
There are, in general, two (2) primary forms of communication, which are as follows:
1.External dialogue.
2.internally speaking
To sum up, an external communication is any type of communication that often entails sending messages (or information) to those outside of your corporate organization.
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which is not a feature of a multifactorial trait?
Multifactorial characteristics may not must be 100% concordant among twin pairs, especially those raised apart, as they may be modified by the environment, and since many genes play a part in their control.
How are character characteristics related to health?Your personality directs your actions and habits, both of which have a significant impact on your general health. Your personality qualities have an early impact on how they deal with difficult, when active we are, how frequently you socialize, and when you visit the doctor.
What kind of qualities are examples of?Psychological attributes include traits like honesty, loyalty, charity, and impatience. These are only a few of the numerous character qualities that might aid in your understanding of yourself or those around you.
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your 15-year-old male patient has a stab wound along the right sternal border at the fourth intercostal space. the patient responds to painful stimuli
Your 15-year-old male patient has a stab wound along the right sternal border at the fourth intercostal space. The patient responds to painful stimuli and shows little evidence of external bleeding. His respirations are 30, his breath sounds are clear and equal, and his radial pulse is weak and disappears on inspiration. The patient has distended jugular veins and is dyspneic. This patient is most likely suffering from obstructive shock due to cardiac.
What do you understand by term obstructive shock?One of the four types of shock is obstructive shock, which is brought on by a physical restriction in the blood flow. The heart itself or the level of the great vessels might both experience obstruction. Pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, and tension pneumothorax are some of the causes. These are all potentially fatal. Breathing difficulties, exhaustion, or changes in mental status are possible symptoms. In shock, tachycardia and low blood pressure are common. The fundamental reason will determine any additional symptoms. Cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock share a similar physiology. The cardiac output—the amount of blood the heart pumps—decreases in both types. Blood backs up into the veins that enter the right atrium as a result of this.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that your 15-year-old male patient has a stab wound along the right sternal border at the fourth intercostal space. The patient responds to painful stimuli and shows little evidence of external bleeding. His respirations are 30, his breath sounds are clear and equal, and his radial pulse is weak and disappears on inspiration. The patient has distended jugular veins and is dyspneic. This patient is most likely suffering from obstructive shock due to cardiac.
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if a patient's tricuspid valve was leaking during systole, what would happen?
Blood can flow backwards through a faulty tricuspid valve, forcing the heart to work harder. The heart enlarges and loses efficiency throughout time.
What is tricuspid valve ?
The two right heart chambers are separated by the tricuspid valve. Three tiny tissue flaps make up the tricuspid valve. The right atrium's upper chamber (right atrium) and lower chamber (right chamber) blood flow is enabled by these valve flaps opening (right ventricle).
What is systole?
Systole is a period of contraction, when the heart muscle contracts and pushes blood out of the chambers into the arteries.
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How do these examples support the author’s statement that “selective breeding comes with both benefits and drawbacks”?
Selective breeding, which includes new varieties, may be economically significant by increasing or improving food production.
What are the advantages and drawbacks of selective breeding?A smaller gene pool caused by inbreeding can make it more challenging to develop new types in the future. Additionally, this makes organisms more vulnerable to inherited flaws or specific diseases.New variations may be economically significant by generating more or better-quality food, which is one of the benefits of selective breeding.Choosing parents with specific traits to breed with one another in order to generate kids with more desired traits is known as selective breeding. For thousands of years, humans have carefully bred a variety of animals and plants, including crop species that produce more.Genetic Diversity Is Unwantedly Reduced as a Result of Selective Breeding.Selective breeding is a farming technique used to strengthen beneficial features in plants and animals genetically. Reduced genetic diversity and discomfort for animals with highly pronounced traits are disadvantages.To learn more about the advantages and drawbacks of selective breeding refer to:
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if andrew does have a deficiency of the nutrient you identified, what foods can be added to andrew’s vegan, gluten-free diet to resupply this nutrient?
The foods can be added to Andrew's vegan, gluten-free diet to resupply this nutrient Spinach, mushrooms, and legumes.
What are the problems of nutrient deficiency?When the body does not receive enough nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals, nutritional deficiency results. Anemia is one of many disorders that are brought on by nutritional deficiencies. Vitamins are necessary for the body to function correctly and remain healthy. Protein Energy Malnutrition, Scurvy, Rickets, Beriberi, Hypocalcemia, Osteomalacia, Vitamin K Deficiency, Pellagra, Xerophthalmia, and Iron Deficiency are a few examples of these. The foods can be added to Andrew's vegan, gluten-free diet to resupply this nutrient Spinach, mushrooms, and legumes. The most prevalent nutritional deficiency in the world is iron deficiency, which is also one of the major factors increasing the burden of disease on the planet. Anemia, a blood disorder that causes fatigue, weakness, lightheadedness, and inadequate immune support, can also develop from an iron deficit.To learn more about nutrient deficiency refer to:
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Short bursts of lifting very heavy weights with low repetitions can be
referred to as this type of exercise.
Answer:
Muscular strength exercise
Explanation:
It is for strength, and not endurance, because it is not for a long period of time but in "short bursts"
How does dribling and passing can improve your performance on the basketball court. ∧ω∧
Answer:
Dribbling and passing are essential skills for success in basketball. Dribbling helps players maintain control of the ball and can be used to create space to shoot or pass. Passing helps create scoring opportunities, as well as move the ball quickly up the court, allowing for a faster-paced game. Both dribbling and passing can help players make better decisions on the court, as well as build teamwork and communication between teammates.
How do they make you susceptible to noncommunicable diseases, including diabetes, heart disease, and stroke?
Answer:
In this question we consider the environment, genetics, family history and current health behaviors.
Explanation:
When we talk about mental illness and symptoms of abnormal behavior, we are using terminology associated with which perspective?
While talking about mental illness and symptoms of abnormal behavior, we are use terminology associated with Medical perspective.
Which of the following best describes the major viewpoints on psychological disorders?In psychology, there are five main points of view: biological, psychodynamic, behavioral, cognitive, and humanistic.
According to the cognitive perspective, people act abnormally as a result of certain beliefs and actions that are frequently founded on their incorrect assumptions. The goal of treatments is to assist the maladjusted person in forming fresh perspectives and new moral principles. According to classical conditioning, depressive behavior can be learned by linking specific cues to unpleasant emotional states. According to the social learning hypothesis, people learn new behaviors through imitation, observation, and reinforcement.
In psychology, the cognitive perspective focuses on how the interplay between thinking, emotion, creativity, and problem-solving skills influence how and why one thinks the way he/she does.
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the minimum amount of time spent on cardiorespiratory activity per day should be
Family therapy tries to involve all of the members of the client’s family in the process. identify the true and false statements about family therapy!
True, Family therapy tries to involve all of the members of the client’s family in the process.
Family therapy is a subfield of clinical social work and psychology that works with families and couples in close relationships to foster change and development. It is also known as family counseling, family systems therapy, marriage and family therapy, couple and family therapy, and couple and family therapy. It has a propensity to view change in terms of the networks of communication among family members.
Regardless of the cause of the issue or whether the clients view it as a "individual" or "family" issue, the many schools of family therapy all share the conviction that incorporating families in solutions frequently benefits clients. Families are frequently directly involved in therapy sessions to achieve this involvement.
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Which of the following is strong evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior?
a. Dizygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do monozygotic twins.
b. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins.
c. Adopted children resemble their adopted families with regard to a trait.
d. None of the above are correct.
b. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins, is evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior.
The study of genes, genetic diversity, and heredity in living things is known as genetics. It is a crucial area of biology because heredity plays a key role in how organisms evolve. The first person to conduct a scientific study of genetics was Moravian Augustinian friar Gregor Mendel, who lived and worked in Brno in the 19th century. Mendel investigated the patterns of "trait inheritance," or the transmission of traits over generations from parents to children. He noted that distinct "units of inheritance" are how features are passed down via organisms (pea plants). This phrase, which is still in use today, gives a vague explanation of what is meant by the term "gene."
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diagnoses are confirmed through appropriate documentation in the patient’s medical record.
The following methods are used to confirm diagnoses through adequate documentation in the patient's medical file.
What makes documentation crucial?
A provider may indicate final diagnoses on a variety of reports, including: It is incorrect for coding professionals to assign a diagnosis based only on provider orders for prescribed prescriptions without the provider's documentation of the diagnosis being treated.
Admission record (face sheet), remarks on progress, and summary of discharge
How do medical records work?
The medical record is the primary source for diagnosing and reporting procedures and diagnoses. It is important to analyze the whole record to ascertain the precise nature of the encounter and the conditions it was used to treat.
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