Making Observations: To determine the mode of transmission (dominant or recessive), make observations and
assign possible genotypes below each symbol. Carriers are not shaded!
Claim: This trait appears to be
(dominant or recessive)
Evidence: (what specific places on the diagram helped to make this claim?)
Reasoning: The evidence supports my claim because
Answers
In order to understand the pattern of inheritance, pedigrees are also used to trace genes. 1) Claim: It appears that this feature is recessive. 2) Supporting Evidence: All generations, but particularly generations II, provide support for this assertion.
What are genes versus DNA?Your human anatomy is created and maintained by your DNA. Genes are sections of your DNA that give you the physical traits that set you apart from others. Your body's cells are guided by a detailed manual that is collectively present in your body.
What do genes actually do?A little DNA segment called a gene. Your genes carry instructions that direct your cells to produce proteins in your body. Your body uses proteins for a variety of purposes to maintain your health.
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Related Questions
Count the colonies and calculate the cfu/ml by adjusting the
dilution factor. Click check to check your answer
make sure you have clicked on the plate stack that was created
24 hours after incubation
Answers
By dividing the volume of the culture plate by the total number of colonies multiplied by the dilution factor, CFU/ml is determined. (Number of colonies*dilution factor)/volume of culture plate = CFU/ml.
How are CFU ml derived from colonies?The initial sample's CFU/ml concentration is obtained by multiplying the number of colony forming units on the countable plate by 1/FDF. This accounts for the entire dilution of the initial sample. In the initial sample, there were 8 x 10 CFU per milliliter (200 CFU x 1/1/4000 = 200 CFU x 4000 = 800000 CFU/ml).
What is the complete name of CFU ML?The colony forming unit (CFU) assay calculates the number of colonogenic cells that are still able to divide and colonize in CFU/mL.
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What are the sensory image present in the poem echoes
Answers
There are multiple sensory imageries in Christina Rossetti's poem "Echoes" that appeal to the senses of sight, sound, and touch.
A "silken girl" with "brilliant hair" dancing and singing is described in the poem. Moreover, "roses, roses" that bloom and fade are mentioned.The poem is replete with sound, from the girls' "silver laughing" to the "echoes, echoes" that reverberate across the landscape. The opposites of "music and stillness" and "pleasure and sadness" are also contrasted.The "wind of wings" that fans the "roses, roses" and the "raindrops" that gently fall to the ground are both mentioned in the poem.What are poem echoes?Christina Rossetti wrote the poem "Echoes," which was originally published in 1893. As the speaker recalls a former relationship and the echoes of their love that still exist, the poem comments on the concept of memory.The speaker of the poem begins by observing the echoes in a valley, which trigger old recollections. The phrase "faint airs" used to describe the echoes implies that they are merely transient echoes of the past. "I cannot tell/ Whether genuinely there be any kindred spirit," the speaker says, reflecting on the previous love that the echoes bring to mind. The surety of the echoes that remain contrasts with the ambiguity of whether or not the love still exists.learn more about poem echoes here
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Do you think that heat and light have mass? Do they occupies space?
Answers
Answer:
heat and light doesn't have mass and doesn't occupy space. they're forms of energy
Explanation:
In the process ot photosynthesis, plants use carbon dioxide, water, and energy to form sugars and oxygen. Which of the following best explains how plants follow the Law of Conservation of Mass during photosynthesis?
A. The reaction uses energy to produce a product without energy.
B.A gas and a liquid (water) use energy to produce a solid (sugar).
C.The amount of each element that begins photosynthesis equals the
amount of each element that Is produced.
D.The amount of sugars at the beginning of photosynthesis equals the
amount of oxygen that is produced.
Answers
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
The amount of each element that begins photosynthesis equals the amount of each element that is produced best explains how plants follow the Law of Conservation of Mass during photosynthesis. This is because during photosynthesis, the carbon dioxide (CO2) taken in by the plant is combined with water (H2O) to produce glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen (O2). The number of atoms of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the reactants (CO2 and H2O) is equal to the number of atoms of these elements in the products (C6H12O6 and O2), which means that the mass of the reactants is conserved and equals the mass of the products. Therefore, the Law of Conservation of Mass is followed during photosynthesis.
Law of conservation of mass that state matter can’t be created nor destroyed
Here the actual the amount of elements that start the reaction would appear as product
Whether as actual elements that start the reactions of combine states
Simple sugar which also contains
Carbon oxygen and hydrogen
C6H12O6
Corn has an inheritance pattern that is autosomal dihybrid recessive or would it just be dihybrid recessive?
Answers
Corn has an inheritance pattern that is dihybrid recessive. A dihybrid cross is a breeding experiment between organisms that have two different traits.
In the case of corn, these traits can include kernel color and texture. A recessive trait is one that is only expressed when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele. Therefore, in a dihybrid recessive cross, both parents must be heterozygous for both traits in order for the recessive traits to be expressed in the offspring.
It is not necessary to include the term "autosomal" in this case, as dihybrid crosses typically involve traits that are not sex-linked.
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Note: Short answers
A young athlete has trained over several months to participate in a duathlon sprint. They are doing this with their good friend, and it’s just for fun. They anticipate (based on their training times) that the total race will take them ~90 minutes to complete. The race will take place on a cool autumn day, and the individual expects to be performing at a steady state of ~50% of their maximal aerobic capacity.
1. What would be happening to the plasma concentrations of the following hormones within the first 30 minutes or so of the race (ie, moving from rest to a steady state):
1.Epinephrine/Norepinephrine
2. Insulin
2. As time passes (ie, duration), what changes will be occurring to energy substrate oxidation (ie, what’s being burned for energy CHO, Protein, or Fat)?
3. What would you expect to be happening to blood lactate concentrations during the race? (ie, between minute 30 and minute 60)
4. What if instead of a cool autumn day competing just for fun, this athlete raced in the middle of a hot summer day and at an intensity of ~85% of their maximal aerobic capacity? What would happen to their oxygen consumption and blood lactate concentrations during this race?
5. Immediately following the race, (ie, right after they cross the finish line and stop running) what happens to the athlete’s oxygen consumption rates, and why?
Answers
(1) Epinephrine and Norepinephrine plasma concentrations will increase, while Insulin concentration will decrease.
(2) As time passes, the body will shift from primarily burning carbohydrates to burning fat for energy substrate oxidation.
(3) Blood lactate concentrations will increase between minute 30 and minute 60 of the race.
(4) In the middle of a hot summer day and at an intensity of ~85% of their maximal aerobic capacity, the athlete's oxygen consumption will increase, and blood lactate concentrations will also increase.
(5) Immediately following the race, the athlete's oxygen consumption rates will remain elevated due to the body's need to replenish oxygen stores, remove lactate, and restore homeostasis.
The Explanation to Each AnswerEpinephrine and Norepinephrine plasma concentrations will increase in response to the physical and psychological stress of exercise. These hormones are released by the adrenal glands and increase heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, which helps to deliver more oxygen and glucose to the working muscles. Insulin concentration will decrease during exercise to allow more glucose to be available for energy production.As time passes during exercise, the body's carbohydrate stores are depleted, and the body starts to burn more fat for energy. This shift in energy substrate oxidation is due to the body's need to conserve glycogen stores for higher intensity exercise later on.
During exercise, lactate is produced as a by-product of the metabolism of glucose in the muscles. Initially, lactate production will be matched by lactate clearance, but after a certain point, lactate clearance will not keep up with lactate production, leading to an increase in blood lactate concentrations.
In the middle of a hot summer day and at an intensity of ~85% of their maximal aerobic capacity, the athlete's oxygen consumption will increase due to the increased metabolic demands of the body. The increased metabolic demands will lead to an increase in the rate of lactate production, leading to higher blood lactate concentrations.
Immediately following the race, the athlete's oxygen consumption rates will remain elevated due to the body's need to replenish oxygen stores, remove lactate, and restore homeostasis. The elevated oxygen consumption during this period is known as the "oxygen debt" or the "excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)." This period of elevated oxygen consumption can last anywhere from a few minutes to several hours depending on the intensity and duration of the exercise.
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Select the DNA sequence that is complementary to
5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3'
option 1: 5'-TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'
option 2: 5'-ATCACTGTCAACGCTA-3'
option 3: 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3'
option 4: 5'-TAGTGACAGTTGCGAT
Answers
The DNA sequence that is complementary to 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3 is 1: 5' TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'. Therefore the correct option is option A.
In DNA, the four bases adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G) always pair up in a specific way. Adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine pairs with guanine. This means that the complementary sequence to 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3' would have the bases T, A, G, C, G, T, T, G, A, C, A, G, T, G, A, T in that order.
Option 1 has the correct complementary sequence, while the other options do not have the correct base pairing. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1: 5'-TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'.
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How can researchers determine if an individual is suffering from a prion disease? Group of answer choices:
Misfolded proteins will form tight alpha helical structures
Misfolded proteins will be resistant to proteases
Misfolded proteins will not be detectable on a Western blot
Misfolded proteins will be visible on a Northern blot
Answers
Researchers can determine if an individual is suffering from a prion disease by observing if the misfolded proteins are resistant to proteases. Hence, the correct option is (B).
How Do Researchers Determine If An Individual Is Suffering From A Prion Disease?Prion diseases, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), are caused by the accumulation of abnormally folded prion proteins in the brain. These misfolded proteins are resistant to proteases, which are enzymes that break down proteins. Therefore, if an individual has a prion disease, their misfolded proteins will be resistant to proteases. This can be detected through various laboratory tests, such as a Western blot, which is used to detect specific proteins in a sample.
The question is incomplete, but most probably your question was:
Researchers can determine if an individual is suffering from a prion disease by observing if the
A. Misfolded proteins will form tight alpha helical structures
B. Misfolded proteins will be resistant to proteases
C. Misfolded proteins will not be detectable on a Western blot
D. Misfolded proteins will be visible on a Northern blot
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Indicate some possible ways in which foods may become
contaminated with enteric organisms- list more than 1 way
Answers
Foods can become contaminated with enteric organisms in several ways, including, unsanitary habits during food preparation, such as not washing hands after using the restroom, might introduce enteric organisms into the meal being prepared.
As a result of direct or indirect contact, contaminated foods can spread to other foods, a phenomenon known as cross-contamination.
Vegetables can become contaminated with enteric germs, for instance, if a cutting board is used to chop raw meat and subsequently veggies without sufficient cleaning.
Foods cleaned or prepared with water that is polluted with enteric microbes can be contaminated by eating them.
Expansion and multiplication of enteric microbes can cause food contamination if it is not kept at the correct temperature during storage.
Food can become contaminated if enteric germs are present on the equipment used to prepare or store it.
These are just a few of the possible ways in which foods can become contaminated with enteric organisms. It is important to follow proper food safety practices to prevent contamination and reduce the risk of foodborne illness.
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Much of the recent interest in nuclear power is related to...
a. the limited supply of natural gas to generate
electricity
b. fluctuating cost of oil and gasoline.
c. The limited supply of coal to gen
Answers
The correct answer is A. Much of the recent interest in nuclear power is related to the limited supply of natural gas to generate electricity.
Nuclear power has become an attractive alternative to traditional fossil fuels such as natural gas, oil, and coal due to its efficiency and low-emission nature. With increasing demand for electricity, the limited supply of natural gas has made nuclear power an increasingly attractive option.
Fluctuating costs of oil and gasoline, while a factor in considering nuclear power, is not the primary cause of recent interest. Hence, The correct answer is A. Much of the recent interest in nuclear power is related to the limited supply of natural gas to generate electricity.
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Why would selection act on non genetic regions or regions with
no genes regarding evolution?
Answers
Selection acts on non-genetic regions or regions with no genes in regards to evolution because these regions still have the potential to alter an organism's phenotype.
For example, epigenetic changes can alter gene expression without changing the underlying DNA sequence. These epigenetic changes can be influenced by environment and experience, which in turn can influence the traits an organism passes on to its offspring. In this way, selection can act on non-genetic regions, providing a potential mechanism for evolutionary change.
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Compared to the brand of detergent that was given to you, can other detergents or even soaps be used? If yes, why? If not, why not? Yes, be cause all detergents can do the same function that they help in capturing and separating the lipids and proteins from the cells. 5. Your group was given 30 g of green peas and the procedure indicated certain quantities of all the reagents. Can you use more of the green peas to start the experiment? If so, how would you modify your procedure? 6. Can the same method of isolation of the DNA be used for other raw vegetables, fruits, or other parts of a plant such as leaves? Explain your answer.
Answers
Yes, other detergents and soaps can be used in the experiment because all detergents have the same function of capturing and separating the lipids and proteins from the cells. However, it is important to note that different detergents may have different levels of effectiveness and may produce different results.
If you use more than 30 g of green peas in the experiment, you would need to modify your procedure by increasing the quantities of all the reagents proportionally to ensure that the experiment is conducted correctly and the results are accurate.
The same method of isolation of DNA can be used for other raw vegetables, fruits, or other parts of a plant such as leaves. This is because the basic structure of DNA is the same in all living organisms, and the same method of capturing and separating the lipids and proteins from the cells can be applied to any type of plant material. However, it is important to note that different types of plant material may have different levels of DNA content and may require different quantities of reagents to isolate the DNA effectively.
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What characteristic of life does a virus actually have on its own?
a) It is made of one or more cells.
b) The has DNA or RNA
c) It grows and develops
d) It can reproduce on its own
Answers
Answer:
D it can grow and develop
Explanation:
What happens to clear lime water if air is pumped
Answers
Answer:
It turns milky or creamy
Explanation:
When carbon (IV) oxide is pumped into lime water which is calcium carbonate (IV), it turns milky or creamy
what is the role of carotene and xanthophyll
Answers
Answer:
Carotenes and Xanthophyll
Explanation:
Carotenes contribute to photosynthesis by transmitting the light energy they absorb to chlorophyll. They also protect plant tissues by helping to absorb the energy from singlet oxygen, an excited form of the oxygen molecule O2 which is formed during photosynthesis.
Xanthophylls can function as accessory light-harvesting pigments, as structural entities within the LHC, and as molecules required for the protection of photosynthetic organisms from the potentially toxic effects of light.
Carotenes and their oxygenated derivatives, xanthophylls, are structural elements of the photosynthetic apparatus and contribute to increasing both the light-harvesting and photoprotective capacity of the photosystems.
If an insertion mutation is made in a phage genome at the tenthcodon, and a deletion was made in the fourteenth codon, would theresulting plaque have the wild-type phenotype?
Answers
An insertion mutation at the tenth codon and a deletion at the fourteenth codon would most likely not result in a wild-type phenotype. This is because both mutations would alter the reading frame of the gene, leading to a change in the amino acid sequence and potentially a nonfunctional protein.
The insertion mutation would add an extra nucleotide at the tenth codon, causing a frameshift mutation that would alter the reading frame for the rest of the gene. Similarly, the deletion mutation would remove a nucleotide at the fourteenth codon, also causing a frameshift mutation. These mutations could lead to a change in the protein structure and function, potentially resulting in a non-wild-type phenotype.
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In contrast to the previous mouse example: A heterozygote carrying a dominant allele is selected for differently. For example, if in a heterozygote of A1A2 the A2 allele providing a camouflage advantage was dominant, then how does that affect selection?
Answers
A heterozygote carrying a dominant allele is selected differently. If in a heterozygote of A₁A₂ the A₂ allele providing a camouflage advantage was dominant, then the individual would have a higher chance of survival and reproduction.
This is because the dominant allele A2 would be expressed and provide the individual with the camouflage advantage, even though they also carry the A1 allele. As a result, the A2 allele would be more likely to be passed on to future generations and increase in frequency in the population. This is an example of positive selection, where the dominant allele conferring an advantage is favored by natural selection.
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11. Paracrines is one way in which cells communicate. These chemical
messengers:
OA)
are released into the blood
B) are released into the tissues to effect local cells
C) allow for gap junction communication
Answers
Paracrine is one way in which cells communicate. These chemical messengers are released into the tissues to effect local cells. The correct option is B.
What is paracrine?Paracrine are a type of chemical messenger or signaling molecule that cells release into the extracellular fluid to act on neighboring cells.
They are typically involved in local signaling within tissues and organs and are not released into the bloodstream to act on distant cells.
Cytokines, growth factors, and prostaglandins are examples of paracrine signaling molecules.
Gap junction communication, on the other hand, is characterized by direct cell-to-cell communication via specialized channels known as gap junctions.
Gap junctions allow small molecules and ions to pass directly from one cell to another and are critical for coordinating cell activity within tissues and organs.
Gap junctions are not considered a type of chemical messenger or signaling molecule.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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What happens if the extracellular matrix is defective?
Answers
When the extracellular matrix (ECM) is defective, a variety of diseases can occur, including connective tissue diseases, cancer, and neurodegenerative disorders. The extracellular matrix (ECM) serves as a protective barrier, and its defects can cause a variety of disorders.
The extracellular matrix (ECM) is a complex network of proteins and sugars that surround and support cells in multicellular organisms. Collagen, elastin, laminin, and fibronectin are the most common proteins in the ECM. It is necessary for a variety of cellular activities, including differentiation, migration, adhesion, and proliferation. It also serves as a mediator between cells, allowing for the exchange of signals. When the extracellular matrix is defective, a variety of diseases can occur, including connective tissue diseases, cancer, and neurodegenerative disorders. ECM can break down when there is too much degradation or too little synthesis.
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Linnaeus and other early scientists classified organisms based on visible traits. Today, scientists generally use cladograms based on DNA and other evolutionary evidence to classify organisms. Why have most scientists changed their method of classification?
Answers
Answer:
DNA is a
Explanation:
A wave reflected off a cliff wall is interfering with a wave moving inland. The reflected wave has an amplitude of five feet and the incoming wave has an amplitude of one foot. If the crest of the reflected wave meets the trough of the incoming wave, what will happen with the resulting wave?
A.
Constructive interference: the amplitude will be greater than one foot.
B.
Constructive interference: the amplitude will be greater than five feet.
C.
Destructive interference: the amplitude will be greater than one foot.
D.
Destructive interference: the amplitude will be greater than five feet.
Answers
A wave reflected off a cliff wall is interfering with a wave moving inland. The reflected wave has an amplitude of five feet and the incoming wave has an amplitude of one foot. If the crest of the reflected wave meets the trough of the incoming wave, the resulting wave will be- destructive interference: the amplitude will be greater than one foot.
What is wave?
In physics, math, and related fields, a wave is a dynamic disturbance of one or more quantities that spreads. If a wave is periodic, quantities may oscillate on a regular basis around an equilibrium (resting) value at a particular frequency. A standing wave, in contrast, is made up of two periodic waves that are overlapped and move in the opposite directions. A travelling wave is one in which the entire waveform moves in one direction.
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The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange, but it is also involved in speech. Which organ of the respiratory system enables the generation of sound?
Answers
Answer:
The Larynx
Explanation:
The organ that is involved with speech and generates sound is the Larynx.
The chemical compound oligomycin, when added to cells, binds to the FO subunit of F1FO
ATP synthase and blocks proton flow through the channel. Which of the following would be
expected to be a consequence of adding oligomycin to cells:
a) Decrease fermentation pathway use
b) Increase ATP production by the ATP synthase
c) Increase cell growth
d) Increase respiratory capacity
e) Decrease the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation
Answers
The expected consequence of adding oligomycin to cells is the decrease the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation. The correct answer is E.
Oligomycin is a macrolide antibiotic, and oligomycin A is the most potent of its analogs. It is used to bind to the Fo subunit of ATP synthase and prevent proton movement through the enzyme's rotor. This, in turn, decreases the efficiency of ATP production in the cell. As a result, the reaction rate is reduced, and oxidative phosphorylation's effectiveness is reduced.
Oligomycin is a potent inhibitor of ATP synthase, and it is often used to research the enzyme's function. The ATP synthase has two main components: the Fo and the F1. The F1 unit is where ATP synthesis occurs, while the Fo unit contains the proton channel that powers ATP synthesis by allowing protons to flow through it. Inhibition of the Fo unit leads to ATP synthase inhibition, which can have many consequences, such as a decrease in oxidative phosphorylation efficiency, and therefore, the correct option is (e) Decrease the efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation.
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Alyssa C. is your first patient. She was born in Italy, and moved to the United States with her family when she was 10. She is a 60-year-old homemaker, who appears slightly overweight, and admits to high blood pressure and high cholesterol, both controlled by medication. She has been a patient in the practice of your dentist's sister, Dr. Lynne, who has an office across town, for the last 30 years. She recently decided to change dental practices as our office is near her residence.
Alyssa has been faithful with her recall visits, and has followed all the treatments that Dr. Lynne and the various hygienists have suggested during her years as a patient in that practice, including routine radiographs.
You begin probing, and Alyssa questions what you are doing. She states that "no one has ever done that to her teeth and gums," and quite frankly finds it very uncomfortable. Alyssa says that she thought her oral health could be evaluated by the "full set of x-rays" that she received every few years.
Clinically, it reveals that Alyssa presents with generalized tooth mobility and early furcation involvement, especially on the maxillary molars. Her probe readings are generalized 4 to 6 mm in the posterior sextants. She assumed that her mouth was in good health, and is shocked to find out otherwise.
1. What ethical principles are in conflict in this dilemma?
2. What is the best way for you to handle this ethical dilemma?
3. What is the best way to address/discuss Philomena's treatment plan?
Answers
Autonomy: Alyssa has the right to make decisions about her health and her body. She believed that routine radiographs were enough to evaluate her oral health, and may feel that her autonomy was violated by the probing and examination.
Beneficence: As a healthcare provider, your duty is to do what is in the patient's best interest, which may include identifying and addressing oral health issues, such as periodontal disease. However, in doing so, you may be causing discomfort or anxiety to the patient, which may create tension with the principle of autonomy.
Non-maleficence: Healthcare providers should not cause harm to their patients. In this case, probing may be uncomfortable for Alyssa, and she may feel that the examination caused her harm.
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what is farm bill and how it is made and why it is important please
in your words don't just copy and paste from internet
Answers
The Farm Bill is a collection of laws and regulations that govern agricultural and food production in the United States. It is important because it sets the standards for food safety, provides agricultural research and development funding, and sets the pricing for certain commodities. It is made by Congress and is passed by both the Senate and the House of Representatives.
A farm bill is a comprehensive piece of legislation that is passed by the United States Congress and signed into law by the President. It covers a wide range of agricultural and food policy issues, including farm subsidies, crop insurance, conservation, nutrition assistance, and rural development. The farm bill is typically reauthorized every five years, and the most recent version was passed in 2018.
The process of creating a farm bill begins with hearings held by the House and Senate Agriculture Committees, where lawmakers hear testimony from stakeholders and experts about the needs and concerns of the agricultural community. The committees then draft their own versions of the bill, which are debated and amended by the full House and Senate. Once both chambers have passed their versions of the bill, a conference committee made up of members from both chambers works to reconcile the differences and create a final version of the bill. This final version is then voted on by both the House and Senate, and if it passes, it is sent to the President to be signed into law.
The farm bill is important because it sets the direction of agricultural and food policy for the country. It provides support to farmers and ranchers, helps to protect natural resources, and ensures that low-income families have access to healthy food. Without the farm bill, many of these programs and policies would not exist, and the agricultural industry would be left without the support it needs to thrive.
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2. What is the depth measurement for the hemacytometer? 3. How many squares do you need to count to have a volume of 1 mm3?
4. You filled a hemacytometer with an undiluted pleural fluid and when you began you count you found that there were 80-100 WBC area. Is this dilution ok nor should you perform a dilution and refill yhe hemacytometer? If so, what dilution?
Answers
2. The depth measurement is 0.1 mm.3)10 squares you need to count to have a volume of 1 mm3. 4). The dilution for this sample is not ok, as the ideal range for WBC count on a hemacytometer is 30-50 WBC per area.
2. The depth measurement for the hemacytometer is 0.1 mm.
3. To have a volume of 1 mm3, you need to count 10 squares. This is because each square on the hemacytometer has a volume of 0.1 mm3, so 10 squares x 0.1 mm3 = 1 mm3.
4. The dilution for this sample is not ok, as the ideal range for WBC count on a hemacytometer is 30-50 WBC per area. Therefore, you should perform a dilution and refill the hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution (1 part sample to 9 parts diluent) would be appropriate to bring the WBC count into the ideal range.
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1. Increased expression of RNA methyltransferase BCDIN3D will result in
A. Increased expression of miR-21
B. Increased expression of miR-145
C. Decreased expression of miR-145
D. Decreased expression of miR-21
Answers
Increased expression of RNA methyltransferase BCDIN3D will result in C. Decreased expression of miR-145.
This is because BCDIN3D is a negative regulator of miR-145 expression. Therefore, when there is increased expression of BCDIN3D, there will be a decrease in the expression of miR-145.
This is because BCDIN3D is a negative regulator of miR-145 expression. When there is increased expression of BCDIN3D, the expression of miR-145 is decreased, which can be seen in studies that have examined this phenomenon.
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list the changes DNA causes within an organism
Answers
Answer:
A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism. Mutations can result from errors in DNA replication during cell division, exposure to mutagens or a viral infection.
Explanation:
goodluck
At higher latitudes, does the amount of incoming shortwave radiation exceed or deficit the amount of outgoing longwave radiation? This leads to an energy excess or deficit?
Answers
At higher latitudes, the amount of incoming shortwave radiation is less than the amount of outgoing longwave radiation. This leads to an energy deficit.
The amount of incoming shortwave radiation from the sun decreases as the latitude increases. This is because the sun's rays have to travel a longer distance through the atmosphere to reach the higher latitudes, causing more of the shortwave radiation to be scattered and absorbed before reaching the surface.
On the other hand, the amount of outgoing longwave radiation remains relatively constant at all latitudes. This is because the Earth's surface emits longwave radiation at a constant rate, regardless of latitude.
As a result, at higher latitudes, there is less incoming shortwave radiation than outgoing longwave radiation, leading to an energy deficit. This energy deficit is one of the main reasons why the polar regions are colder than the equatorial regions.
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T/F SternocleidomastoidConcentrically accelerates cervical flexion, rotation, and lateral flexionEccentrically decelerates cervical extension, rotation, and lateral flexionIsometrically stabilizes the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint
Answers
The given statement “Sternocleidomastoid Concentrically accelerates cervical flexion, rotation, and lateral flexionEccentrically decelerates cervical extension, rotation, and lateral flexionIsometrically stabilizes the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint” is true because the sternocleidomastoid muscle plays a crucial role in the movement and stabilization of the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint. It concentrically accelerates cervical flexion, rotation, and lateral flexion, allowing for movement of the head and neck.
Additionally, it eccentrically decelerates cervical extension, rotation, and lateral flexion, helping to control and slow down these movements.
Finally, it isometrically stabilizes the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint, providing support and preventing injury. Overall, the sternocleidomastoid is an important muscle that contributes to the functioning of the cervical spine and acromioclavicular joint.
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