The correct order for the following steps when searching for a drug to compound in an ointment are: 1. Search using the first two letters of the desired drug.2. Always review the dose and package size selected.3. Save all the materials you used for the pharmacist verification process.4. Charge for the amount needed to make the compound.
The following is the correct order for the steps to be taken while searching for a drug to compound in an ointment:
1. Search using the first two letters of the desired drug: To begin with, you must search using the first two letters of the desired drug.
2. Always review the dose and package size selected: After selecting the drug, it is important to review the dose and package size selected.
3. Save all the materials you used for the pharmacist verification process: The materials you used to compound the drug must be saved for the pharmacist verification process.
4. Charge for the amount needed to make the compound: Finally, you must charge for the amount needed to make the compound.
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People can be carriers of Neisseria meningitidis without having
disease from the organism.
True
False
True. People can indeed be carriers of Neisseria meningitidis without showing any symptoms or signs of disease caused by the organism.
Neisseria meningitidis is a bacterium that can cause meningitis and other severe infections. It is commonly found in the nasopharynx (the upper part of the throat behind the nose) of healthy individuals. Carriers can harbor the bacterium without experiencing any illness themselves.
Carriers can unknowingly spread the bacteria through respiratory droplets, particularly during close contact, such as living in close quarters or kissing. While carriers may not be affected by the bacteria, they can potentially transmit it to others, who may then develop meningococcal disease. Vaccination and appropriate public health measures are essential in preventing the spread of Neisseria meningitidis and reducing the risk of disease.
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Describe how the drug, Glucotrol is absorbed, flows through the body, and how it is eliminated from the body
(pharmacokinetics). For instance what part of the digestive tract absorbs the drug? Are there
intermediate products? What organ manages the biproducts?
Please include work citation
Glucotrol, a drug used to treat type 2 diabetes, is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, undergoes metabolism in the liver, and is eliminated mainly through the kidneys.
Glucotrol, also known as glipizide, is an oral medication belonging to the sulfonylurea class used in the management of type 2 diabetes. When taken orally, Glucotrol is absorbed mainly in the small intestine, specifically the jejunum and ileum. The drug is then transported into the bloodstream, where it can exert its therapeutic effects.
Once Glucotrol enters the bloodstream, it is bound to plasma proteins to varying degrees. This binding limits the distribution of the drug throughout the body, as only the unbound (free) fraction is active and able to interact with target tissues.
Following absorption, Glucotrol is transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. In the liver, the drug undergoes extensive metabolism through hepatic enzymes, primarily the cytochrome P450 system. This metabolism leads to the formation of several inactive metabolites, which are subsequently excreted from the body.
The elimination of Glucotrol and its metabolites occurs primarily through the kidneys. They are filtered out of the bloodstream by the glomerulus and then undergo tubular secretion and reabsorption processes in the renal tubules. The final elimination occurs in the urine, with a small portion being excreted in feces.
In summary, Glucotrol is absorbed in the small intestine, metabolized in the liver, and eliminated primarily through the kidneys. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of Glucotrol is crucial in optimizing its dosing regimen and ensuring its effectiveness in managing type 2 diabetes.
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completely review the APA style workshop on the Purdue owl website.you will be using the APA format extensively in your education and career. do not take these exercises lightly. They are foundational for your writing as we move forward in the program. For this assignment you must submit an example of a reference from each of the topics under the APA citations and Reference list. There are 8 items on the reference list.
draw
explain why the circle of Willis is important in cerebral circulation.
The circle of Willis is important in cerebral circulation as it helps to provide collateral circulation, ensures the continuous flow of blood to the brain, and helps prevent brain damage during a stroke.
The circle of Willis is an important circulatory structure in the brain which is formed by the interconnection of several major arteries. The circle of Willis is essential in the cerebral circulation as it ensures the continuous flow of blood to the brain, helps provide collateral circulation, and helps prevent brain damage during a stroke. Collateral circulation is an alternative pathway of blood flow in the event that the primary pathway is blocked.
This means that if one of the major arteries supplying blood to the brain is occluded, the circle of Willis provides an alternative pathway for blood to reach the brain and prevent damage. Apart from providing collateral circulation, the circle of Willis helps to ensure the continuous flow of blood to the brain, which is necessary for the brain to function properly. Additionally, the circle of Willis also helps to prevent brain damage during a stroke as it can provide a bypass for blood flow in the event that a clot blocks one of the arteries in the brain.
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TPN Discharge Planning Assignment. Develop a discharge teaching plan for the caregiver who will be responsible for the home care/administration of parenteral nutrition (PN), also known as total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
The discharge teaching plan for the caregiver responsible for the home care/administration of parenteral nutrition (PN), also known as total parenteral nutrition (TPN), should include instructions on proper storage and handling of TPN solutions, administration techniques, equipment maintenance, monitoring for complications, and emergency procedures.
When developing a discharge teaching plan for the caregiver of a patient receiving TPN, it is crucial to provide comprehensive instructions to ensure safe and effective administration of the therapy at home. The plan should cover topics such as proper storage of TPN solutions, including refrigeration requirements and expiration dates. Caregivers should be educated on the correct administration techniques, such as aseptic practices and use of infusion devices. They should also receive guidance on equipment maintenance, including cleaning procedures and replacement schedules.
Monitoring for complications is an essential aspect of home care for TPN patients. Caregivers should be educated on recognizing signs of infection, metabolic imbalances, or other adverse reactions and instructed on when to seek medical assistance. Emergency procedures, such as what to do in case of equipment malfunction or power outage, should also be covered.
Overall, the discharge teaching plan should empower the caregiver with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective home care/administration of TPN, promoting patient well-being and minimizing the risk of complications.
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Name at least 2 key points that you feel are the most valuable
and useful to you in your medical assisting career. Explain why you
chose them.
Medical Ethics and Confidentiality and Current Medical Technologies and Practices are the most valuable
and useful in medical assisting career.
As a medical assistant, it is essential to have an understanding of medical ethics and the importance of confidentiality in the medical assisting career. Also, it is important to keep updated with current medical technologies and practices.
Here are the key points that are valuable and useful in a medical assisting career:
Medical Ethics and Confidentiality: Medical ethics and confidentiality are essential to patient care and safety. Medical assistants must keep confidential the medical information of their patients. Medical ethics require medical assistants to be honest and open with patients regarding their care and medical history. Medical assistants must also provide safe and appropriate care to their patients.
Current Medical Technologies and Practices: As a medical assistant, it is important to keep up to date with new medical technologies and practices. This allows for a more efficient and effective treatment of patients. Knowing the latest technologies and practices is important in providing accurate diagnoses and effective treatments. Medical assistants who are knowledgeable about the latest technologies and practices will be in demand in their field.
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You are the nurse manager on an ICU unit. The unit was exceptionally busy as you had a call in from a nurse and your CNA was pulled to another unit. Nurse Bonnie has 3 patients that day due to the call in. She was about to deliver medications when she received a call from a physician that needed to change orders on a very critical patient. Bonnie looked for another nurse to take the order, but there were none available. Everyone was very busy. So she left the PYXIS and went to answer the phone. She went back to Patient A’s room and administered the medication.
About an hour later, Nurse Bonnie comes to you and tells you she gave the medication for Patient B to Patient A. She had checked on the patient and there were no adverse reactions.
You report this incident to quality and call the patient A’s physician to report the error. Since there were no adverse reactions, the doctor said to continue to report this to Quality.
The Quality and the Legal department call you to do an RCA (Root Cause Analysis) on the situation. They told you to do the investigation on the incident.
During your investigation of the incident, you find out the nurse did not have the order sheet with her when she went to the PYXUS. After the phone call, she went into the patient’s room and gave the medication. After the phone call, she went into the patient’s room and gave the medication. When you talked to the nurse, she admitted she inadvertently put Patient B’s medication in her pocket and answered the phone call. She then went to Patient A’s room and administered the medication.
What patient safety goal(s) were violated?
What would you report in the RCA as the cause?
How would you prevent this happening the next time?
What actions are taken against the nurse?
In this incident, Nurse Bonnie inadvertently administered the medication meant for Patient B to Patient A. The patient did not experience any adverse reactions. The patient safety goal violated in this case is medication safety. The root cause analysis (RCA) investigation reveals that the nurse did not have the order sheet with her and mistakenly carried Patient B's medication.
To prevent such incidents in the future, improvements in communication, documentation, and medication verification processes should be implemented. Regarding actions against the nurse, it would depend on the organization's policies and protocols.
The patient safety goal violated in this case is medication safety. Administering the wrong medication to a patient is a serious error that can have severe consequences. The root cause analysis (RCA) would identify the cause of the incident as the nurse's failure to have the order sheet with her and inadvertently carrying Patient B's medication.
To prevent this from happening again, several measures can be implemented. First, ensuring that nurses have all necessary information, such as order sheets, before accessing medication administration systems like PYXIS. Adequate communication channels should be established to enable nurses to seek support or assistance when they are unable to leave their assigned tasks. Improved documentation processes, such as using barcode scanning or electronic medication administration records (eMARs), can help prevent medication errors. Regular training and education on medication safety and error prevention should also be provided to the nursing staff.
The actions taken against the nurse would depend on the organization's policies and protocols. Typically, a medication error of this nature would trigger an incident report, which would be reviewed by the quality and legal departments. Depending on the severity of the error and the nurse's previous record, corrective actions could range from additional training and counseling to disciplinary measures.
To ensure patient safety and prevent similar incidents in the future, a comprehensive approach that addresses communication, documentation, and medication verification processes should be implemented, while providing appropriate support and education to healthcare professionals.
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Which of the following accurately describes the U.S. Supreme Court's Roe v. Wade ruling? 1) The state can place increasing limits on a woman's access to abortion as the pregnancy progresses 2) The state can place limits on a woman's right to an abortion at any time during her pregnancy if it determines that such a decision is in the best interests of the woman or the fetus 3) A woman has a constitutionally protected right to privacy, which includes her right to abortion 4) It was announced in 1973. 5) a., c., and d. 6) b., c., and d. 7) c. and d.
Roe v. Wade is the case that led to the U.S. Supreme Court's decision to rule that a woman's constitutional right to privacy includes her right to have an abortion.
This is the description that accurately describes the U.S. Supreme Court's Roe v. Wade ruling. The U.S. Supreme Court's decision in Roe v. Wade was announced in 1973. A woman's right to privacy, including her right to an abortion, was constitutionally protected as a result of the decision. The state is prohibited from placing limits on a woman's right to an abortion during the first trimester of pregnancy.
However, the state can place increasing limits on a woman's access to abortion as the pregnancy progresses. It is not legal for the state to place limits on a woman's right to an abortion at any point during her pregnancy, whether it believes it is in her best interests or the fetus's best interests. Therefore, options a, b, and d are incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option (c) A woman has a constitutionally protected right to privacy, which includes her right to abortion.
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Describe the difference between schedule I, II,III , IV and V
drugs and who can prescribe them. Give 5 examples of each
Difference between Schedule I, II, III, IV, and V drugs is their classification based on their potential for abuse and accepted medical use.
Schedule I, II, III, IV, and V drugs are classified based on their potential for abuse, dependence, and medical value. The following are the differences between each of the drug schedules:
Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse, are not recognized for medical use, and lack safety measures even under medical supervision. This category of drugs cannot be prescribed, and their use is strictly regulated. Examples include heroin, LSD, marijuana, peyote, methaqualone, and ecstasy.
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, are recognized for medical use, and have severe restrictions. A prescription from a licensed physician is required for these medications, and they must be refilled in person. Examples of Schedule II drugs include cocaine, morphine, methamphetamine, oxycodone, and fentanyl.
Schedule III drugs have a lower potential for abuse than Schedule I and II drugs, are recognized for medical use, and have less severe restrictions. A licensed physician can prescribe these drugs, and refills can be done up to five times within six months of the initial prescription. Examples of Schedule III drugs include ketamine, anabolic steroids, and some barbiturates.
Schedule IV drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule III drugs and are recognized for medical use. A licensed physician can prescribe these drugs, and refills can be done up to five times within six months of the initial prescription. Examples of Schedule IV drugs include alprazolam, diazepam, zolpidem, and lorazepam.
Schedule V drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV drugs, are recognized for medical use, and are less regulated than other drug schedules. A licensed physician can prescribe these drugs, and refills can be done within six months of the initial prescription. Examples of Schedule V drugs include cough syrup with codeine, some anticonvulsants, and some anti-diarrheal medications.
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Explain why multiple drugs are given
for allergic reactions?
Multiple drugs are given for allergic reactions because different drugs have different mechanisms of action and can target different aspects of the immune response, multiple drugs are often used in combination to provide the most effective treatment for allergic reactions.
Multiple drugs are given for allergic reactions because they help to target different aspects of the immune system that are involved in the allergic response.
For example, antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released during an allergic reaction that causes symptoms such as itching, swelling, and redness.
On the other hand, corticosteroids work by reducing inflammation, which can help to relieve symptoms such as swelling and pain. Additionally, epinephrine is used in severe cases of allergic reactions to open up airways and improve breathing.
Because different drugs have different mechanism of action and can target different aspects of the immune response, multiple drugs are often used in combination to provide the most effective treatment for allergic reactions. This approach can help to alleviate symptoms quickly and reduce the risk of complications, such as anaphylaxis.
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Which of the following characteristic is TRUE regarding the phasic receptors? a. They discharge continuously with stimulation of constant intensity b. They generally respond best to changes in stimulus strength c. They encode both, rate of change and stimulus intensity d. They primarily encode the intensity of a stimulus e. They encode information regarding pain and temperature
The option b is correct. The true characteristic of phasic receptors is that they generally respond best to changes in stimulus strength.
Phasic receptors have the characteristic of responding best to changes in stimulus strength.
Definition of phasic receptors: Phasic receptors are a type of sensory receptor in the body that are responsible for detecting changes or variations in stimuli.
Continuous discharge: Phasic receptors do not discharge continuously with the stimulation of constant intensity. Instead, they are more sensitive to changes in the strength or nature of the stimulus.
Response to changes: Phasic receptors are specifically designed to detect changes in the stimulus. They have a higher firing rate when there is a change in stimulus intensity, and they adapt or decrease their firing rate when the stimulus remains constant.
Encoding changes: Phasic receptors encode information about the rate of change of a stimulus rather than just the stimulus intensity itself. They are more focused on detecting and signaling changes in the sensory input.
Examples: Phasic receptors can be found in various sensory systems. For instance, in the skin, there are phasic receptors responsible for detecting light touch or changes in pressure. In the auditory system, phasic receptors help in detecting changes in sound intensity.
In summary, the true characteristic of phasic receptors is that they generally respond best to changes in stimulus strength rather than encoding constant intensity.
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Mr. Johnny Wolf, a 40-year-old Native American male was admitted into ICU after falling off a very high cliff. His injuries include a fractured pelvis. bilateral fractures of his lower extremities, and contusions to his head and face. He received orders for an IV 0.9% NaCl 100 cc/hr, Demerol 50 mg with Vistaril 50 mg for pain IM every 3 to 4 hours PRN, a Foley catheter, CT scans, lab orders, and bedrest. He is allergic to ASA and watermelon. (Learning Objectives 1, 2, 4, 9, 10) 1. Describe how the nurse would prevent a needle stick after giving Mr.Wolf his IM injection for pain. 2. Describe the Z-track or (zigzag) method of giving an IM injection 3. List the steps to inserting a peripheral IV. 4. Mr. Wolf is complaining of his IV site hurting. List the signs and symptoms of an IV infiltration 5. List the parts of the syringe that has to maintain sterilit
To prevent a needle stick after giving Mr. Wolf his IM injection for pain, the nurse can follow these steps:
After administering the injection, activate the safety feature of the syringe or needle device according to the manufacturer's instructions.
Place the used needle or syringe into a designated sharps container immediately after use, without recapping or manipulating the needle.
The Z-track or zigzag method of giving an IM injection is a technique used to prevent medication from leaking back into the subcutaneous tissue and causing skin irritation. Here are the steps involved:
Select an appropriate needle length and gauge for the injection site and medication being administered.
Cleanse the injection site with an alcohol swab and allow it to dry.
Using the non-dominant hand, stretch the skin laterally to the side, creating a taut surface.
With the dominant hand, insert the needle quickly and deeply into the muscle at a 90-degree angle.
Aspirate to check for blood return. If blood appears, withdraw the needle and discard it.
Inject the medication slowly and steadily.
Remove the needle and release the skin, allowing it to return to its original position. This creates a "zigzag" or "track" path for the medication.
The steps for inserting a peripheral IV are as follows:
Perform hand hygiene and gather all the necessary supplies.
Identify a suitable insertion site, usually on the forearm or hand, by assessing vein visibility and palpability.
Apply a tourniquet above the intended insertion site to enhance vein prominence.
Cleanse the site with an antiseptic solution using an aseptic technique, starting from the center and moving outward in a circular motion.
Using a sterile needle or catheter, enter the skin at a 15-30 degree angle, with the bevel facing upward.
Once a flashback of blood is observed in the catheter hub, advance the catheter into the vein while stabilizing the needle.
Remove the tourniquet and release the vein occlusion.
Secure the catheter in place with an appropriate dressing and securement device.
Flush the catheter with a saline solution to ensure patency.
Document the procedure, including the catheter size, insertion site, and patient's tolerance.
Signs and symptoms of an IV infiltration include:
Swelling or edema around the IV site.
Coolness or cool temperature of the surrounding skin.
Pain or discomfort at the IV site.
Pallor or blanching of the skin around the site.
Slowed or stopped infusion flow.
Leaking of fluid or blood at the site.
Impaired mobility or restricted range of motion in the affected limb.
The parts of the syringe that need to maintain sterility are:
The plunger: It should not come into contact with any non-sterile surfaces or be touched with ungloved hands.
The needle or tip of the syringe:It should remain sterile until the time of injection and not come into contact with anything non-sterile.
The barrel of the syringe:It should be kept clean and free from contamination, although it does not need to maintain strict sterility.
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How did Jenner determine that cowpox exposure could protect people against smallpox? Choose all that apply
- Jenner had observational data; he knew local people who had suffered from cowpox and were subsequently exposed to smallpox without getting sick
- Jenner could directly test for the effectiveness of cowpox vaccination by attempting to use traditional variolation/inoculation; cowpox-exposed patients would not respond entirely to traditional inoculation with smallpox material
- Jenner had access to local knowledge; lots of local people believed that cowpox offered a protective effect against smallpox and vice versa
- none of the above are correct
Jenner could directly test for the effectiveness of cowpox vaccination by attempting to use traditional variolation/inoculation; cowpox-exposed patients would not respond entirely to traditional inoculation with smallpox material.
PartJenner concluded that people who had cowpox were protected against smallpox as well. Jenner could directly test for the effectiveness of cowpox vaccination by attempting to use traditional variolation/inoculation; cowpox-exposed patients would not respond entirely to traditional inoculation with smallpox material. He did a classic experiment, for which he inoculated an eight-year-old boy with material from a milkmaid's cowpox sores and then injected him with material from a smallpox sore a few weeks later.
The boy never developed smallpox. This proved that cowpox exposure could protect people against smallpox. Jenner's smallpox vaccination became famous and gained widespread acceptance. Vaccination campaigns soon started around the world, and within a few years, smallpox vaccination was widespread in most Western countries. It wasn't until the 1960s that an improved vaccine became available, allowing for even higher vaccination rates and, ultimately, the eradication of smallpox.
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Infuse 500 mL D-10-RL IV in 3h. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in gtt/min?
To calculate the flow rate in gtt/min for infusing 500 mL of D-10-RL IV over 3 hours using a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL, you can use the following formula:
Flow rate (gtt/min) = Volume to be infused (mL) x Drop factor (gtt/mL) / Time of infusion (min)
First, we need to convert the infusion time from hours to minutes:
3 hours x 60 min/hour = 180 min
Then, we can substitute the given values into the formula:
Flow rate = 500 mL x 15 gtt/mL / 180 min
Flow rate = 41.67 gtt/min (rounded to two decimal places)
Therefore, the flow rate in gtt/min for infusing 500 mL of D-10-RL IV in 3 hours using a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL is approximately 41.67 gtt/min.
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The provider ordered aminophylline 250 mg to infuse at 50 mL/hr. The pharmacy stocks aminophylline 1 g in 10 mL. How many milliliters of aminophylline should the nurse add to the IV fluid bag? Round to the nearest tenth. Use Desired-over-Have method to show work.
The nurse should add 2.5 mL of aminophylline to the IV fluid bag.
In this problem, the nurse needs to find the number of milliliters of aminophylline to add to the IV fluid bag. Here are the given data:
Desired dose = 250 mg, Dosage available = 1 g in 10 mL
Therefore, the first step is to convert the desired dose to the same units as the dosage available by using dimensional analysis.1 g = 1000 mg
Then, we have:
Desired dose = 250 mg × 1 g/1000 mg = 0.25 g
The next step is to use the Desired-over-Have method to calculate the quantity to be given:
Desired dose/ Dosage available = Quantity to be given/ Total volume
Quantity to be given = (Desired dose × Total volume) / Dosage available
Quantity to be given = (0.25 g × 1000 mL) / (1 g × 10 mL)
Quantity to be given = 25 mL / 10 = 2.5 mL (rounded to the nearest tenth)
Therefore, the nurse should add 2.5 mL of aminophylline to the IV fluid bag.
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What is your opinion or policy on "Do not intubate or Do not
Resuscitate" in COVID 19-induced multi-organ failure?
The "Do not resuscitate" (DNR) and "Do not intubate" (DNI) policies are becoming increasingly relevant as COVID-19 causes multi-organ failure.
A DNR order instructs medical personnel not to engage in life-saving interventions if the patient's heart or breathing stops. A DNI order, on the other hand, indicates that the patient should not be intubated and placed on a ventilator if they are experiencing breathing difficulties. The final decision is made by the patient and the physician in charge of the case. If the patient is terminally ill or has a multi-organ failure, a DNR/DNI order may be appropriate. A DNR order is appropriate if the patient is nearing the end of their life and the medical team has exhausted all options. However, the patient should be made aware that they will be able to receive other types of treatment, such as comfort care after a DNR order is issued. If a DNR or DNI order is not in place and the patient's organs begin to fail, medical personnel will do everything possible to resuscitate them. It is important to remember that DNR and DNI orders should be discussed with the patient and their family members to ensure that they understand and agree with the decision.
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Many organizations use the Internet to communicate important information to prospective employees about career opportunities. The organization can also communicate with current employees on a large scale at one time. Find a health care organization on the Internet and review the website. The website must contain enough information for you to answer the assignment questions. Once you have located and reviewed the website answer the following questions. 250 word minimum.
What is the health care organization you located and what is the web address? What type of HSO is it and what is the mission?
Summarize the website content and decide who the audience is for each information section.
Review the career opportunities section. What kind of information does the organization provide over the Internet to prospective employees?
What information is available to current employees? Is the medium effective? Why/ why not?
Many organizations use the Internet to communicate important information to prospective employees about career opportunities. The organization can also communicate with current employees on a large scale at one time. Find a health care organization on the Internet and review the website. The website must contain enough information for you to answer the assignment questions. Once you have located and reviewed the website answer the following questions. 250 word minimum.
What is the health care organization you located and what is the web address? What type of HSO is it and what is the mission?
Summarize the website content and decide who the audience is for each information section.
Review the career opportunities section. What kind of information does the organization provide over the Internet to prospective employees?
What information is available to current employees? Is the medium effective? Why/ why not?
The organization also provides information about how to apply for jobs, salary, and benefits available to the prospective employees. The information available to the current employees includes how to apply for benefits, health, and wellness, work-life balance, and other relevant topics. In my opinion, the medium is very effective as the organization has provided sufficient information to both the prospective employees and current employees.
The health care organization that I have located on the Internet and have reviewed its website is the National Institutes of Health (NIH).
The web address is www.nih.gov.
The type of HSO that NIH is, is a federal government agency which serves as a branch of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
The mission of NIH is to seek fundamental knowledge about the nature and behavior of living systems and the application of that knowledge to enhance health, lengthen life, and reduce the burdens of illness and disability.
Summarizing the website content and deciding who the audience is for each information section, we can say that the homepage of the website includes a search bar, which the audience can use to search for a specific area of interest.
The website mainly targets researchers, scientists, and medical professionals. For instance, the section named Research & Training allows the researchers and scientists to explore funding opportunities, find training programs and view research highlights.
The section named Health Information has been created for the general public, which includes information about diseases and conditions, health and wellness, clinical trials, and other relevant topics.
Reviewing the career opportunities section, I have found that the organization provides comprehensive information about career opportunities, benefits, training, internships, fellowships, and job openings.
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What is coccidioidomycosis?
A. a respiratory infection caused by gram positive cocci
B. an occupational interstitial lung disease
C. a disease of the upper motor neurons
D.• a fungal infection endemic to the arid southwestern US
Coccidioidomycosis is a fungal infection endemic to the arid southwestern United States.
Coccidioidomycosis, also known as Valley fever or San Joaquin Valley fever, is caused by the fungus Coccidioides. It primarily affects individuals living or traveling in regions with a dry climate, such as parts of California, Arizona, New Mexico, and Texas. The fungus is present in the soil, and when disturbed, releases spores into the air, which can be inhaled by humans.
Once inhaled, the Coccidioides spores can cause respiratory symptoms ranging from mild flu-like symptoms to severe pneumonia. The infection can also spread beyond the lungs to other parts of the body, such as the bones, skin, and central nervous system, leading to more severe complications.
Common symptoms of coccidioidomycosis include fever, cough, chest pain, fatigue, and joint pain. However, some individuals may have no symptoms or experience only mild symptoms. In severe cases, the infection can be life-threatening, especially for individuals with weakened immune systems.
Diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis is typically made through a combination of clinical evaluation, imaging tests, and laboratory tests, including blood tests and fungal cultures. Antifungal medications are used for the treatment of symptomatic or severe cases, while mild or asymptomatic cases may not require specific treatment and resolve on their own.
Prevention involves avoiding exposure to dust in endemic areas, using respiratory protection in high-risk environments, and being aware of the symptoms to seek early medical attention if needed.
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what's the determining factor which helps decide
whether to use the reality orientation or validation therapy
What is the deterwining factor which helps you decide whether to vise reaticy orientation or validation therapy? (Rpt)
The determining factor which helps in deciding whether to use reality orientation or validation therapy is the stage of dementia a person is in. In reality orientation, a person is reminded of their surroundings and the current situation, while in validation therapy, the focus is on the person's emotions and feelings.
The reality orientation is used to treat dementia patients in the early stages of the disease. The therapy emphasizes the person's strengths, interests, and hobbies. Additionally, it uses several techniques, such as using name tags and signs, creating a structured routine, and keeping things simple. The therapy can help a patient feel more connected and oriented to their surroundings. It also helps slow down the decline of cognitive function. It has been shown to be very helpful in treating patients in early-stage dementia.
Validation therapy, on the other hand, is used for patients in the later stages of the disease. In validation therapy, the patient's emotional needs are the focus. It is based on the idea that emotions play a significant role in the behavior and cognitive functions of people with dementia. The therapy aims to validate the patient's feelings and help them understand their emotions better. Validation therapy can help patients feel more secure and comfortable in their surroundings. It can also help improve communication and decrease behavioral problems.
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A drug concentration on a medicine label reads 375 mg per 5 mL. What is the rate in mg/ml? 14. A patient must receive their intravenous medication at a rate of 50 mL in 20 minutes. Find the rate in mL per minute. At this rate, project how many mL would be required in 60 minutes.
Rate in mg/ml: 75 mg/ml
Rate in mL per minute: 2.5 mL per minute
ML required in 60 minutes: 150 mL
To find the rate in mg/ml, we divide the drug concentration (375 mg) by the volume (5 mL), resulting in a rate of 75 mg/ml.
This means that for every milliliter of the solution, there are 75 milligrams of the drug present.
To find the rate in mL per minute, we divide the volume (50 mL) by the time (20 minutes), resulting in a rate of 2.5 mL per minute.
This indicates that the solution should be administered at a rate of 2.5 ml every minute to complete the infusion within the specified 20-minute time frame.
To project how many mL would be required in 60 minutes at this rate, we multiply the rate (2.5 mL per minute) by the time (60 minutes), giving us a total of 150 mL.
Therefore, if the infusion were to continue for 60 minutes, a total of 150 ml of the solution would be required.
In summary, the rate in mg/ml is 75 mg/ml, the rate in mL per minute is 2.5 mL per minute, and at this rate, 150 mL would be required in 60 minutes.
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by definition, which type of enamel destruction is likely to occur in a patient who brushes with a scrubbing motion using a brush with stiff bristles? group of answer choices attrition abrasion erosion hypoplasia primary
Abrasion is a form of enamel erosion that, by definition, is most likely to occur in a patient who uses a brush with strong bristles to clean their teeth.
Abrasion is the term for mechanical forces, such as friction or rubbing, that wear down tooth structure. In this instance, the hard bristles of the brush and the rubbing motion can slowly physically wear down the enamel surface. It is important to remember that proper brushing techniques and the use of a soft-bristled brush are recommended to prevent enamel wear and maintain oral health. Any signs of enamel erosion or other dental problems can be detected and treated with the help of regular dental examinations and specialist cleanings.
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Medicare is technically managed care. While it works well in large urban/suburban areas where there are a lot of providers (health services) available, it does not work well at all in rural areas. Thoughts on how to integrate managed care concepts in rural areas?
Integrating managed care concepts in rural areas can involve strategies such as telehealth, collaborative partnerships, provider incentives, and community engagement to improve access to healthcare services.
Integrating managed care concepts in rural areas requires careful consideration of the unique challenges and limitations present in these areas. One approach could be to establish collaborative partnerships between healthcare organizations and providers in rural communities. This can involve forming networks or alliances that enable shared resources, coordination of care, and economies of scale.
Telehealth and telemedicine can play a crucial role in bridging the gap in access to healthcare services in rural areas. By utilizing technology, patients can remotely connect with healthcare providers, receive consultations, and access specialized care without the need for long-distance travel.
Another strategy is to incentivize healthcare providers to practice in rural areas. This can be achieved through loan forgiveness programs, financial incentives, or targeted recruitment efforts. By attracting and retaining providers, the availability of healthcare services can be improved.
Community health workers or mobile healthcare units can be deployed to bring care directly to rural communities, ensuring accessibility for those who have limited mobility or transportation options.
Collaboration with local community organizations and stakeholders is essential to understand the unique healthcare needs and develop tailored solutions. Engaging community members in decision-making processes and involving them in healthcare planning can help ensure that the integrated managed care concepts align with the local context.
In summary, integrating managed care concepts in rural areas requires a multifaceted approach that combines technology, collaboration, recruitment incentives, and community engagement. By addressing the specific challenges faced by rural communities, it is possible to improve access to quality healthcare services and promote better health outcomes.
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I would like to ask why, when treating hypopituitarism, an adrenal crisis occurs if thyroid replacement is given before steroid replacement therapy? And what is the underlying mechanism? Thank you! Question 3 Why, in Sheehan's syndrome, is there an anterior pituitary involvement more than a posterior one?
When treating hypopituitarism, administering thyroid replacement therapy before steroid replacement therapy can lead to an adrenal crisis.
This occurs because thyroid hormone increases the metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, which can put additional stress on the adrenal glands. In the absence of adequate cortisol production from the adrenal glands, the body cannot respond appropriately to this increased metabolic demand, leading to an adrenal crisis. The underlying mechanism is that the adrenal glands require cortisol to maintain blood pressure and respond to stress, and without sufficient cortisol levels, the body's ability to handle physiological stress is compromised.
In Sheehan's syndrome, there is a greater involvement of the anterior pituitary compared to the posterior pituitary. Sheehan's syndrome is caused by ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland following severe postpartum hemorrhage. The anterior pituitary, which is responsible for producing and releasing various hormones, is more susceptible to ischemic damage due to its rich blood supply and higher metabolic demands compared to the posterior pituitary, which primarily releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin. The reduced blood supply to the anterior pituitary leads to dysfunction or loss of hormone production, resulting in the characteristic features of Sheehan's syndrome.
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Please weigh in on styles of maternity clothing available as
well as the placement of maternity clothing in different stores.
Are there any messages here?
The styles of maternity clothing available vary from comfortable pants and tops to formal dresses and suits. The placement of maternity clothing in different stores is usually in a separate section from regular clothing and is often located near the baby section.
Maternity clothing is clothes specially made for pregnant women. The purpose of this clothing is to accommodate the growing belly and make the mother feel comfortable and confident during pregnancy.
These clothes are designed to accommodate the physical changes of the mother's body and have features such as stretchy fabric, adjustable waistbands, and nursing access.
Maternity clothing styles:
The styles of maternity clothing available include comfortable pants and tops, formal dresses and suits, swimwear, and maternity bras.
Maternity wear also includes comfortable loungewear like sweatpants, leggings, and sleepwear. The most common types of maternity wear are pants with stretchy waistbands and dresses with stretchy fabric.
Placement of maternity clothing in different stores:
Most clothing stores have a separate section for maternity wear. These sections are often located near the baby section or somewhere on the first floor to make them easily accessible.
Stores that cater exclusively to maternity wear have a wider selection of options and are more likely to have a knowledgeable staff who can help pregnant women find clothes that fit their changing bodies.
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MAAS 213G - Review Do we route emergency calls immediately to the physician? (True or False) When do we offer to call a patient back during a phone call? Which 5 Cs of communication is used when one is being respectful? Define time-specified scheduling What can be a symptom, patients experience when blood sugar fall falling, acting confused, lost Define itinerary What is another term for e-scheduling? low?
False. Emergency calls are not immediately routed to the physician. In an emergency situation, the patient is connected to the nearest emergency medical service (EMS) or 911 operator for immediate assistance.
When offering to call a patient back during a phone call, we offer to call the patient back when it is convenient for them, or at a later time. The 5 Cs of communication are clarity, compassion, courtesy, completeness, and candor.
These are the qualities that should be used when communicating with patients in order to ensure effective communication and a positive patient experience. Time-specified scheduling is a type of scheduling in which the appointment is scheduled for a specific time and date. A symptom that patients with low blood sugar may experience is confusion and acting lost.
Low blood sugar, also known as hypoglycemia, is a condition in which the blood sugar level is too low. Symptoms of low blood sugar can include feeling shaky, sweating, feeling hungry, and feeling irritable or anxious. In severe cases, low blood sugar can cause seizures or loss of consciousness.
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Based upon the importance of the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) being integral in the care of patients for wellness and in episodes of illness, there are multiple opportunities for nurse practitioners to care for a variety of patients in different roles.
For this discussion board, introduce yourself to the group in your post and share where you see yourself upon graduating from the Herzing University Master of Science in Nursing – Family Nurse Practitioner Program.
What information did you use to decide to pursue an APRN? Is there specific information that helped you understand the role of an APRN?
How do you see yourself progressing in the role you have now into the APRN that you desire to become?
In responses to other students, discuss how the information provided helped you to better understand the role of the APRN, as well as what are some of your goals that you desire to pursue as an APRN.
Becoming an APRN is an excellent opportunity for me to grow and learn while serving patients in a broader capacity. I'm excited about the possibilities, and I look forward to working with my colleagues to make a difference in the lives of our patients
As a Master of Science in Nursing (MSN) – Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) student, my goal is to be more effective in healthcare and to gain more clinical expertise. I see myself in an FNP practice upon completing the Herzing University MSN – FNP program.
As a Registered Nurse (RN), I have worked in different clinical settings, and my experience in primary care, critical care, and acute care hospitals has reinforced my interest in becoming an APRN.
The idea of serving patients more fully and having a greater impact on their health and well-being has motivated me to pursue an APRN. The APRN's role is to care for patients in a variety of settings and practice areas, including hospitals, clinics, long-term care facilities, and private practice.
They are responsible for conducting physical exams, diagnosing and treating medical conditions, and prescribing medications as needed.
They also provide health education and counseling to patients and their families to promote health and wellness. APRNs have a broad knowledge base and the ability to provide quality care to patients in many settings.
I see myself progressing in my current role by continuing to learn and grow in my current position as an RN.
As an APRN, I will work closely with physicians, other healthcare providers, and patients to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. I believe that I can accomplish this by staying up-to-date with the latest research and best practices in healthcare, continuing my education, and participating in ongoing professional development opportunities.
In conclusion, becoming an APRN is an excellent opportunity for me to grow and learn while serving patients in a broader capacity. I'm excited about the possibilities, and I look forward to working with my colleagues to make a difference in the lives of our patients.
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no copy paste new answer.. APA reference needed..
for presentation.. I want briefe discription to what to avoid
during breaking bad news in hospitals? 2 slides maximum
During breaking bad news in hospitals, it is essential to avoid the use of medical jargon, speak clearly and calmly, be empathetic, avoid discussing multiple issues at once, and provide support and further resources.
Breaking bad news is a challenging task for healthcare providers, as it can have a significant impact on patients and their families. Therefore, it is crucial to approach the situation carefully to minimize the emotional burden on the recipient. When breaking bad news, healthcare providers should avoid using medical jargon, which can be confusing and lead to misunderstandings. Instead, they should speak in plain language, using clear and concise statements to ensure that the recipient understands the situation fully.
Healthcare providers should also be empathetic and show concern for the recipient's emotions, as this can help build trust and rapport. Furthermore, they should avoid discussing multiple issues at once, as this can be overwhelming for the recipient. Lastly, healthcare providers should provide support and further resources to help the recipient cope with the situation and navigate the next steps. In conclusion, breaking bad news is a challenging task, and healthcare providers should approach it with care and empathy to minimize the emotional impact on the recipient.
APA reference:
No references are needed for this question, as it is a summary of general advice for healthcare providers and not a direct quote or paraphrase from a specific source.
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Calculate the flow rate in mL/hr. (Equipment used is programmable in whole mL/hr) 1,800 mL of D5W in 24 hr by infusion pump 2. 2,000 mL D5W in 24 hr by infusion pump 3. 500 mL RL in 12 hr by infusion"
The flow rate (Equipment used is programmable in whole mL/hr) is 25 mL/hr.
1. To calculate the flow rate for 1,800 mL of D5W in 24 hours by infusion pump
2:The formula for calculating the flow rate is (volume to be infused ÷ time in hours) × 60 minutes per hour.
Using this formula, we get:(1,800 ÷ 24) × 60 = 75 mL/hr
Therefore, the flow rate is 75 mL/hr.2.
To calculate the flow rate for 2,000 mL of D5W in 24 hours by infusion pump
3: Again, using the formula, we get:(2,000 ÷ 24) × 60 = 83.33 mL/hr
Therefore, the flow rate is 83.33 mL/hr.
3. To calculate the flow rate for 500 mL of RL in 12 hours by infusion:
Using the formula again, we get:(500 ÷ 12) × 60 = 25 mL/hr
Therefore, the flow rate is 25 mL/hr.
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SCENARIO:
Idham, a 7-year-old boy, the eldest child of 4 siblings from a divorced parent, was admitted to Hospital Tengku Ampuan Afzan Kuantan in March 2018 due to facial puffiness for 1 day duration. There was also dark colored urine. Patient had history of productive cough for 3 days and fever for 2 days. Father also complained of skin ulcer on patient’s right feet for about 1 month. There was hypertension (198/80 mmHg). Urine examination showed hematuria, proteinuria, and leucocyturia. Anti-streptolysin O titre was high (1:800) and complement C3 level was low (0.29). Patient was treated with antibiotic, diuretic, and anti-hypertension.
Based on the given scenario of a 7-year-old boy named Idham, the eldest child of 4 siblings from a divorced parent, was admitted to Hospital Tengku Ampuan Afzan Kuantan in March 2018 due to facial puffiness for 1 day duration. There was also dark-colored urine.
Patient had a history of productive cough for 3 days and fever for 2 days. Father also complained of skin ulcer on patient’s right feet for about 1 month. There was hypertension (198/80 mmHg). Urine examination showed hematuria, proteinuria, and leucocyturia. Anti-streptolysin O titre was high (1:800) and complement C3 level was low (0.29). Patient was treated with antibiotic, diuretic, and anti-hypertension.Therefore, the total number of blood pressure is 150. The explanation for the calculation of the total blood pressure is given below:According to the given scenario, the blood pressure of the patient was 198/80 mmHg.
Therefore, the sum of the systolic and diastolic blood pressure is 198 + 80 = 278 mmHg. The question asked to calculate the total number of blood pressure, which is 150.Therefore, the total number of blood pressure is 150.
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The prescriber orders a 27 kis child to have 100% of maintenance flulds, Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100ml per kg Second 10 kg at 50ml perkg All remaining ks at 20mi per kig. Calculate the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL. per hour: 136.7 mL/hr 70 mL/hr 68.3 mL/hr 102 mL/hr
The child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
The prescriber orders a 27 kg child to have 100% of maintenance fluids. Using the formula: First 10 kg at 100 ml per kg. Second 10 kg at 50 ml per kg. All remaining kgs at 20 ml per kg.
The formula for calculating maintenance fluids is: First 10 kg: 100 ml per kg. Next 10 kg: 50 ml per kg. All remaining kg: 20 ml per kg.
Now, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour will be calculated as follows: First 10 kg: 10 kg x 100 ml/kg = 1000 ml. Next 10 kg: 10 kg x 50 ml/kg = 500 ml.
All remaining kg: 7 kg x 20 ml/kg = 140 ml. Total fluids required in 24 hours = 1000 ml + 500 ml + 140 ml = 1640 ml
Therefore, the amount of fluid the child should receive in mL per hour = 1640 ml/24 hours = 68.3 ml/hr. Therefore, the child should receive 68.3 mL of fluid per hour. Hence, option C is correct.
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Please answer the following questions:
1-What is the difference between prenatal and perinatal?
2-What is the meaning of the suffixes -rrhaphy and -rrhea?
3-What is the difference between ileum and il
1. Prenatal vs perinatal: What's the difference?Prenatal refers to the time period before birth and after conception. Perinatal is the time period that starts several weeks before childbirth and lasts a few weeks after birth.
2. Suffixes -rrhaphy and -rrhea meanings-rrhaphy: A suffix used in the surgical name of a procedure to indicate "suturing, mending."-rrhea: a suffix that denotes "discharge" or "flow."3. The Difference Between the Ileum and the Ilia. The ileum is a part of the small intestine, while the ilia are a part of the hip bone in the pelvic area.What is ileum?The ileum is the third portion of the small intestine, following the duodenum and jejunum. It's approximately 3.5 meters (11 feet) long and finishes at the ileocecal valve, which connects the small intestine to the large intestine. The ileum is the place where the majority of vitamin B12, as well as nutrients such as bile salts and other enzymes, are absorbed.What is Ilia?The ilia are two large bones that are a part of the pelvis. Each ilium is divided into three parts: the iliac crest, the ala (wing), and the body.
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