purging, excessive dieting, and excessive exercising after consuming large quantities of food are symptoms of . a. anorexia nervosa b. binge eating disorder c. disordered eating d. bulimia nervosa/348686496/pe-b-test-2-health-body-composition-1-flash-cards/

Answers

Answer 1

Purging, excessive dieting, and excessive exercising after consuming large quantities of food are symptoms of bulimia nervosa.

The correct answer is option d.

Bulimia is characterized by a uncommunicative cycle of willful binge eating followed by purifying. Symptoms include Feeling out of control during a binge. purifying after a binge eg) tone- convinced vomiting, inordinate exercise, laxative use, diet capsules. purifying is most generally associated with tone- convinced vomiting but also includes the abuse of laxatives, diet capsules, and diuretics, as well as inordinate exercise. This is seen across eating complaint judgments , including bulimia, anorexia, and OSFED. inordinate exercise is a common compensatory geste

In individualities with bulimia nervosa. 6 In one study, 20 percent to 24 percent of cases with bulimia nervosa engaged in inordinate exercise.

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a nurse is caring for a client on the unit who is attempting to manipulate the staff. which description of the client made by a nurse demonstrates strength-based communication?

Answers

A nurse demonstrating strength-based communication would describe the client as, "An individual who is resourceful and resilient in their efforts to advocate for their needs."

What is strength-based communication?

Strength-based communication is a type of communication that focuses on highlighting the strengths, skills, and assets of individuals and groups. It is based on the idea that everyone has unique talents and abilities that can be used to overcome challenges and achieve success. Strength-based communication encourages individuals to recognize and build on their own strengths, as well as those of others, to create a positive and supportive environment.

This approach differs from traditional forms of communication that focus on fixing weaknesses or problems. Strength-based communication seeks to empower individuals by encouraging them to take an active role in their own development and to use their strengths to overcome challenges and achieve their goals. It also fosters positive relationships and creates a sense of community, as individuals work together to build on each other’s strengths. Strength-based communication is effective in a variety of settings, including education, health care, and the workplace.

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the nurse comes into an infant's room on the pediatric floor. the nurse wants to try to feed the infant for the first time since her surgery. how does the nurse know what state the infant is in by what the mother says, and that it's fine to try and feed the infant?

Answers

The nurse will know what state the infant when the mother says that she has always been a chatterbox and shares her brother's smile.

What do we understand by infant?

Infant is most commonly used to refer to a very young human, but it can also apply to a baby animal. People are considered infants from the moment they are born until they are about one year old, when many newborns begin to walk and talk. At this period, kids are more commonly referred to as toddlers rather than infants. Infant, the Latin term for "infant in arms," also means "unable to talk" when used as an adjective.

At first, it may appear like your infant does nothing except feed, sleep, cry, and change diapers. Your baby, on the other hand, is growing. She can speak with others about her desires and interests, as well as see and hear what is going on around her. Playing with their infants can help them learn.

Infants can discriminate between faces and objects of varying sizes, colours, and shapes. They can tell the difference between their parents' and other people's sounds.

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the nurse is defibrillating a patient in ventricular fibrillation with paddles on a monophasic defibrillator. how much paddle pressure should the nurse apply when defibrillating?

Answers

The best position in which to place the patient is on their side (lateral recumbent position).

This position allows the airways to remain open, while also helping to prevent aspiration.

Positioning a Patient in Postictal Phase Following a Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure

The best position in which to place a patient in the postictal phase following a generalized tonic-clonic seizure is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the patient to remain comfortable while keeping their airways open and preventing aspiration. It also helps maintain the patient's circulation and comfort. This position allows the nurse to closely monitor the patient's progress, as it is important to be aware of any changes in the patient's condition. This position also helps to prevent the patient from rolling onto their back and choking on their own saliva or vomit.

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for which prescription would the nurse seek clarification when reviewing the plan of care for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake? have client sit in a chair for meals to prevent aspiration of food/liquid into the lungs.

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The prescription for which the nurse should seek clarification for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake is: (3) Give one can of diet supplement at 8 am and 4 pm.

Nutrition refers to the balanced intake of nutrients or food components for a healthy body. A meal is said to be full of nutrition when it can fulfil most of the body's requirements of nutrients. The nutrients include: vitamins, minerals, proteins, carbohydrates, fats, etc.

Diet supplements are the synthesized form of nutrients. They can be in the form of pills, tablets, powder, liquid, etc. They are consumed to meet the nutrient demands of the body that cannot be fulfilled from the diet. In geriatric clients they must be prescribed after meal as they can reduce the hunger.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

For which prescription would the nurse seek clarification when reviewing the plan of care for the geriatric client with less than adequate nutritional intake?

1) Have client sit in a chair for meals

2) Provide six small feedings in 24 hours

3) Give one can of diet supplement at 8 am and 4 pm

4) Encourage the client's family members to bring food from home

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a pregnant client in her first trimester visits the health care facility for regular checkups. the nurse instructs the client to increase her dietary intake of folic acid based on the understanding that folic acid is important for which action?

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The nurse instructs the client to increase her dietary intake of folic acid in her first trimester based on the understanding that folic acid is important for: decreasing incidence of birth defects.

Folic acid is actually the name of Vitamin B. It is essential for synthesizing healthy new cells of the body. This is the reason why high folic acid intake is necessary during pregnancy. It reduces the neural tube defects and helps to synthesize DNA and supports placental and fetal growth.

First trimester refers to the first three months of pregnancy in human females. It is the most crucial stage of the development of the fetus as most of the body starts developing at this stage. The mother's body also undergoes severe changes at this time.

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margo is reading an online story about the potential health benefits of multivitamins. what key question should she ask in order to determine whether it is from a reliable source?

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Margo is reading about multivitamin health benefits online. She should questioning "Who wrote the story?" to determine its credibility. Thus, option B holds the truth.

The question "Who wrote the story?" is important in determining the reliability of an online article, particularly in the context of health information. The author's credentials, expertise, and affiliations can provide insight into their qualifications and potential biases. For instance, if the author is a well-respected researcher in the field of nutrition, or if they work for a reputable organization, this suggests that the information they provide is likely to be reliable.

On the other hand, if the author is affiliated with a supplement company or has a vested interest in promoting multivitamins, this may indicate a potential bias, and their information should be evaluated with caution. It's important to critically evaluate the source of information and consider multiple perspectives before making decisions about health.

The following options should be provided along with the question:

A. How many people contributed to the story?B. Who wrote the story?C. Where was the story published?D. Does the story appear on the first page of Go.ogle's search results?

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a student nurse is taking home a print-out from the electronic health record in order to have data to complete a care plan. which protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home? (select all that apply.)

Answers

The protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home are: (i) date of care (ii) insurance group number (iii) room number (iv) birth date

Any information that can be used to identify the patient should be removed: demographics, name, address, telephone number, date of birth, identifying numbers such as medical number, room numbers, insurance numbers, and specific dates of care.

Marital status is not specific enough, race, ethnicity, and age to identify a person.

Therefore, The protected health information (phi) must the student remove prior to taking the print-out home are:

date of careinsurance group numberroom numberbirth date

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Complete Question:

The student nurse is taking home a print out from the electronic health record in order to have data to complete a care plan. Which protected health information (PHI) must the student remove prior to taking the print out home? (Select all that apply)

(A) date of care

(B) medical conditions

(C) insurance group number

(D) room number

(E) medication list

(F) birth date

(G) marital status

which physiological changes would the nurse expect to find in a client with a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes? blurry, spotty, or hazy vision

Answers

Physiological changes found in clients with a history of type 2 diabetes for 20 years are blurred vision.

What is diabetes?

Diabetes is a disease characterized by high levels of sugar in the blood. Glucose is a source of energy for human body cells. However, in diabetics, glucose cannot be used by the body.

Type 2 diabetes occurs when the body's cells become less sensitive to insulin so that the insulin they produce cannot be used properly. This condition is also known as insulin resistance. Physiological changes that usually appear in people who have diabetes are blurred vision, weight loss without cause, and wounds that are difficult to heal.

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the nurse manager in a public health department is implementing a plan to reduce the incidence of infection with hiv in the community. which nursing action will be delegated to the uap?

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Nursing actions that will be delegated to UAP to reduce the incidence of HIV infection in the community are supplying injection drug users with sterile injection equipment such as needles and syringes.

Early in the AIDS pandemic, it was recognized that sharing needles and syringes could be risky, as it could lead to HIV transmission. This is called "needle sharing". It can happen when two or more people use the same needle to inject drugs, such as heroin, cocaine, amphetamines, or buprenorphine.

People who pass needles often do so because they feel comfortable around each other and see no risk of contracting HIV. If someone is not aware of how dangerous it is to share needles, they may do so without thinking about the risks.

So that equipping injecting drug users with sterile injecting equipment such as syringes is one way to reduce HIV infection in the community.

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what are the most common errors when constructing partial denture mcq improper survey, bad positioning of the occlusal rests, incorrect design

Answers

RPDs may cause more plaque to accumulate around the abutment teeth, which may cause gum disease and caries denture (tooth decay).

Pressure as well as movement of something like the partial might cause injury to the abutments or gums. Bone loss can happen when teeth are missing, and over time, it may harm nearby teeth. Due to movement along the rotational axis, distally expanded RPDs frequently have clinical issues with retention and stability. According to the findings, Kennedy class I was the most prevalent type of partial edentulism, whereas class IV was the least common. An infection is the most frequent issue that develops following the installation of a denture implant. Actually, this is the most frequent problem that arises for patients after any surgical surgery.

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which critical thinking skill was used when the nurse responded to a intravenous pump that was larming

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Problem-solving was the critical thinking skill used when the nurse responded to an intravenous (IV) pump that was alarming, checked for air in the tubing, and then flushed the patient's intermittent lock, which resulted in the IV bag to infuse as prescribed.

Problem-solving and critical thinking refer to the ability to effectively solve problems using knowledge, facts, and data. This doesn't mean you have to find answers quickly, but you should be able to think quickly, assess problems, and find solutions.

Problem solving entails critical thinking. Once you have identified the problem, you can think critically and take steps to solve the problem. To be successful in your life, it is very important to know how to solve problems to help others and yourself wherever you are.

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Complete question:

Which critical thinking skill was used when the nurse responded to an intravenous (IV) pump that was alarming, checked for air in the tubing, and then flushed the patient's intermittent lock, which resulted in the IV bag to infuse as prescribed?

a 19-year-old man is seen in a walk-in clinic with a chief complaint of burning with urination. the clinician directs the teenager to an urgent care facility for diagnosis and treatment. the teen is triaged, and a physician later sees him. the young man notes that he has had urethral itching, painful urination, and a discharge for approximately 4 days. the physician suspects an sti and orders some tests. further history reveals that the teenager has had multiple sexual partners the past few months. based on known transmission patterns, the physician suspects that the young man has gonorrhea. gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of:

Answers

Gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of: Option B: Chlamydia.

Burning while urinating is the main complaint of a 19-year-old male who visits a walk-in clinic. In order to diagnose and treat the teen, the practitioner refers him to an urgent care centre. A doctor later sees the teen after the teen is triaged. A discharge and painful urine, as well as urethral itching, had been plaguing the young man for almost four days. The doctor orders certain tests because he thinks it might be a STI. The teenager's recent history is further revealed to have included a number of sexual partners. The doctor believes the young man may have gonorrhoea based on recognized transmission patterns. An illness that frequently coexists with gonorrhoea is Option B is chlamydia.

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Complete Question is:

•A 19-year-old man is seen in a walk-in clinic with a chief complaint of burning with urination. The clinician directs the teenager to an urgent care facility for diagnosis and treatment. The teen is triaged, and a physician later sees him. The young man notes that he has had urethral itching, painful urination, and a discharge for approximately 4 days. The physician suspects a STI and orders some tests. Further history reveals that the teenager has had multiple sexual partners the past few months. Based on known transmission patterns, the physician suspects that the young man has gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is often seen by an accompanying infection of:

1. Syphilis

2. Chlamydia

3. Herpes

4. Molluscum contagiosum

after reading a research article about fall risk, the nurse would expect to see what finding in those who have developed a fear of falling?

Answers

After reading a research article about fall risk, the nurse would expect to see an increased risk of falling in those who have developed a fear of falling.

Fear of falling is a common concern among older adults and can result in decreased physical activity and mobility, which can in turn increase the risk of falling. This is because reduced activity and mobility can lead to muscle weakness, decreased balance, and reduced endurance, all of which can increase the risk of falls. In addition, the fear of falling can lead to a decreased sense of confidence, making it more difficult for individuals to participate in activities that they once enjoyed and that are important for maintaining their physical and mental well-being.

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when the chest x-ray for a client who has arrived at the emergency department with chest trauma shows multiple fractured ribs, which action will the nurse take next

Answers

Check for paradoxical movement of the chest wall.

Images of your heart, lungs, circulation arteries, passageways, and the bones in your spine and chest are created by chest X-rays. When the lungs remain clear and strong, they should seem dark, similar to how air appears on an X-ray—not quite black.

Because there is tissue in the lungs, but still pretty dark. It's important to take note if the lungs appear to have areas of density within them. Numerous conditions affecting the lower lung, such as lung infections, are associated with chronic coughing.

An abnormal lung x-ray can reveal some of them, including lung infections. Asthma is one of the common causes of lungs, nevertheless. Depending on the form of cancer or how far has gone, there are many treatment options.

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Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) performs what roles in the body? Select all that apply:* A. Inactivates bradykinin by breaking it down B. Dilates vessels C. Causes the kidneys to keep sodium and water D. Converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

Answers

The role of Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in body is to converting the enzyme( ACE) that plays an important  part in the body’s cardiovascular system.

ACE is responsible for the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, a hormone that increases blood pressure. ACE also inactivates bradykinin, a peptide that causes vasodilation. This inactivation helps keep blood pressure regulated. In addition, ACE causes the  feathers to reabsorb sodium and water, which helps regulate blood volume and pressure.

ACE is an essential enzyme in the body, as it helps to maintain homeostasis of the cardiovascular system.

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a client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (oa) and rheumatoid arthritis (ra). which response is correct?

Answers

The difference between osteoarthritis (oa) and rheumatoid arthritis is that "OA is a non inflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints." Thus option 1 is correct.

What is osteoarthritis?

The most prevalent kind of arthritis, osteoarthritis, affects millions of individuals worldwide. When the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones gradually deteriorates, it happens.

Although osteoarthritis may harm any joint, it most frequently affects the hands, knees, hips, and spine joints.

Although the damage to joints cannot be repaired, osteoarthritis symptoms are often manageable. Being physically active, keeping a healthy weight, and obtaining certain therapies may decrease the disease's course and aid with pain relief and joint function.

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune illness that develops when your immune system unintentionally targets the tissues in your own body.

Rheumatoid arthritis damages the lining of your joints, resulting in a painful swelling that may eventually lead to bone erosion and joint deformity, unlike osteoarthritis, which causes damage from wear and strain.

Rheumatoid arthritis-related inflammation is what causes harm to other bodily components as well. Even with the tremendous improvements in treatment choices brought about by new drug classes, severe rheumatoid arthritis can still result in physical impairments.

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A client asks the nurse what the difference is between osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which response is correct?

"OA is a noninflammatory joint disease. RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints.""OA affects joints on both sides of the body. RA is usually unilateral.""OA is more common in women. RA is more common in men.""OA and RA are very similar. OA affects the smaller joints and RA affects the larger, weight-bearing joints."

a client who has an altered level of consciousness is receiving a tube feeding. clients receiving tube feeding should be placed in which position?

Answers

The client receiving the feeding tube must be placed in an upright position so that the head is higher than the stomach.

What is a feeding tube?

A nasogastric tube or feeding tube is a soft plastic tube that is placed through the nose (nasal) to the stomach (gaster). In order not to move positions, the tube will be affixed to the skin near the nose with adhesive tape.

Inserting a nasogastric tube aims to help provide food and medicine to patients who cannot take these substances by mouth, for example in premature babies or comatose patients. In addition, a nasogastric tube can also be used to remove gas or liquid from the stomach.

When using a feeding tube, the body position must be upright so that the head is more upright than the stomach.

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a 29-year-old g1 p0 woman at 40 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery because of contractions and ruptured membranes. her prenatal course was uncomplicated. her vital signs are: blood pressure 140/96, pulse 72 beats/minute, afebrile, fundal height 36 cm, and estimated fetal weight of 3300 g. cervix is 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, 0 station. the fetal heart rate tracing for the last hour has minimal variability and no accelerations. of the following, what is the initial step in the management of this patient?

Answers

Answer:

make sure the patient is stable before the patients baby. if the patient dies the baby automatically dies. so keep the patient stable in order to help save the baby.

immediately after assisting a patient with diabetes to take her nitroglycerin, she states that she feels weak, dizzy, and nauseated. what should the emt do next?

Answers

The EMT should first assess the case's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation.

The EMT should call for an ambulance and begin  furnishing  introductory life support if  demanded, If any of the vital signs are abnormal or the case is in  torture. The EMT should also ask the case about any other symptoms or conditions she may be having. Once the case's condition has been assessed.

The EMT should  give applicable medical care grounded on the case's symptoms. This may include administering oxygen,  furnishing IV fluids, or administering  specifics. The EMT should also  give emotional support and  consolation. Eventually, the EMT should  validate the case's condition and the care  handed, and  also  communicate  the case's croaker to report the case's condition and any treatment  handed.

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Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.

Answers

True statement: The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments

The "self-administration" behavioral paradigm represents the human illness of addiction using an animal behavioral model. Animal test participants are operant-conditioned to carry out a single action during the task—typically, pressing a lever—in exchange for a medication.

Drug self-administration techniques give researchers a way to investigate addiction in the lab under carefully controlled circumstances. In these techniques, a human volunteer or animal subject makes a response—such as pulling a lever—that causes a dose of a drug—such as cocaine or heroin—to be administered.

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The following question may be like this:

Identify a true statement about the initial experiments carried out in the 1960s on self-administration of morphine on monkeys.

Multiple choice question.

The monkeys were allowed to experience the initial stages of withdrawal in the initial experiments.These experiments were based on the predominant view that drug use is driven by behavioral dependence.The monkeys were directly attached to the morphine-releasing apparatus without a controlling equipment.These experiments concluded that drug use is driven by a combination of acute and chronic toxicity of the drug.

the nurse is watching a group of infants playing in an infant room at day care. when analyzing the developmental characteristics exhibited, which infant would the nurse identify as being approximately 3 months of age?

Answers

Tthe nurse is watching a group of infants playing in an infant room at day care. when analyzing the developmental characteristics exhibited, the following infant would the nurse identify as being approximately 3 months of age : infant laying prone with a colorful toy in front.

A 3-month-old baby can smile at your voice, pay attention to sounds, and pay close attention to moving objects and faces. roll over. Towards the end of the month, your baby may try to roll off your tummy onto your back. Babies typically master this skill at about 5 months, but you can start practicing now.

At three months, babies begin to experience developmental characteristics like emotions and communication. They respond to different facial expressions, recognize your voice, and turn their heads when they hear you. They may start laughing out loud and looking around in wonder - especially on their fingers and toes.

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After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, which nursing intervention would help prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound?

Answers

After the nurse dresses a patient's wound, the nursing intervention which would help to prevent the contamination of that previously cleaned wound is cleaning the wound from the center to the surrounding skin.

You can wet gauze pads by immersing them in wound cleaning solution and wringing away the extra, or you can use a spray bottle to administer the solution to the gauze while washing the wound from the centre to the surrounding skin. Utilize a clean gauze pad for each wipe as you move from the least polluted area to the most contaminated area.

Debridement of wounds is the process of eliminating dead tissue. The dead tissue could be white, tan, yellow, grey, black, or grey. The wound may potentially have foreign objects on it. It might have to be taken out. If dead tissue needs to be removed from your wound, your doctor who treats wounds will inform you of this.

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the nurse is reviewing drugs on the emergency cart with regard to their therapeutic action. which medications can help initiate heart contraction during a cardiac arrest?

Answers

The medication that can help initiate heart contraction during a cardiac arrest is Intravenous epinephrine.

When a beta1 agonist is required, intravenous epinephrine is the treatment of choice. This is due to the stimulation of cardiac contraction caused by beta1 receptor activation.

During a cardiac arrest, epinephrine, which is maintained on the emergency cart, can be injected right into the heart. The effects of alpha1 agonists include hemostasis, relief from nasal congestion, vasoconstriction, and dilated pupils.

When used to treat severe pain, alpha-2 agonists lessen the sympathetic output to the heart and blood vessels. Beta2-agonists bring on Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation. Nasal congestion is treated with topical phenylephrine; preterm labor and asthma are treated with terbutaline; and asthma is treated with albuterol.

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the nurse is offering an demonstration session on what is done in group. which client(s) would the nurse determine as conveying a message? select all that apply.

Answers

Attending the nurse's demonstration session on what is done in group could be beneficial for all clients, regardless of their individual needs.

New clients could get an overview of the process and understand the expectations of the group. Clients who have difficulty understanding group dynamics could learn how to interact with others and comprehend the behaviors of others in the group.

Clients who have difficulty communicating in group settings can practice their communication skills and learn strategies to better communicate with other group members. Those needing help developing interpersonal skills could learn social skills and develop the ability to empathize with others.

Clients who are unsure of the expectations of group therapy could gain clarity on what is expected of them in the group. Lastly, those struggling to stay engaged in group sessions can learn techniques to stay connected to the group and become more invested in the group process.

Complete Question:

Which of the following clients would benefit from attending the nurse's demonstration session on what is done in group? Select all that apply.

1. A client who is new to group therapy

2. A client who has difficulty understanding group dynamics

3. A client who has difficulty communicating in group settings

4. A client who needs help developing interpersonal skills

5. A client who is unsure of the expectations of group therapy

6. A client who is struggling to stay engaged in group sessions

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what is the term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion?

Answers

The term for slender, hair-like extensions used by bacilli and spirilla for locomotion is "flagella."

Flagella are whip-like appendages that are found on the surface of some bacterial cells and are used for motility and navigation. They are made up of a protein called flagellin, which is assembled into a long, flexible structure that rotates like a propeller to propel the bacterium through its environment.

In bacilli, flagella are usually located at one or both ends of the cell, while spirilla have flagella that are arranged in a spiral pattern around the cell. The number and arrangement of flagella can vary among different bacterial species, and the presence or absence of flagella can be used as a criterion for classifying different types of bacteria.

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list eight potential health benefits of a person engaging in a regular, comprehensive exercise program. then describe at least two possible mechanisms by which exercise may enhance health status.

Answers

Eight potential health benefits of regular, comprehensive exercise are:

Reduced risk of chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain types of cancer.Improved mental health and reduced symptoms of depression and anxiety.Better weight management and body composition.Improved muscle and bone strength and density.Improved cardiovascular function and respiratory endurance.Increased insulin sensitivity and glucose control.Improved cognitive function and decreased risk of cognitive decline and dementia.Better sleep quality and reduced symptoms of insomnia.

Mechanisms by which exercise may enhance health status:

Increased Insulin Sensitivity: Exercise has been shown to increase insulin sensitivity, leading to improved glucose control and reduced risk of type 2 diabetes.Improved Cardiovascular Function: Regular exercise has been shown to improve cardiovascular function, including increased heart strength and improved circulation. This can help reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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During an abdominal assessment, the nurse elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The nurse interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures?

Answers

Answer:A physician or nurse practitioner may assess for rebound tenderness, which involves palpating in the right lower quadrant and quickly removing one's hand. Positive rebound tenderness (pain when the assessor removes their hand) is often indicative of appendicitis.

Explanation:

the manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. according to , all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.

Answers

The manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. Health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. According to d. complexity theory, all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.

What is the complexity theory?

The complexity theory is a model used in science life related fields such as medicine to understand the process of uncertainty and/or nonlinearity.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the complexity theory can be used to decipher phenomena associated with uncertainty and/or nonlinearity in biology and also in non related fields.

Complete question:

Fill in the blank space. The manner in which health care is delivered is quite complex. Health care options can range from a general practitioner in a local rural clinic to a neurology specialist in a large research hospital. According to ________, all of these health care providers interact with one another according to certain simple rules.

a. contingency theory

b. a closed market system

c. a webbed system

d. complexity theory

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the nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media. which nursing action ensures that the medication is distributed appropriately?

Answers

The nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media, so for proper functioning of the medications, the nurse should gently pull the earlobe down and outward.

What is the significance of the otic medication?

Otic medications are commonly used in both children and adults to relieve pain caused by bacterial infections as well as to reduce swelling and inflammation in the ear and also stop the infection.

Hence, the nurse is administering otic medication to a 22-month-old with a diagnosis of otitis media, so for proper functioning of the medications, the nurse should gently pull the earlobe down and outward.

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Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do you take next?
A. apply an AED
B. obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. start an IV
D. start rescue breathing

Answers

Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. The action to take next is to apply an AED as soon as possible would be correct alternative. Option A is correct alternative.

If a person is unresponsive and not breathing, it is a cardiac arrest. When this happens, the heart stops beating, and the person loses consciousness and stops breathing.

To revive them, it is essential to restore the heartbeat. In such a scenario, the first step is to call for emergency services and then apply an AED (Automated External Defibrillator).

An AED is a device that analyzes the heart's rhythm and gives a shock if needed, which can help restart the heart.

Starting an IV (Intravenous) is not necessary in this situation, and a 12-lead ECG (Electrocardiogram) is not necessary as an initial step. Similarly, rescue breathing, where you manually pump air into the person's lungs, is not the first step in this situation as it will not restore the heartbeat.

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