Rotigotine: a dopamine agonist used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease, Phenytoin: an antiepileptic drug that primarily acts by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, Baclofen: a centrally acting muscle relaxant used in the treatment of spasticity
Rotigotine:Mechanism of action: Rotigotine is a dopamine agonist used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease and restless legs syndrome. It stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain, specifically the D2 and D3 receptor subtypes, which helps to restore dopamine function and improve motor symptoms.
Adverse effects: The common adverse effects of rotigotine include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and somnolence. Other potential adverse effects may include hallucinations, dyskinesia, orthostatic hypotension, and peripheral edema. It is important to monitor for potential impulse control disorders or compulsive behaviors in patients taking rotigotine.
Phenytoin:Mechanism of action: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that primarily acts by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, particularly the high-frequency firing channels, to limit the spread of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. It stabilizes neuronal membranes and reduces the excessive firing of neurons.
Adverse effects: Common adverse effects of phenytoin include drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, and nystagmus. Other potential adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia (excessive growth of gum tissue), hirsutism (excessive hair growth), rash (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome), hepatotoxicity, and hematological abnormalities. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index, and monitoring of blood levels is important to ensure optimal dosing and avoid toxicity.
Baclofen:Mechanism of action: Baclofen is a centrally acting muscle relaxant used in the treatment of spasticity. It acts by activating GABA-B receptors in the spinal cord, which inhibits the release of excitatory neurotransmitters and reduces the hyperexcitability of motor neurons.
Adverse effects: Common adverse effects of baclofen include drowsiness, dizziness, muscle weakness, and fatigue. Other potential adverse effects may include confusion, headache, nausea, and hypotension.
Abrupt discontinuation of baclofen can lead to withdrawal symptoms such as hallucinations, seizures, and rebound spasticity. It is important to carefully titrate the dose and monitor patients closely, especially when initiating or discontinuing baclofen therapy.
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Risk Factors of atherosclerosis include the following except Not yet answered a. Hypertension b. Family history of ischemic heart disease, c. Male gender, DM, and obesity d. eigarette smoking e. females before menopause (less than 40 age)
Females before menopause (less than 40 years old) are not at higher risk of developing atherosclerosis. The correct answer is option e.
Atherosclerosis is the formation of plaques or the thickening of the walls of the arteries, which restricts blood flow. Plaque is made up of fatty deposits, cholesterol, cellular waste, calcium, and other substances. Over time, this plaque gradually narrows and hardens the arteries, restricting blood flow to vital organs and tissues. Atherosclerosis can affect arteries throughout the body. It commonly affects the coronary arteries supplying the heart, leading to coronary artery disease and potentially causing a heart attack.
The following is a list of risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing atherosclerosis:
Hypertension: Hypertension commonly known as high blood pressure is a significant risk factor for atherosclerosis. It can damage the blood vessel walls and promote the development of plaque.Family history of ischemic heart disease: People with a family history of heart disease are more likely to develop atherosclerosis.Male gender: Men have a higher risk of developing heart disease than women. Age is also a significant factor in developing heart diseaseDiabetes mellitus: Diabetes causes high blood sugar levels, which can damage the lining of the arteries and promote plaque formation.Cigarette smoking: Smoking harms blood vessels and contributes to atherosclerosis.Thus all these are the risk factors of atherosclerosis except for females before menopause.
Therefore, option ''e'' is the correct answer.
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In what position does the patient lie on his or her side with the arms positioned in front?
Which position is helpful in scanning a gallbladder in an extremely high position under the rib cage?
Which frequency and what type of transducer is used for obstetric-gynecologic sonography? And which frequency is preferred for transvaginal sonography?
What do the acronyms LMP and EDD stand for and which type of sonographic examination are they related to?
What does BPP stand for and which type of sonographic examination is it related to?
The lateral decubitus posture occurs when the patient lies on their side with their arms in front of them.
The Trendelenburg posture can be useful for scanning a gallbladder in an exceptionally high position under the rib cage. The patient is supine in this posture, with the head lower than the feet.
Transabdominal sonography in obstetrics use a lower frequency transducer, typically ranging from 2 to 5 MHz, to penetrate the abdominal wall and observe the foetus.
LMP is an abbreviation for "Last Menstrual Period," while EDD is an abbreviation for "Estimated Due Date."
BPP is an abbreviation for "Biophysical Profile," and it refers to a specific form of sonographic test known as a biophysical profile. A BPP is a prenatal test that combines an ultrasound examination with a blood test.
Thus, BPP helps to assess the fetal health and can be used to determine if further intervention or monitoring is necessary.
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Per the Health Care Providers' orders, what medication(s) should the nurse administer while the patient is experiencing a seizure? (Select all that apply).
1. Phenobarbital
2. Ondansetron.
3. Phenytoin.
4. Lorazepam.
5. Oxygen
6. No medications at time.
The nurse should administer the following medications while the patient is experiencing a seizure: Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Lorazepam. The correct options are 1, 3, 4.
During a seizure, the nurse may need to administer medications to help control and manage the seizure activity. The medications commonly used in such situations are as follows:
1. Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital is an antiepileptic medication that acts as a central nervous system depressant. It is commonly used to treat and prevent seizures. The nurse should administer this medication as ordered by the healthcare provider to help control the ongoing seizure activity.
2. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is another antiepileptic medication used to manage and prevent seizures. It works by stabilizing the neuronal membranes and reducing the spread of abnormal electrical activity in the brain. The nurse should administer this medication as prescribed to help terminate the seizure and prevent further episodes.
3. Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that possesses anticonvulsant properties. It acts by enhancing the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. The nurse should administer lorazepam during an active seizure to help stop the seizure activity and promote sedation.
It's important for the nurse to follow the healthcare provider's orders regarding the specific medications, dosages, and routes of administration. Additionally, the nurse should closely monitor the patient's response to the medications, assess for any adverse effects, and provide appropriate supportive care during and after the seizure episode.
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Entry-level administrative duties for a medical assistant include:
(A) patient education, drawing blood, and negotiating leases.
(B) taking vital signs and calling in prescriptions.
(C) creating and maintaining patient medical records, and billing and coding.
(D) performing ECGs, infection control, and billing and coding.
(E) checking vital signs and creating and maintaining patient medical records.
The correct option is:
E) Checking vital signs and creating and maintaining patient medical records.
Entry-level administrative duties for a medical assistant include a range of tasks, which may vary depending on the specific healthcare setting and the practitioner they work with. Medical assistants can have both administrative and clinical responsibilities, or they may focus primarily on one area.
In terms of administrative duties, medical assistants are often involved in tasks that help ensure the smooth operation of a healthcare facility. Some examples of entry-level administrative duties for a medical assistant include:
Answering phone calls and scheduling appointments for patients.
Checking patients in and out of their appointments, which includes verifying insurance information and collecting payments.
Writing up and organizing patient medical records, insurance claims, and other important documents.
Assisting with billing and coding procedures to facilitate insurance reimbursement.
Managing and maintaining electronic health records (EHRs) to ensure accurate and up-to-date patient information.
In addition to administrative duties, medical assistants may also perform certain clinical tasks. These responsibilities can involve direct patient care under the supervision of a healthcare provider. Some examples of clinical duties for a medical assistant include:
Taking and recording vital signs, such as blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and respiratory rate.
Administering medications as directed by the healthcare provider.
Collecting and preparing specimens for laboratory testing.
Assisting with medical procedures, such as setting up equipment and sterilizing instruments.
It's important to note that the specific tasks assigned to a medical assistant can vary based on factors such as state regulations, the healthcare setting (e.g., hospital, clinic, private practice), and the preferences of the supervising healthcare provider.
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Mr. Snyder is a 73 year old man who was admitted for an exacerbation of COPD. On CXR, a 3 cm aortic aneurysm is "incidentally" discovered.
What collaborative care do you anticipate for Mr. Snyder related to the CXR findings?
The CXR findings of Mr. Snyder reveal that he has a 3 cm aortic aneurysm, which requires collaborative care to prevent further progression of the condition. In such cases, the most common approach is surgical intervention. The goal of collaborative care is to promote the best possible outcome based on the condition of the aneurysm, the patient's age, medical history, overall health status, and preference.
The CXR revealed that Mr. Snyder has a 3 cm aortic aneurysm, which is incidentally discovered, and the collaborative care that can be anticipated for him are the following:
Collaborative Care for CXR findings in Mr. Snyder:
To prevent the progression of the aneurysm, appropriate treatment should be taken as a part of collaborative care. The most common approach is surgical intervention, and the goal is to prevent aneurysm rupture, which can be fatal. Aneurysm repair can be done via a surgical or endovascular approach depending on the situation. In some instances, physicians may prescribe drugs like beta-blockers, which can help lower blood pressure. The objective of collaborative care is to promote the best possible result, which will be based on the condition of the aneurysm as well as the patient's age, medical history, overall health status, and preference.
Explanation: Collaborative care is defined as healthcare that is provided by several providers working together to provide a coordinated, patient-centered approach to care. In the case of Mr. Snyder, his CXR revealed that he has a 3 cm aortic aneurysm, which is incidentally discovered. In this case, the collaborative care that can be anticipated for him is to prevent the progression of the aneurysm. Appropriate treatment should be taken as a part of collaborative care. The most common approach is surgical intervention, and the goal is to prevent aneurysm rupture, which can be fatal. Aneurysm repair can be done via a surgical or endovascular approach depending on the situation.
In some instances, physicians may prescribe drugs like beta-blockers, which can help lower blood pressure. The objective of collaborative care is to promote the best possible result, which will be based on the condition of the aneurysm as well as the patient's age, medical history, overall health status, and preference.
Conclusion: The CXR findings of Mr. Snyder reveal that he has a 3 cm aortic aneurysm, which requires collaborative care to prevent further progression of the condition. In such cases, the most common approach is surgical intervention. The goal of collaborative care is to promote the best possible outcome based on the condition of the aneurysm, the patient's age, medical history, overall health status, and preference.
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A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician after his wife noticed that he fainted for no apparent reason. When questioned by his doctor, the patient also complains of occasional shaking (tremors) in both arms, although more pronounced on the right than the left side, recurrent inability to move, especially initiation of movement, and feeling unsteady on his feet (loss of balance), all of which he had noticed for about two months. The primary care physician refers the patient to the local neurologist for further evaluation and tests. The neurologist observes the resting tremor in the patient’s arms and unsteadiness in his gait. He is also able to demonstrate orthostatic hypotension, the most likely cause of the patient’s fainting spell. The neurologist orders blood tests to rule out other conditions that could possibly cause the patient’s symptoms, including cardiac disease. Imaging studies of the brain (MRI) are performed and exclude a tumor or stroke.
what do we think is causing this problem?
The most likely cause of the patient's symptoms is Parkinson's disease.
Based on the patient's symptoms, the presence of resting tremors, asymmetry of tremors (more pronounced on the right side), difficulty initiating movement, and unsteady gait, along with the observation of orthostatic hypotension, the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms is Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra region of the brain.
This leads to a deficiency of dopamine, resulting in the motor symptoms observed in the patient, including tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and postural instability. The absence of other findings on the MRI, such as tumors or strokes, and the need to rule out other conditions through blood tests suggest that Parkinson's disease is the primary consideration. Further evaluation and consultation with a neurologist will help confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management strategies for the patient's symptoms.
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All of the following can be used in the management of hypertension, EXCEPT: a. Calcium channel blockers b. Alpha 1 agonists c. Direct-acting vasodilators (hydralazine) d. Beta Blockers e. ACEI
All of the following can be used in the management of hypertension, EXCEPT Alpha 1 agonists.
Hypertension is a medical condition characterized by high blood pressure in the arteries, which damages the arteries over time. This causes the heart to work more strenuously and can lead to a variety of health issues.
Hypertension can be managed with a variety of medications. Calcium channel blockers, Direct-acting vasodilators (hydralazine), Beta Blockers, and ACEI can be used in the management of hypertension.
Calcium channel blockers help to widen the blood vessels by reducing the amount of calcium that enters the cells of the heart and blood vessels. This relaxes the blood vessels, allowing more blood to flow through and reducing blood pressure.
Direct-acting vasodilators work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the blood vessel walls, allowing them to dilate and reduce blood pressure. Beta Blockers work by reducing the heart rate and the amount of blood that the heart pumps, thereby reducing blood pressure. ACEI, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, prevent the formation of a hormone called angiotensin II, which constricts blood vessels, leading to increased blood pressure.
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The nurse prepares to administer 238mg Acetaminophen oral suspension to a pediatric patient. The dose on hand is Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 160mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse give to the patient? Round to the nearest hundredth. (don't add the unit of measure in your answer, just the dose only!)
The nurse should give approximately 7.44 mL of Acetaminophen oral suspension to the pediatric patient.
To determine the amount of Acetaminophen oral suspension (in mL) the nurse should give, we can set up a proportion using the available doses:
160mg / 5 mL = 238mg / x mL
Cross-multiplying, we have:
160mg * x mL = 5 mL * 238mg
Simplifying the equation:
160x = 1190
Dividing both sides by 160:
x = 1190 / 160
x ≈ 7.4375 mL
Rounding to the nearest hundredth, the nurse should administer approximately 7.44 mL of Acetaminophen oral suspension to the pediatric patient.
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T/F: Therapeutics is also known as the medical use of drugs. True False Question 7 0.24pts T/F: Most drugs are considered perfect within their class because they contain all the properties of an ideal drug. True False Question 8 0.24pts What are the 3 most important properties of a drug? Effectiveness, Safety \& Low cost Effectiveness, Safety \& predictability Safety, Selectivity \& Stability Effectiveness, Safety \& Selectivity
The following are the answers to the given questions:T/F: Therapeutics is also known as the medical use of drugs. TrueT/F:
Most drugs are considered perfect within their class because they contain all the properties of an ideal drug. False
What are the 3 most important properties of a drug?
Effectiveness, Safety & Selectivity
Therapeutics is a medical field that focuses on the prevention and treatment of diseases. It encompasses the use of drugs, surgery, radiation, and other medical interventions to improve the quality of life of patients. Therefore, it is true that Therapeutics is also known as the medical use of drugs.Most drugs cannot be considered perfect within their class because they do not contain all the properties of an ideal drug. The ideal drug would be one that is effective, safe, and selective. However, most drugs have some degree of side effects, which may limit their effectiveness or safety, or affect their selectivity. Therefore, it is false that most drugs are considered perfect within their class.The three most important properties of a drug are effectiveness, safety, and selectivity. Effectiveness refers to the drug's ability to produce a therapeutic effect at a reasonable dose. Safety refers to the drug's ability to avoid causing harm or adverse effects, especially at normal therapeutic doses. Selectivity refers to the drug's ability to act on a specific target or receptor without affecting other functions in the body. Therefore, the correct option is Effectiveness, Safety & Selectivity.
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The patient receives a 1/3 strength formula tube feeding. The formula can contains 233 mL. How much water will the nurse add to the can to make the 1/3 strength diluted tube feeding?
The correct 1/3 strength formula tube feed water will the nurse add to the can to make the 1/3 strength diluted tube feeding.
When providing a tube feeding with 1/3 strength formula to a patient, the nurse must add a certain amount of water in order to create the desired strength. To prepare 1/3 strength formula, the nurse needs to add two parts of water to one part formula, or twice the amount of formula. For a 233 mL can of ready-to-use formula, the nurse will need to add 466 mL of water.
This creates a 702 mL solution of 1/3 strength formula that should be slowly fed into the patient's tube feeding or gastrostomy tube. If desired, the nurse may administer this tube feeding over a period of time. However, it is important to keep in mind that extra water may be necessary to further dilute the formula if the patient's tube can only handle a certain flow rate.
It is also essential that the nurse checks the formula for temperature prior to administration and be aware that tube obstruction can interfere with the administration of the formula itself. By following these steps, the nurse can ensure that the patient receives the correct 1/3 strength formula tube feed they require.
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If
the doctor orders Levofloxacin 500 mg IVPB and the bag of
Levofloxacin says 500mg/100ml. What would be the rate (ml/hr)?
Rate of administration states the 500mg can be given over 60
min.
As a Clinic Manager or a Human Resource Manager, you have many responsibilities that include the following duties:
Responsibilities of a Clinic Manager:
The first responsibility is to plan and direct the administrative functions of the clinic. You should provide support to the clinic's medical staff, hire employees and delegate work responsibilities, and develop policies that improve the clinic's performance. This duty is essential because it allows the clinic to run efficiently and effectively.
The second responsibility is to ensure that the clinic's financial practices align with its objectives. This includes tracking budgets, analyzing expenses, and implementing cost-saving measures where possible. This duty is crucial because it allows the clinic to remain financially stable, which is vital for its longevity.
The third responsibility is to develop a strategic plan that outlines the clinic's goals and objectives. This duty is essential because it provides a roadmap for the clinic's future and helps keep everyone working towards the same objectives.
Responsibilities of a Human Resource Manager:
The first responsibility is to oversee the hiring and training of new employees. You should also develop performance metrics to assess employee progress and provide constructive feedback.
This duty is critical because it ensures that the clinic's staff is competent and well-trained.
The second responsibility is to develop compensation plans and benefits packages that motivate employees and are competitive within the industry. This duty is important because it helps retain quality staff.
The third responsibility is to develop and enforce policies that promote a safe, productive work environment. This duty is essential because it helps protect employees from harm and fosters a positive work culture.
The difference between authoritarian and participatory management styles:
Authoritarian management is a style in which the manager makes all decisions and takes full control over the workforce.
Participatory management, on the other hand, is a style in which employees are empowered to make decisions and have a say in how the clinic is run.
The role of a medical assistant regarding the importance of risk management in a healthcare setting:
Medical assistants are responsible for ensuring that patients receive quality care. As such, they play a critical role in risk management in a healthcare setting. Medical assistants must be aware of potential risks and take proactive measures to prevent adverse events from occurring.
Research and identify the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA): The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) is a federal law that protects individuals from discrimination based on their genetic information. The law prohibits employers and health insurers from using genetic information to make decisions about employment or coverage.
Research and identify the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments: The Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments (ADAAA) is a federal law that prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals with disabilities. The law requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities and prohibits employers from discriminating against job applicants with disabilities.
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The nurse is instructing a patient who is legally blind in how to feed themselves. Using the My Plate design, the nurse instructs the patient that which of the following foods would be found at the Military time of 1900 ?
a. Fruits
b. Grains
c. Protein
d. Vegetables
The food group that would typically be found at the Military time of 1900 (7:00 PM) according to the My Plate design is protein.
At the Military time of 1900, the main focus of the meal according to the My Plate design would be on consuming protein-rich foods. Protein is an essential nutrient for the body, supporting muscle growth, repair, and overall health. Examples of protein sources include meat, poultry, fish, beans, lentils, tofu, and dairy products. Including protein in the evening meal helps provide satiety, stabilize blood sugar levels, and support various bodily functions. A balanced meal at 1900 would typically consist of protein alongside other food groups like vegetables, grains, and possibly fruits.
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Ms Garcia was diagnosed with a glioblastoma and had surgery for resection. 3 day after her procedure she started experiencing an unusually high urinary output 3 liters per day .she also startes she is very thirsty and present with poor skin turgor and cap refill
Glioblastoma is a type of aggressive brain cancer. The first line of treatment is usually surgery to resect the tumor.
After surgery, there are potential side effects that the patient may experience due to the surgery. One of these side effects is a disruption in the body's fluid balance, which can result in an unusually high urinary output of three liters per day.The patient's symptoms of thirst and poor skin turgor suggest that she is dehydrated.
It is important to address this issue as dehydration can lead to complications and can exacerbate symptoms. Treatment options may include administering fluids to the patient through an IV or orally. Additionally, monitoring of the patient's electrolyte levels may be necessary to ensure that they are within normal limits.
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NUR/PNR 172 Philosophy of Nursing Writing Assignment When creating your Philosophy of Nursing, please discuss the following criteria: 1. Work/lifeleducation experiences prior to the HCC nursing program. What made you decide to become a nurse? 2. Your definition of Nursing that reflects your values and belief system. How does it relate to the HCC Nursing program's End of Program Student Learning Outcomes (EPSLOs)? (see Nursing Student Handbook) 3. Educational goals for the next 1,5, and 10 years. How do your educational goals align with the HCC EPSLOs? 4. Ideal work environment and patient population. How does it relate to the HCC Nursing program EPSLOs? 5. Write a personal reflection: based on the philosophy of nursing created. identify how personal/professional values and beliefs will affect your nursing practice.
In conclusion, my philosophy of nursing encompasses a holistic and patient-centered approach that aligns with the values and beliefs of the HCC Nursing program. It emphasizes the importance of lifelong learning, interprofessional collaboration, evidence-based practice, and cultural sensitivity. By embracing these principles, I am confident that I will be able to provide compassionate, competent.
Philosophy of Nursing
Work/Life/Education Experiences:
Prior to entering the HCC nursing program, my journey was shaped by various work, life, and educational experiences. I had always been drawn to the healthcare field, fascinated by the intricate workings of the human body and the profound impact nursing could have on individuals and communities. As I pursued my education, I had the opportunity to work as a volunteer in a local hospital, which solidified my desire to become a nurse. Witnessing the compassionate care provided by the nurses and the positive impact they made on patients' lives convinced me that nursing was my true calling.
Definition of Nursing:
Nursing, to me, is a holistic profession that encompasses both science and art. It is the compassionate and evidence-based care delivered to individuals, families, and communities to promote health, prevent illness, and alleviate suffering. Nursing goes beyond the physical aspects of care and encompasses emotional, psychological, and spiritual support. It is a profession that values respect, empathy, integrity, and cultural sensitivity. This definition aligns with the HCC Nursing program's End of Program Student Learning Outcomes (EPSLOs) by emphasizing the importance of providing patient-centered care, utilizing evidence-based practice, and understanding the influence of cultural diversity on healthcare.
Educational Goals:
In the next 1, 5, and 10 years, my educational goals are to continuously enhance my nursing knowledge and skills to provide the highest quality of care to my patients. In the next year, I plan to complete additional certifications and attend workshops and conferences to expand my expertise in specialized areas of nursing practice. In the next 5 years, I aim to pursue a Master's degree in Nursing to advance my career and contribute to evidence-based practice and nursing leadership. Finally, within the next 10 years, I aspire to attain a doctoral degree in nursing, enabling me to make substantial contributions to nursing education, research, and policy development. These educational goals align with the HCC EPSLOs by emphasizing lifelong learning, professional growth, and the pursuit of advanced knowledge in nursing.
Ideal Work Environment and Patient Population:
My ideal work environment is one that fosters collaboration, supports professional growth, and values patient-centered care. I envision working in a hospital setting where interdisciplinary teamwork is encouraged, enabling me to collaborate with healthcare professionals from different disciplines to optimize patient outcomes. I am passionate about working with diverse patient populations, including individuals from underserved communities and those with complex health needs. This ideal work environment aligns with the HCC Nursing program EPSLOs, particularly the focus on interprofessional collaboration, patient advocacy, and addressing health disparities.
Personal Reflection:
Based on my philosophy of nursing, my personal and professional values and beliefs will profoundly influence my nursing practice. Respect for the inherent worth and dignity of every individual will guide my interactions with patients, their families, and colleagues. Empathy and compassion will drive me to provide holistic care that not only addresses physical needs but also acknowledges the emotional, psychological, and spiritual aspects of healing. I believe in the power of continuous learning and evidence-based practice, which will motivate me to stay updated with the latest research and integrate it into my nursing care. Cultural sensitivity will shape my approach to patient care, recognizing and respecting diverse beliefs, values, and practices. Lastly, integrity and ethical conduct will be the foundation of my nursing practice, ensuring patient safety, maintaining confidentiality, and upholding professional standards.
In conclusion, my philosophy of nursing encompasses a holistic and patient-centered approach that aligns with the values and beliefs of the HCC Nursing program. It emphasizes the importance of lifelong learning, interprofessional collaboration, evidence-based practice, and cultural sensitivity. By embracing these principles, I am confident that I will be able to provide compassionate, competent.
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A Nurse is leading a Critical Incident Sless debriefing wht a group of Staff members followin a mass traunta incident. Which of the following Intervent? Should d nurs take first?
As a Clinic Manager or a Human Resource Manager, you have many responsibilities that include the following duties:
Responsibilities of a Clinic Manager:
The first responsibility is to plan and direct the administrative functions of the clinic. You should provide support to the clinic's medical staff, hire employees and delegate work responsibilities, and develop policies that improve the clinic's performance. This duty is essential because it allows the clinic to run efficiently and effectively.
The second responsibility is to ensure that the clinic's financial practices align with its objectives. This includes tracking budgets, analyzing expenses, and implementing cost-saving measures where possible. This duty is crucial because it allows the clinic to remain financially stable, which is vital for its longevity.
The third responsibility is to develop a strategic plan that outlines the clinic's goals and objectives. This duty is essential because it provides a roadmap for the clinic's future and helps keep everyone working towards the same objectives.
Responsibilities of a Human Resource Manager:
The first responsibility is to oversee the hiring and training of new employees. You should also develop performance metrics to assess employee progress and provide constructive feedback.
This duty is critical because it ensures that the clinic's staff is competent and well-trained.
The second responsibility is to develop compensation plans and benefits packages that motivate employees and are competitive within the industry. This duty is important because it helps retain quality staff.
The third responsibility is to develop and enforce policies that promote a safe, productive work environment. This duty is essential because it helps protect employees from harm and fosters a positive work culture.
The difference between authoritarian and participatory management styles:
Authoritarian management is a style in which the manager makes all decisions and takes full control over the workforce.
Participatory management, on the other hand, is a style in which employees are empowered to make decisions and have a say in how the clinic is run.
The role of a medical assistant regarding the importance of risk management in a healthcare setting:
Medical assistants are responsible for ensuring that patients receive quality care. As such, they play a critical role in risk management in a healthcare setting. Medical assistants must be aware of potential risks and take proactive measures to prevent adverse events from occurring.
Research and identify the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA): The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) is a federal law that protects individuals from discrimination based on their genetic information. The law prohibits employers and health insurers from using genetic information to make decisions about employment or coverage.
Research and identify the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments: The Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments (ADAAA) is a federal law that prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals with disabilities. The law requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities and prohibits employers from discriminating against job applicants with disabilities.
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You are an EMT-P (Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic) working in the Level One Trauma Unit . Your patient is Billie Jean Rodi, a 17-year-old student. Ms. Rodi has been admitted to the unit from the operating room after surgery for multiple fractures in a car accident. She is receiving a blood transfusion. You document that her temperature has risen to 102 degrees F and her respirations to 24 per minute and she has chills. You take her BP; it has fallen to 90/60. What should you do? In Ms. Rodi’s case, she has type A blood and, by mistake, received type AB blood, which agglutinated. Your immediate response is to stop the transfusion, replace it with a saline infusion, call your supervisor, and notify the director.
What does it mean to have agglutinated?
What specific antigen did Ms. Rodi’s type A blood react to?
Agglutination refers to the clumping together of blood cells due to an immune reaction.
Ms. Rodi's type A blood reacted to the antigen called antigen B.
a) It occurs when antibodies in the recipient's blood react with antigens present on the transfused blood cells, leading to the formation of clumps or aggregates. In this case, Ms. Rodi's type A blood reacted with the antibodies present in the type AB blood she received, causing agglutination.
b) In the ABO blood typing system, individuals with type A blood have A antigens on their red blood cells, while individuals with type B blood have B antigens. When Ms. Rodi received type AB blood (which has both A and B antigens), her antibodies recognized the B antigens as foreign and initiated the agglutination response. This incompatible reaction between the A antibodies and B antigens resulted in the adverse symptoms, including fever, chills, and a drop in blood pressure, indicating a transfusion reaction.
Immediate action was taken to stop the transfusion, replace it with a saline infusion, notify the supervisor, and inform the director to ensure appropriate management of the transfusion reaction and prevent further complications.
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Joe went to the emergency room where he complained of severe pains in the lower right quadrant of his abdomen. What might be his problem?
Answer & Explanation:
Joe's complaint of severe pain in the lower right quadrant of his abdomen is a symptom of several possible conditions. However, one of the most common causes of pain in this area is appendicitis. Appendicitis occurs when the appendix, a small, finger-shaped organ attached to the large intestine, becomes inflamed and infected. This can cause severe pain in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen, along with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, fever, and loss of appetite.
Other possible causes of Joe's pain could include a kidney stone, which can cause sharp, intense pain in the lower abdomen and back, as well as blood in the urine and difficulty urinating. A bladder infection can also cause pain in the lower abdomen, along with a frequent urge to urinate, painful urination, and cloudy or bloody urine. Finally, a hernia can cause pain in the lower abdomen, particularly when lifting heavy objects or straining during bowel movements.
It is important to note that a proper diagnosis of Joe's condition can only be made by a medical professional after a thorough examination and possibly some diagnostic tests. Therefore, it is crucial that Joe seeks medical attention as soon as possible to determine the cause of his pain and receive appropriate treatment. Delaying treatment can lead to serious complications, particularly in the case of appendicitis, which can cause the appendix to burst and spread infection throughout the body.
The nurse begins to develop a plan of care and identify teaching
needs to review with the parents of a 6-year-old male client with
asthma. What would the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select
Al
The nurse would include taking prescribed medications on time in their teaching plan.
The correct option is option C.
Taking prescribed medications as scheduled is crucial for managing asthma symptoms and preventing asthma attacks. This may include using inhalers or other medications prescribed by the healthcare provider. The nurse should educate the parents on the correct administration technique and emphasize the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
In addition to medication management, it would also be essential to address other relevant aspects of asthma management, such as avoiding triggers and creating a safe environment for the child.
Hence, option C is the correct option.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"The nurse begins to develop a plan of care and identify teaching
needs to review with the parents of a 6-year-old male client with
asthma. What would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) Gradually increase levels of physical exertion.
B) Change filters on heaters and air conditioners frequently.
C) Take prescribed medications as scheduled.
D) Avoid goose-down pillows."--
The nurse has taught the family member of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following statements teaching?
The best statement reflecting the teaching provided by the nurse to the family member of a client with Parkinson's disease is "Maintaining open communication with the healthcare team is not important for managing the client's condition effectively."
The correct answer is option D.
This statement is correct because maintaining open communication with the healthcare team is crucial for the effective management of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a complex condition that requires ongoing medical supervision, medication adjustments, and multidisciplinary care. Regular and open communication with the healthcare team, including physicians, nurses, and therapists, is vital to ensure the best possible outcomes for the client.
By maintaining open communication, the family member can stay informed about the client's treatment plan, medication regimen, and any potential changes or updates in the management of Parkinson's disease. This allows them to actively participate in the client's care, provide support, and advocate for their needs.
Additionally, the healthcare team can provide valuable information and resources to the family member, such as education on Parkinson's disease, strategies for managing symptoms, and tips for optimizing the client's quality of life. They can also address any concerns or questions the family member may have, helping to alleviate anxiety and promote a sense of empowerment in their role as a caregiver.
Furthermore, open communication facilitates the sharing of important updates or changes in the client's condition between the healthcare team and the family member. This enables prompt interventions, timely adjustments in the treatment plan, and early detection of any potential complications or side effects.
In conclusion, maintaining open communication with the healthcare team is crucial for the effective management of Parkinson's disease. It ensures that the family member is well-informed, actively involved in the client's care, and able to access the necessary support and resources. By fostering a collaborative and communicative relationship, the client's overall well-being and management of Parkinson's disease can be significantly improved.
Therefore, from the given statements the one which best reflects the idea is option D.
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The question probable may be:
Which of the following statements best reflects the teaching provided by the nurse to the family member of a client with Parkinson's disease?
A) "Encouraging the client to engage in regular physical exercise is not necessary for managing Parkinson's disease symptoms."
B) "Following a flexible daily routine is recommended to accommodate the unpredictable nature of Parkinson's disease."
C) "Creating a safe environment at home is not essential as Parkinson's disease does not increase the risk of falls."
D) "Maintaining open communication with the healthcare team is not important for managing the client's condition effectively."
which component of the partial denture is known as a clasp. third molars. which teeth are not included on a full denture.
A partial denture is a type of dental prosthetic device that is used to replace one or more missing teeth in the jaw.
The denture consists of a base that is made of acrylic or metal and one or more artificial teeth that are attached to the base. The base is designed to fit snugly against the gums and the remaining teeth in the jaw, while the artificial teeth are used to fill in the gaps left by missing teeth.
The component of the partial denture that is known as a clasp is a metal or plastic device that is used to hold the denture in place. The clasp is typically made of a small hook that is attached to the base of the denture and that is designed to fit around one of the remaining natural teeth in the jaw. The clasp helps to keep the denture from moving around or slipping out of place, especially when the wearer is speaking or eating.
Third molars are also known as wisdom teeth. These teeth are not included in a full denture because they are located at the back of the mouth and are typically the last teeth to erupt. Because they are located so far back in the jaw, they are not necessary for chewing or speaking, and they can be difficult to reach with a toothbrush or dental floss. As a result, they are often removed to prevent tooth decay or gum disease.
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64-year-old admitted to the ICU after triple by-pass surgery. His stay in the hospital has been determined for a week however numerous factors can play huge role in duration of his stay.
According to the Webinar #1 "Creating a Healing Environment in the ICU" please complete your discussion in evaluating all environmental factors and the physiological affects of stress within this case.
Use your own and genuine writing and refrain from copy pasting from slides or any other resources.
Environmental factors: Physiological affects of stress:
• Air qualityOn therapeutic outcomes
• ColorReduce stressors
• LightImprove staff performance and morale
• View
• Noise
• Reduce stressors
Environmental factors such as air quality, color, light, view, and noise play crucial roles in creating a healing environment. Therefore, optimizing these environmental factors can reduce stress, improve staff performance and morale, and ultimately contribute to the patient's recovery.
The air quality of the patient is a significant environmental component that can affect the effectiveness of their treatment. A better recovery can be facilitated by clean, well-ventilated air, which can help lower the risk of problems and infections. The ICU's color scheme may have an effect on the patient's degree of stress. It has been demonstrated that using calming and soothing colors can lower stress levels and foster a calmer environment for recovery.
The ICU's lighting needs are critical for staff morale and effectiveness as well as the comfort of the patients. The right amount of natural light or thoughtfully crafted artificial lighting can improve mood and foster a more welcoming environment. If at all possible, giving patients a view can help them feel more connected to the outside world, which can lessen feelings of loneliness and enhance general wellbeing.
To lessen stresses, the ICU's noise levels should be kept to a minimum. Excessive noise might make the patient feel more uncomfortable and anxious, which makes it harder for them to relax and heal. An environment that is more conducive to healing can be created by putting noise-cancelling techniques into practice, such as employing sound-absorbing materials or imposing quiet hours.
The physiological effects of stress can be reduced by addressing these environmental factors and lowering stressors. High amounts of stress can be harmful to the patient's health and hinder their ability to recuperate. Healthcare professionals can design a healing atmosphere that encourages relaxation, boosts staff productivity and morale, and ultimately improves patient wellbeing and therapeutic results.
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A prescription for an oral suspension of Tamiflu calls for 240ml to be dispensed. The recipe for the suspension is:
Tamiflu 75mg capsules 1.5g
Cherry Syrup qs 50ml
a) Given that the dose of Tamiflu is 75mg PO QD, the 240 ml suspension you compounded will last for how many days?
b) The dose of Tamiflu is 75mg PO QD. How many milliliters of this suspension the patient needs to take daily?
As a Clinic Manager or a Human Resource Manager, you have many responsibilities that include the following duties:
Responsibilities of a Clinic Manager:
The first responsibility is to plan and direct the administrative functions of the clinic. You should provide support to the clinic's medical staff, hire employees and delegate work responsibilities, and develop policies that improve the clinic's performance. This duty is essential because it allows the clinic to run efficiently and effectively.
The second responsibility is to ensure that the clinic's financial practices align with its objectives. This includes tracking budgets, analyzing expenses, and implementing cost-saving measures where possible. This duty is crucial because it allows the clinic to remain financially stable, which is vital for its longevity.
The third responsibility is to develop a strategic plan that outlines the clinic's goals and objectives. This duty is essential because it provides a roadmap for the clinic's future and helps keep everyone working towards the same objectives.
Responsibilities of a Human Resource Manager:
The first responsibility is to oversee the hiring and training of new employees. You should also develop performance metrics to assess employee progress and provide constructive feedback.
This duty is critical because it ensures that the clinic's staff is competent and well-trained.
The second responsibility is to develop compensation plans and benefits packages that motivate employees and are competitive within the industry. This duty is important because it helps retain quality staff.
The third responsibility is to develop and enforce policies that promote a safe, productive work environment. This duty is essential because it helps protect employees from harm and fosters a positive work culture.
The difference between authoritarian and participatory management styles:
Authoritarian management is a style in which the manager makes all decisions and takes full control over the workforce.
Participatory management, on the other hand, is a style in which employees are empowered to make decisions and have a say in how the clinic is run.
The role of a medical assistant regarding the importance of risk management in a healthcare setting:
Medical assistants are responsible for ensuring that patients receive quality care. As such, they play a critical role in risk management in a healthcare setting. Medical assistants must be aware of potential risks and take proactive measures to prevent adverse events from occurring.
Research and identify the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA): The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) is a federal law that protects individuals from discrimination based on their genetic information. The law prohibits employers and health insurers from using genetic information to make decisions about employment or coverage.
Research and identify the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments: The Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments (ADAAA) is a federal law that prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals with disabilities. The law requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to employees with disabilities and prohibits employers from discriminating against job applicants with disabilities.
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the term that means cancerous tumor of a glandular tissue is
The term that means a cancerous tumor of glandular tissue is adenocarcinoma.
Adenocarcinoma refers to a type of cancer that originates in the cells of glandular tissues, which are responsible for producing and secreting fluids or mucous. Glands can be found in various organs throughout the body, such as the breast, lung, prostate, pancreas, and colon, among others.
Adenocarcinoma is characterized by the uncontrolled growth and multiplication of abnormal glandular cells. These cancerous cells can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
The diagnosis and treatment of adenocarcinoma depend on the specific organ or gland involved. It is an important term in oncology and helps healthcare professionals classify and understand the behavior of certain types of cancers. The prognosis and treatment options for adenocarcinoma can vary depending on the stage, location, and other factors specific to the individual case.
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A client who is on a clear liquid diet must drink 1440mL of water for a procedure. How many cups is this equal to?
A client who is on a clear liquid diet must drink 1440mL of water for a procedure.
To calculate how many cups this is equal to, we need to know the conversion factor between milliliters and cups.
1 cup is equal to 236.59 milliliters.
Therefore, we can use the following formula:
Cups = Milliliters / 236.59
Using this formula, we can find that 1440 milliliters is equal to:1440 / 236.59 ≈ 6.09 cups.
Therefore, a client on a clear liquid diet must drink approximately 6.09 cups of water for the procedure.
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Please identify the Category Range in ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM for
Neoplasms, Mental Disorders, Diseases of the Genitourinary system,
and Diseases of the Circulatory system.
The category range for Diseases of the Circulatory system in ICD-9-CM is 390-459 and in ICD-10-CM is I00-I99. The circulatory system is responsible for transporting blood and nutrients throughout the body. Diseases of the Circulatory system can include conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and stroke.
ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM are classification systems used in medical coding. The codes are used for coding diagnoses and procedures in medical records. The categories range in ICD-9-CM and ICD-10-CM for Neoplasms, Mental Disorders, Diseases of the Genitourinary system, and Diseases of the Circulatory system are explained below:
Neoplasms
The category range for Neoplasms in ICD-9-CM is 140-239 and in ICD-10-CM is C00-D49.
Neoplasms are commonly known as tumors, which is an abnormal growth of cells in the body.
Neoplasms can be benign or malignant.
Mental Disorders
The category range for Mental Disorders in ICD-9-CM is 290-319 and in ICD-10-CM is F01-F99. Mental disorders are conditions that affect an individual's mood, thinking, or behavior. They can be caused by biological, environmental, or psychological factors.
Diseases of the Genitourinary system
The category range for Diseases of the Genitourinary system in ICD-9-CM is 580-629 and in ICD-10-CM is N00-N99. The genitourinary system is a system of organs within the body responsible for reproduction and elimination.
Diseases of the Genitourinary system can include infections, injuries, and abnormalities of the kidneys, bladder, urethra, and reproductive organs.
Diseases of the Circulatory system
The category range for Diseases of the Circulatory system in ICD-9-CM is 390-459 and in ICD-10-CM is I00-I99. The circulatory system is responsible for transporting blood and nutrients throughout the body. Diseases of the Circulatory system can include conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, and stroke.
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1. What is the stigma associated with opioids?
2. For some that become addicted to opioids, how do
they acquire their medication? Does this negatively
affect prescribers and those who actually need
op
Those who actually need opioids may face challenges accessing them due to restrictive prescribing practices or limited availability. This can lead to under-treatment of pain and other conditions, which can have a negative impact on their quality of life.
1. Stigma associated with opioidsThe stigma associated with opioids is that they are only used by people who have addiction issues, and it is seen as shameful to use them. The use of opioids, particularly prescription opioids, is often viewed as weak and lacking self-control. Opioids are often associated with negative outcomes like overdoses, addiction, and death, which further reinforces the stigma.2. How do they acquire their medication?Some people who become addicted to opioids acquire their medication through prescriptions from doctors who may be unaware of their addiction or may prescribe them inappropriately. Others may obtain opioids illegally through the black market or by stealing medication from others. Prescription drug monitoring programs (PDMPs) have been established to help prevent prescription drug abuse and diversion. PDMPs are state-run databases that track prescriptions for controlled substances, allowing doctors and pharmacists to identify potential abuse and take appropriate action.3. Does this negatively affect prescribers and those who actually need opioids?The negative perception of opioids can have an impact on prescribers who may be hesitant to prescribe opioids even when they are medically necessary, for fear of contributing to addiction or being accused of overprescribing. This can negatively affect patients who rely on opioids to manage chronic pain or other conditions.
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An 8-year male is brought to the Emergency Department for a temperature of 105 F and extreme lethargy. The child complains of a sore throat, severe headache, and severe body aches. The parents state the child went to bed in a healthy condition but woke during the night with a temperature of 102. The child has no other significant medical history. The parents do not believe in vaccinations and home school their children. They have one other child at home who has asthma. The patient is diagnosed with influenza and the plan is to admit to the pediatric intensive care unit. The nurse returns to the patient to prepare for transfer to PICU and hears the UAP telling the parents they are smart not to vaccinate their children because it caused his son to have autism.
Craft an initial post that addresses:
What ethical dilemma does the nurse face and what interventions should the nurse take to address the issue(s)?
Provide a detailed education plan for the rationale for vaccinations and the management of influenza.
The nurse in this scenario is facing an ethical dilemma concerning the misinformation being provided by the Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) to the parents regarding vaccinations and autism. The UAP's statement perpetuates a widely debunked myth that vaccines cause autism, which has been thoroughly discredited by scientific research. The nurse must address this issue promptly and take appropriate interventions to ensure the parents are properly educated about vaccinations and the management of influenza.
Interventions to address the issue(s) and promote ethical practice:
1. Correct the misinformation: The nurse should respectfully intervene and correct the UAP's statement in the presence of the parents. It is crucial to provide accurate information supported by scientific evidence.
2. Establish trust and rapport: The nurse should approach the situation with empathy and respect for the parents' beliefs, while also emphasizing the importance of their child's health and well-being.
3. Provide evidence-based education: Develop a detailed education plan to inform the parents about the rationale for vaccinations and the management of influenza. The plan should include:
a. Vaccine safety and benefits: Explain the extensive research conducted on vaccine safety and the lack of evidence linking vaccines to autism.
b. Herd immunity: Educate the parents about the concept of herd immunity, whereby a high vaccination rate within a population helps protect those who cannot receive vaccines due to medical reasons or age. Highlight how their decision not to vaccinate their children puts not only their own children at risk but also others in the community.
c. Influenza management: Discuss the severity of influenza and its potential complications, especially in high-risk individuals such as young children and those with asthma. Explain the importance of timely medical intervention, antiviral medications, and supportive care in managing influenza and preventing severe outcomes.
d. Risks of vaccine-preventable diseases: Provide information about the risks associated with vaccine-preventable diseases such as influenza.
e. Credible resources: Direct the parents to reputable sources of information, such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), World Health Organization (WHO), or their healthcare provider, for further reading and clarification of any concerns.
4. Involve the healthcare team: Collaborate with other members of the healthcare team, including the pediatrician, to ensure consistent messaging and reinforce the importance of vaccinations. Seek their support in addressing the parents' concerns and providing additional education if necessary.
5. Document the encounter: Document the conversation with the parents, including the misinformation provided by the UAP, the correction of the misinformation, and the education provided. This documentation is crucial for continuity of care and to demonstrate the nurse's commitment to promoting evidence-based practice and patient safety.
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The nurse evaluates the client for which possible 1 point lab value trend due to a known side effect of the drug? Elevating AST and ALT Declining AST and ALT Increasing LDL and Decreasing HDL Increasing HDL and Decreasing LDL Using ONLY the VERY first character of each correct answer (even if there is more than one ⋆1 point answer) for each question. Write out the code to escape the room. Use lower-case letters. A client has received alteplase for treatment of an ischemic stroke. Following administration *
The nurse evaluates the client for elevating AST and ALT as a possible 1 point lab value trend due to a known side effect of the drug.
Here's the explanation:
Alteplase is a medication that can be used to treat ischemic stroke. A blood clot obstructs blood flow to a portion of the brain in ischemic stroke. Alteplase, also known as tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), is a thrombolytic medication that helps dissolve blood clots in the brain. A thrombolytic drug dissolves blood clots and improves blood flow to the affected region. AST and ALT are liver enzymes that are commonly monitored. Alteplase, as per its side effect, may raise AST and ALT levels.
This medication should be used with caution in clients with hepatic insufficiency. As a result, the nurse should keep an eye on the client's liver function, including AST and ALT levels, as part of their safety assessment.
Conclusion: The nurse evaluates the client for elevating AST and ALT as a possible 1 point lab value trend due to a known side effect of the drug.
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A 1.3cm laceration repair, vestibule of mouth. This procedure should be reported with code _____.
When reporting the procedure for the repair of a 1.3-cm laceration in the vestibule of the mouth, it should be reported with code 40814.
Here's why:
Procedure Code40814CPT code 40814 is used for the repair of a laceration in the vestibule of the mouth. A vestibule is a part of the oral cavity that surrounds the teeth and gums. The repair of a laceration in this area requires the provider to use a local anesthetic to numb the affected area and then make an incision to expose the wound edges. The provider then removes any debris or foreign objects, irrigates the wound with a sterile solution, and uses sutures to close the wound.
Afterward, the provider applies a sterile dressing over the wound. The procedure can be performed in a hospital, surgical center, or in an outpatient clinic. Additionally, the procedure does not require any additional special equipment or instruments.
Based on the information provided, it is recommended to report the procedure with code 40814. It is always important to consult with the healthcare provider or medical coder for accurate coding as there are many factors that can impact the coding of a medical procedure.
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you are working as an assistant for a physician who has some residents (patients) in area nursing homes. Compose a fax containing an order to begin physical therapy gait training for nursing home resident, Patty Adams. This order will need a physician signature. This fax should be sent to the Sunshine Nursing Home in Louisville Kentucky. Be sure to follow HIPAA guidelines in composing the document, to include but not limited to a fax cover with a statement noting the confidential nature of the communication and action to take if the fax is received in error.
Here is a sample fax containing an order to begin physical therapy gait training for nursing home resident, Patty Adams.
It follows HIPAA guidelines in composing the document. Please note that the physician signature should be added to the actual document before sending.
Date: [Insert date]
To: Sunshine Nursing Home
Address: [Insert address]
Phone: [Insert phone number]
Fax: [Insert fax number]
Fax cover: Confidential Communication
Attention: Director of Nursing
Dear Sir/Madam,
Please be advised that I am ordering physical therapy gait training for resident Patty Adams at your facility. This order is effective immediately and shall continue until the patient is discharged from the facility.
The therapy should begin as soon as possible and be carried out under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist. The goal of the therapy is to improve the patient's mobility and gait.
Please ensure that this order is implemented promptly and that the patient's progress is documented in the medical record. If you have any questions or concerns, please do not hesitate to contact me.
Thank you for your attention to this matter.
Sincerely,
[Insert physician's name]
[Insert physician's title]
[Insert physician's contact information]
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