In the sympathetic neuron pathways, the preganglionic neuron is shorter in length than the post-ganglionic neuron and there is a lot of divergence and convergence at the ganglia which results in widespread effects in the body. In the parasympathetic neuron pathways, the preganglionic cell releases acetylcholine which stimulates the postganglionic cell to release acetylcholine onto an effector that is covered with muscarinic receptors.
In the sympathetic nervous system, the preganglionic neuron is short because the ganglia are located near the spinal cord. Also, there is a lot of divergence and convergence of signals at the ganglia. This means that one preganglionic neuron can synapse with many postganglionic neurons. The postganglionic neurons can then go on to innervate many effector organs.
In the parasympathetic nervous system, the preganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine which binds to nicotinic receptors on the postganglionic neuron. This activates the postganglionic neuron which then releases acetylcholine onto the effector organ. The effector organ, such as the heart or the digestive system, will have muscarinic receptors on their cells.
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1. When is an ELISA done?
2. what might the specific protein sought be?
3. What is an antibody?
4. What is a direct ELISA?
5. What is an indirect ELISA?
6. When might it be useful to use this ELISA instead of a direct ELISA?
7. What is a Sandwich ELISA?
8. What makes an ELISA sensitive?
The color reaction produced is directly proportional to the concentration of the antigen or antibody present in the sample.
1. ELISA is done for the identification of the presence of an antigen or antibody in the sample. This is a type of serological testing for the diagnosis of various diseases.
2. The specific protein sought might be any antigen or antibody that is produced in response to the disease-causing organism or foreign material that has invaded the body.
3. An antibody is a type of immunoglobulin protein that is produced by the body in response to the presence of foreign antigens or pathogens. It recognizes the antigen and binds to it specifically.
4. Direct ELISA is a type of ELISA in which the antigen is immobilized to the surface of the plate and the specific antibody is linked to an enzyme that produces a color reaction in the presence of the substrate.
5. Indirect ELISA is a type of ELISA in which the primary antibody is linked to an enzyme and then the secondary antibody is added to bind to the primary antibody.
6. Indirect ELISA is more useful than direct ELISA when the concentration of the antigen is too low to be detected by direct ELISA.
7. Sandwich ELISA is a type of ELISA in which two antibodies are used to detect the antigen in the sample. One antibody is immobilized to the surface of the plate and the other antibody is linked to an enzyme that produces a color reaction.
8. ELISA is sensitive due to the use of an enzyme-linked antibody that can detect a very low concentration of antigen or antibody.
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QUESTION 3 An increase in parasympathetic outflow leads to a negative chronotropic effect because it causes an increase in K+ permeability and a decrease in Ca2+ permeability it causes an decrease in both K+ &Ca2+ permeability it causes an increase in both K+ &Ca2+ permeability it causes an decrease in K+ permeability and an increase in Ca2+ permeability QUESTION 4 During the phase of isovolumetric ventricular contraction O Pressure in the ventricles is rising The volume of blood in the ventricles is not changing The semilunar valves are open A & B O A & C QUESTION 5 Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes all of the following except: An increase in heart rate. An increase in contractility. An increase of calcium entry into the myocardial cells. An decrease in the speed of contraction
An increase in parasympathetic outflow leads to a decrease in both K+ and Ca2+ permeability.
During the phase of isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the pressure in the ventricles is rising, and the volume of blood in the ventricles is not changing.
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes all of the following except a decrease in the speed of contraction.
Parasympathetic outflow refers to the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "rest and digest" response in the body. When parasympathetic activity increases, it has an inhibitory effect on the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. This decrease in heart rate is known as a negative chronotropic effect.
One of the mechanisms by which parasympathetic stimulation achieves this is by increasing the permeability of potassium ions (K+) and decreasing the permeability of calcium ions (Ca2+).
Isovolumetric ventricular contraction is a phase of the cardiac cycle that occurs in the ventricles of the heart. This phase begins after the ventricles have been filled with blood during the previous phase, known as ventricular diastole. In isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the ventricles start to contract, generating pressure within them.
During this phase, the ventricular muscles contract, causing an increase in pressure inside the ventricles. This rise in pressure is due to the force exerted by the contracting muscles on the blood contained within the ventricles. The pressure continues to rise until it exceeds the pressure in the arteries, leading to the opening of the semilunar valves.
However, despite the rising pressure, the volume of blood in the ventricles remains constant during isovolumetric ventricular contraction. This is because the semilunar valves, which guard the exits of the ventricles, are still closed at this stage.
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart activates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to various physiological responses. One of the primary effects of sympathetic stimulation is the increase in heart rate, which is achieved through the release of norepinephrine onto the heart's beta-adrenergic receptors. This activation enhances the depolarization rate of the pacemaker cells in the sinoatrial (SA) node, resulting in an accelerated heart rate.
sympathetic stimulation does not lead to a decrease in the speed of contraction. On the contrary, it actually speeds up the rate of contraction. By increasing calcium entry into the myocardial cells, sympathetic stimulation accelerates the process of myocardial depolarization and contraction, resulting in a faster contraction speed.
In summary, sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes an increase in heart rate, an increase in contractility through increased calcium entry into myocardial cells, but it does not lead to a decrease in the speed of contraction.
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QUESTION 3: The statement regarding an increase in parasympathetic outflow leading to a negative chronotropic effect is true. Parasympathetic outflow from the vagus nerve plays a role in regulating heart function. Stimulation of the vagus nerve slows down the heart rate, while sympathetic stimulation accelerates it. This is achieved through mechanisms such as increased K+ permeability and decreased Ca2+ permeability.
QUESTION 4: During the phase of isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the pressure in the ventricles is rising while the volume of blood in the ventricles remains constant.
This is because the ventricles are contracting isometrically, meaning that although the pressure inside the ventricles is increasing, the volume of blood inside them is not changing.
The semilunar valves are closed during this phase because the ventricular pressure has not reached the level required to open them.
QUESTION 5: The statement claiming that sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes a decrease in the speed of contraction is false.
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart actually leads to an increase in heart rate, contractility, and the speed of contraction.
It enhances calcium entry into the myocardial cells, resulting in a stronger and faster contraction. Therefore, option D, which suggests a decrease in the speed of contraction, is incorrect.
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Which of the following statements about digestion in the stomach is FALSE?
A. The release of the hormone gastrin stimulates the secretion of HCl
B. HCl begins the process of protein digestion by denaturing (unfolding) proteins
C. Intrinsic factor protects the lining of the stomach
D. Pepsin breaks apart large protein molecules
E. The rugae (folds) of the stomach enable the stomach to stretch while filling up with food
If the chyme in the duodenum remained at consistently low pH levels, what would you suspect is occurring?
A. Not enough chymotrypsin is being released into the duodenum.
B. Not enough bile is being released by the gallbladder.
C. Not enough bicarbonate is being released by the pancreas.
D. Not enough BERs are being activated on the small intestine.
Which is FALSE regarding ovulation?
A. The LH surge causes the bursting of the follicle and secondary oocyte release (ovulation)
B. Release of gonadotrophic hormones (FSH and LH) causes follicle cells to grow and secrete estrogen
C. Increasing levels of estrogen results in a positive feedback mechanism causing the LH surge
D. Fluid, which is produced in theca cells, fills the follicle (antrum)
E. The ovarian cycle involves two main phases
The FALSE statement about digestion in stomach is; Intrinsic factor protects the lining of the stomach. Option C is correct. If chyme in duodenum remained at consistently low pH levels, it would suggest; Not enough bicarbonate is being released by the pancreas. Option C is correct. The FALSE statement regarding ovulation is; Fluid, which is produced in the theca cells, fills the follicle. Option D is correct.
Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, but its primary function is not to protect the lining of the stomach. Instead, intrinsic factor is involved in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. It forms a complex with vitamin B12, allowing it to be absorbed by specific receptors in the ileum of the small intestine.
The main role of intrinsic factor is in the absorption of vitamin B12, not the protection of the stomach lining. The stomach lining is protected by other mechanisms, such as a layer of mucus that acts as a physical barrier and helps prevent damage from the acidic environment of the stomach.
The pancreas secretes bicarbonate ions into the duodenum to neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach. This process helps create a more favorable pH environment for the activity of digestive enzymes in the small intestine. Bicarbonate ions raise the pH by neutralizing the stomach acid, allowing the enzymes to function optimally.
If insufficient bicarbonate is released by the pancreas, the chyme in the duodenum would remain acidic, impeding the normal digestive processes in the small intestine. This could lead to improper digestion and absorption of nutrients.
In the process of ovulation, the theca cells do not produce fluid that fills the follicle (antrum). Instead, the antrum is filled with fluid secreted by granulosa cells within the growing follicle. The fluid accumulation within the antrum creates pressure, leading to the rupture of the follicle and the release of the secondary oocyte during ovulation.
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What are the dark bands and light bands of a sarcomere?
What creates these dark bands and what creates the light bands?
What proteins are found here?
The dark bands of a sarcomere are called A bands while the light bands of a sarcomere are called I bands. The A band is created by the presence of both thick and thin filaments while the I band is created by the presence of thin filaments only.
The dark color of the A band is due to the presence of thick filaments that contain myosin protein, which interacts with the thin filaments made up of actin protein, to generate muscle contraction.
The light color of the I band is due to the presence of actin filaments only, which are anchored at their centers by a Z-disc or Z-line made of titin protein, while the ends of the thin filaments overlap with the thick filaments of the A band, creating a band known as the H-zone.
The following are the proteins found in the dark and light bands of a sarcomere:A band: myosin protein and ATPI band: actin protein, troponin, and tropomyosin.
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arason aj, joelsson jp, valdimarsdottir b, sigurdsson s, gudjonsson a, halldorsson s, johannsson f, rolfsson o, lehmann f, ingthorsson s, et al. (2019) azithromycin induces epidermal differentiation and multivesicular bodies in airway epithelia. respir res 20:129.
The study by Arason et al. (2019) found that azithromycin can induce epidermal differentiation and multivesicular bodies in airway epithelia.
1. The researchers conducted a study to investigate the effects of azithromycin on airway epithelia.
2. They found that azithromycin treatment led to the induction of epidermal differentiation, which is the process of cells becoming specialized as epidermal cells.
3. Azithromycin also caused the formation of multivesicular bodies, which are membrane-bound compartments involved in intracellular trafficking and degradation of proteins.
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Which of the following is true about the cerebellum?
a. It is part of the immune system
b. It contains the midbrain
c. It’s near the front of the brain
d. It has a role in posture
The statement that is true about the cerebellum is: d. It has a role in posture.
The cerebellum is a structure located at the back of the brain, below the occipital lobes and behind the brainstem. While it is not near the front of the brain (option c), it is essential for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance, and controlling posture.
The cerebellum receives sensory information from various parts of the body, including the inner ear, muscles, and joints. It integrates this information with motor commands from the brain to regulate muscle tone, coordination, and balance. It plays a crucial role in fine motor skills, such as writing, playing musical instruments, and athletic activities that require precise movements. In addition to its role in motor control, the cerebellum also contributes to cognitive functions such as attention, language, and problem-solving.
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QUESTION 38 The following is (are) true statements about the Trigeminal nerve (V)? a. It is the largest cranial nerve. b. It innervates the chewing muscles. c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b. QUESTION 39 The Vagus nerve (X) conveys sensory information from the following a. Heart b. Lungs c. Digestive tract d. All of the above
The following is (are) true statements about the Trigeminal nerve It is the largest cranial nerve and It innervates the chewing muscles, option C both a and b.
The Trigeminal nerve (V) is a large nerve that serves as a sensory and motor nerve to the face. It is the fifth cranial nerve and is considered the largest of all the cranial nerves. The Trigeminal nerve (V) innervates the chewing muscles and supplies sensation to the face.The correct answer to the Vagus nerve (X) conveys sensory information from the following is "All of the above."
The Vagus nerve (X) conveys sensory information from the heart, lungs, and digestive tract. It also provides motor function to the thoracic and abdominal viscera. The Vagus nerve (X) is also known as the wandering nerve because it has many branches that spread throughout the body and innervate various organs, option C both a and b.
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What is formed when a lithium is attracted to a fluoride ion
The First Pass Effect means that _____are responsible for _______ hormones and toxines
◯ Hepatocyte enzymes, secreting ◯ Hepatocyte synes, degrading ◯ Bile duct degrading ◯ Bile ducts secreting
The First Pass Effect means that hepatocyte enzymes are responsible for degrading hormones and toxins.
The First Pass Effect is the metabolic process in which a medication gets absorbed and enters the liver, where it is metabolized before it can enter systemic circulation. Hepatic metabolism, or first-pass hepatic metabolism, is the term for this process. The purpose of the first-pass effect is to remove active substances from the portal circulation before they can reach systemic circulation at levels that cause significant physiological effects. This mechanism can have a significant impact on the efficacy and safety of medications, and it may be a crucial aspect to consider in drug development.
Hepatocyte enzymes are the ones responsible for breaking down drugs and other substances before they enter the systemic circulation. The liver's metabolic processes are thus referred to as the first-pass effect. The liver's primary function is to detoxify the blood, which is accomplished by breaking down various chemical substances in the blood with the assistance of hepatocyte enzymes.
Hepatocyte enzymes are responsible for degrading hormones and toxins in the first-pass effect. Therefore, in the liver, hepatocyte enzymes metabolize drugs and other compounds before they can reach systemic circulation, which affects their efficacy and safety.
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While anesthesized, patients sometimes vomit. Given that the
anesthetic eliminates swallowing reflex, explain why it is
dangerous for an anesthetized patient to vomit.
It is dangerous for an anesthetized patient to vomit because the anesthetic eliminates the swallowing reflex, which means they may inhale or aspirate the vomit into their lungs.
During general anesthesia, patients are rendered unconscious and their ability to protect their airway is compromised. The anesthetic drugs used can suppress the swallowing reflex, which normally helps prevent food or liquids from entering the airway. As a result, if a patient vomits while under anesthesia, there is a risk of aspiration.
Aspiration occurs when stomach contents, including vomit, enter the respiratory tract instead of being expelled through the mouth. This can lead to serious complications, such as aspiration pneumonia or lung damage. The stomach acid and bacteria present in the vomit can cause inflammation and infection in the lungs, leading to pneumonia. In severe cases, aspiration can even result in respiratory distress or respiratory failure
To minimize the risk of aspiration during anesthesia, patients are typically fasted before surgery. This helps ensure that the stomach is empty, reducing the likelihood of vomiting and aspiration. Additionally, healthcare providers take precautions by using techniques to maintain the patient's airway and closely monitoring vital signs during the procedure.
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According to decay theory, why does forgetting occur? Select one: a. because of the deterioration of the nervous system with increasing age.
b. because of competition from other memories
c. because of ineffective encoding of information.
d. because of the passage of time.
Which of the following is reflected in Sigmund Freud's concept of repression? Select one: a. ineffective encoding b. interference
c. decay d. retrieval failure
According to decay theory, forgetting occurs because of the passage of time.
Sigmund Freud's concept of repression reflects the idea of retrieval failure.
Forgetting is a common phenomenon in human memory, and decay theory suggests that it happens due to the natural fading or weakening of memories over time. When information is encoded into our memory, it creates neural connections and pathways in the brain. However, these connections can gradually weaken or decay if they are not reinforced or accessed frequently.
The main idea behind decay theory is that memories that are not regularly reinforced or retrieved may gradually decay, becoming more difficult to retrieve accurately. This decay occurs at the neural level, as the connections between neurons weaken over time, making the memory traces less effective in retrieving the information. As a result, memories that are not actively maintained through rehearsal or retrieval can become less accessible and eventually fade away.
Repression is a concept introduced by Sigmund Freud in psychoanalytic theory, and it refers to the unconscious blocking of traumatic or distressing memories from conscious awareness. According to Freud, individuals may repress memories that are too threatening or painful to consciously remember, pushing them into the unconscious mind.
Repression aligns with the concept of retrieval failure because the memories that have been repressed are not readily accessible to conscious retrieval. While the memories may still exist in the unconscious, they are effectively blocked or "forgotten" from the conscious awareness.
When attempts are made to retrieve repressed memories, they may remain inaccessible due to the psychological defense mechanism of repression. These memories are effectively "hidden" from conscious recall, making retrieval difficult or even impossible without specialized therapeutic techniques.
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Which of the following statements about the transmural pressure gradient is correct? a. Prevents the lungs from pulling away from the thoracic wall as the lungs fill. b. Prevents the lungs from pulling away from the thoracic wall as the lungs empty. c. Collapses the lungs. d. Collapses the pleural cavity.
The correct statement about the transmural pressure gradient is that it prevents the lungs from pulling away from the thoracic wall as the lungs fill. So, the option is A.
Transmural pressure gradient refers to the difference in pressure on two sides of the alveolar wall. The alveolar wall has two opposing forces acting upon it during inhalation and exhalation of air. They are:
Intrapleural pressure: Pressure within the pleural cavity, which is negative during normal breathing.
Intra-alveolar pressure: Pressure within the alveoli, which changes during inhalation and exhalation of air.
The transmural pressure gradient is the difference between the intra-alveolar pressure and the intrapleural pressure. During inspiration, the pressure within the alveoli increases, while the pressure within the pleural cavity decreases. The pressure gradient prevents the lungs from pulling away from the thoracic wall as the lungs fill.
Option B is incorrect as the transmural pressure gradient does not play any role in preventing the lungs from pulling away from the thoracic wall as the lungs empty.
Option C is incorrect as the transmural pressure gradient does not cause the lungs to collapse.
Option D is incorrect as the transmural pressure gradient does not collapse the pleural cavity.
Thus, option A is correct.
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What structure does the proximal tubule lead to?
O distal tubule
O intermediate tubule
O glomerulus
O renal corpuscle
O collecting tubule
QUESTION 56
Which of the following are epithelial cells?
O gustatory cells
O Purkinje cells
O pericytes
O goblet cells
O olfactory cells
QUESTION 57
Which of the following lists have all structures that match with the corresponding structure underlined at the end?
O angiotensin I, anglotensin Il, renin, juxtaglomerular cells : liver
O stratum functionalis, stratum vasculare, internal os : oviduct
O axoneme, microtubules, acrosome, flagellum : ovum
O medullipin I, medullipin Il, antihypertensive action : renal medulla
O crystalloid of Charcot-Bottcher, crystals of Rienke, tunica albugenia : prostate
QUESTION 58
Which of the following is true about the renal medullary interstitium and the counter current multiplier mechanism?
O medullary interstitium maintains a relatively very low concentration of NaCl
O descending intermediate tubule is freely permeable to solutes and impermeable to water
O ascending intermediate tubule Is permeable to water and actively retains Nacl
O collecting duct in deep medulla are impermeable to urea
O vasa recta functions as counter current exchangers
QUESTION 59
Which of the following lists have cells or products that match with the corresponding cells or products underlined at the end?
O alpha, beta and delta cells : cells of exocrine pancreas
O follicular cells, paratollicular cells, calcitonin, thyroglobulin : cells of parathyroid gland
O hormone, Intracellular receptor, binding with DNA : testosterone
O chief cells, oxyphil cells, parathyroid hormane t cells of pineal gland
O epinephrine, norepinephrine, chromaffin cells : sells In adrenal zona reticularis
Question 56: The proximal tubule leads to the distal tubule.
Question 57: The epithelial cells are gustatory cells, olfactory cells, and goblet cells.
Question 58: The true statement is that vasa recta functions as counter-current exchangers.
Question 59: The cells or products that match are alpha, beta and delta cells: cells of the exocrine pancreas.
The proximal tubule leads to the distal tubule, which is the correct answer to question 56. Epithelial cells are found in various tissues and their function is to protect and line the surfaces of organs and structures.
In question 57, the epithelial cells mentioned are gustatory cells, olfactory cells, and goblet cells.
The vasa recta, which are specialized capillaries in the kidney, function as counter-current exchangers, allowing for the exchange of substances between the blood vessels and the surrounding renal medullary interstitium, as stated in question 58.
Lastly, in question 59, the cells or products that match are alpha, beta, and delta cells, which are found in the exocrine pancreas.
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Program: Pregant women dealing with anxiety & depression during growth of fetus
Evaluation methods: Describe your evaluation methods. If qualitatuve, include the tupe (eg, case studies; content analysis; delphi technique;etc.) if quantitative, state whether it is experimental, quasi, or non-ecperimental.
Pregnant women dealing with anxiety and depression during the growth of the fetus Evaluation Methods. The focus group method will allow the evaluators to gain insight into the participants' feelings, attitudes, and experiences.
The following evaluation methods could be used to assess the success of the program that caters to the needs of pregnant women experiencing anxiety and depression during the growth of the fetus.
1. Quasi-Experimental Design: Quantitative research could be conducted using a quasi-experimental design to evaluate the effectiveness of the program. A quasi-experimental design is an observational study that resembles an experimental study because it includes two or more groups of participants who are either exposed or not exposed to an intervention.
The experimental and control groups are identical in every way except that the experimental group is exposed to the intervention while the control group is not exposed to it. The quasi-experimental design would allow the evaluators to make conclusions about the intervention's effectiveness since the groups are compared to determine whether the intervention had an impact.
2. Survey: Research could also be conducted using surveys to assess the effectiveness of the program. Surveys are useful because they can gather large amounts of information from participants in a relatively short period of time. Surveys would be sent to all participants in the program to determine their satisfaction with the program, their understanding of the risks and benefits of taking the program, and their ability to apply what they learned to their daily lives.
3. Focus Group: A focus group discussion could also be used as a qualitative evaluation method. Participants will be invited to participate in a group discussion to share their thoughts on the program. The discussion will be moderated, and the participants will be encouraged to share their thoughts and feelings about the program.
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7.The abnormal gene associated with Burkitt lymphoma is
A. N-MYC
B. C-MYC
C. BCL-2
D. BCL-6
E. BCR-ABL
8. The abnormal gene associated with follicular lymphoma is
A. N-MYC
B. C-MYC
C. BCL-2
D. BCL-6
E. BCR-ABL
9. A Pautrier microabscess occurs in one of the following diseases
A. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
B. follicular lymphoma
C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma
D. small lymphocytic lymphoma
E. mycosis fungoides
10. Which of the following is lymphoma
A.reactive hyperplasia of lymph nodes
B.histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis
C.infectious mononucleosis
D.mycosis fungoides
E.giant lymph node hyperplasia
11. Which is not the pathologic feature of nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma in the following options
A.young women are more common
B.it usually occurs in cervical lymph nodes
C.the neoplastic cells are lacunae cells
D. fibrous tissue divides the lesion into nodules
E.a large number of typical R-S cells
12. Which is not characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma in the following options
A. randomness and uncertainty of the site of the disease
B. lymph nodes are the primary source in about 90% of cases, the disease usually
starts from one or a group of lymph nodes and gradually spreads to nearby lymph nodes
C. tumor cells are a unique type of tumor giant cells, which only account for 1-5% of all cell components in the pathological tissues
D. R-S cells in tumor tissues of different cases or in different pathological stages of the same case are different
E. in the later stages of HL, the bone marrow may be involved in about 10% of cases
13. Follicular lymphoma is derived from
A. naive B cells
B. T cells
C. NK cells
D. germinal center B cells
E. activated B cells outside the germinal center
14. Burkitt lymphoma comes from
A. naive B cells
B. T cells
C. NK cells
D. germinal center B cells
E. activated B cells outside the germinal center
15. Which does not belong to the pathologic features of lymphocyte-rich classical HL in the following options
A. lots of reactive lymphocytes
B. there were few inflammatory cells and no fibrosis
C. popcorn is cellular
D. there are typically few R-S cells
E. a large number of typical R-S cells
7. The abnormal gene associated with Burkitt lymphoma is C-MYC. The answer is (B).
8. The abnormal gene associated with follicular lymphoma is BCL-2.
9. A Pautrier microabscess occurs in one of the following diseases - mycosis fungoides.
10. Mycosis fungoides is lymphoma-mycosis fungoides.
11. Which is not the pathologic feature of nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma in the following options - young women are more common.
12. Which is not characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma in the following options - randomness and uncertainty of the site of the disease.
13. Follicular lymphoma is derived from germinal center B cells.
14. Burkitt lymphoma comes from germinal center B cells.
15. Which does not belong to the pathologic features of lymphocyte-rich classical HL in the following options - a large number of typical R-S cells. The answer to each question with the correct options according to the given terms is provided above.
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When the pitch rises (elevates) the pharyngeal wall moves inward.
True or False
The statement "When the pitch rises (elevates) the pharyngeal wall moves inward" is true.
Pitch is defined as the quality of sound that can be classified as high or low, depending on its frequency of vibration. Pitch has a significant impact on vocal production.The pitch or frequency of the sound is determined by the rate at which the vocal cords vibrate. The pharynx's shape also affects the pitch. The pharyngeal walls, soft palate, and tongue all play a role in the shape of the pharynx.When we increase the pitch, the pharyngeal wall moves inward, creating a narrower space. When we decrease the pitch, the pharyngeal wall moves outward, creating a wider space.Therefore, the given statement is true.
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21-In a casein test, one looks for amino acid
as the by-product. T or false
26- In an MR test, the color of a positive test,
after proper incubation period and
applying the MR stain is:
36- The agar that is used for lipolytic enzymes is
37-The decolorizer is an Acid fast staining is:
38- The test done to find out
carbon usage is:
21) False
In a casein test, the product looked for is amino acid(s) as casein is a protein and when hydrolyzed, it yields amino acids. It does not yield any other byproduct.
22) The color of a positive MR (Methyl red) test is red
Methyl Red is an acid-base indicator dye which turns red when the pH of the medium is below 4.5. The test is considered positive if it stays red after the incubation period.
23) Tributyrin Agar
Tributyrin Agar is used for the detection of lipolytic activity in the bacteria which hydrolyzes tributyrin to produce butyric acid. Lipolytic bacteria have the ability to degrade fats into simpler components like glycerol and fatty acids.
24) Acid-alcohol (3%)
Decolorizer is an essential component of the Acid-fast staining process. It removes the primary stain from cells that are not acid-fast by dissolving and decolorizing the lipid in their cell walls. Acid-alcohol is the commonly used decolorizer.
25) Carbon Utilization Test (CUT)
Carbon utilization tests are used to determine the carbon source that an organism can metabolize. It is used to study the metabolic capabilities of an organism. Some common examples of carbon sources used in these tests are lactose, glucose, citrate, etc.
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Pick a neurologic disease and research signs and symptoms and
current treatment options. 3 recent medical journals within last 5
years). APA formatting. citations and references. 1000 words. Do an
ADP
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a neurologic disease that affects the nerve cells controlling voluntary muscle movement.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the nerve cells responsible for controlling voluntary muscle movement. It is characterized by the degeneration and death of motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness, atrophy, and eventually paralysis. The exact cause of ALS is not yet fully understood, but a combination of genetic and environmental factors is believed to contribute to its development.
The signs and symptoms of ALS vary among individuals but commonly include muscle weakness, muscle twitching (fasciculations), difficulty speaking or swallowing, and muscle cramps. As the disease progresses, individuals may experience difficulties with mobility, breathing, and performing daily activities. Cognitive and behavioral changes, such as frontotemporal dementia, can also occur in some cases.
Currently, there is no cure for ALS, and the available treatments aim to manage symptoms, slow down the progression of the disease, and improve the quality of life for individuals with ALS. The FDA-approved medication riluzole has been shown to modestly extend survival and delay the need for tracheostomy.
Another FDA-approved drug, edaravone, has demonstrated a slowing of functional decline in some studies. These medications, along with multidisciplinary care approaches, including physical and occupational therapy, respiratory support, and nutritional support, form the foundation of ALS management.
Recent research has focused on developing new treatment options for ALS. Several experimental drugs are currently being investigated, targeting different aspects of the disease, such as reducing neuroinflammation, promoting neuroprotection, and enhancing motor neuron survival. Stem cell therapies and gene therapy approaches are also being explored as potential strategies for ALS treatment. However, further research is needed to determine their safety and efficacy.
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Billie lives in Mackay with his partner Aditi. Billie is a mechanic who regularly enjoys fishing with his family and friends. Billie wears glasses. Billie came to Australia from India about 10 years ago and is deeply passionate about his culture, and he sometimes finds it difficult to understand the English language. Billie was admitted to the surgical unit for debridement and closure of a large wound to his right thigh that he sustained after his fishing knife slipped whilst he was filleting fish. He has returned is to the rehabilitation ward and has been lying on his back for some time. He wants to be on his left side and requires you to assist him in changing position in bed. QUESTION 9 Billie has been lying on his back for some time, how would being immobile impact on wound healing? Question 10 We've looked at the Integumentary system regarding Billie's wound, looking at your answer for question 9, what other system assists with with wound healing. What is the name of the body system from previous question, give a brief overview including - structure (what it's made up of); function (what it does) and location (where is it in the body).
Question 9:Billie has been lying on his back for some time.
Being immobile for an extended period of time has a negative effect on wound healing. Immobility results in decreased blood flow to the affected region, reducing the amount of oxygen and nutrients that reach the wound, and as a result, impairing the healing process.
Question 10: Integumentary system and other system that assists with wound healing:
The lymphatic system is another system that helps with wound healing.
The lymphatic system is responsible for immune defense and maintenance of fluid balance in the body. It is a network of tissues and organs that work together to filter lymph and blood. It consists of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, and other lymphatic organs.
The lymphatic system, like the circulatory system, is spread throughout the body.The lymphatic system's primary function is to return tissue fluid to the bloodstream while also protecting the body against infections and diseases. The lymphatic system carries waste, bacteria, and viruses out of the body via lymphatic vessels, removing harmful pathogens from the wound site.
Additionally, the lymphatic system has a role in wound healing, as lymphocytes are recruited to the wound site to assist in the immune response.
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s psoriasis induced by streptococcal superantigens and maintained by m-protein-specific t cells that cross-react with keratin?
Psoriasis induced by streptococcal superantigens and maintained by M-protein-specific T cells that cross-react with keratin is a hypothesis or theory. The etiology of psoriasis is not completely understood, but it is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic, environmental, and immunologic factors.
What is psoriasis?
Psoriasis is a chronic, inflammatory, immune-mediated skin disorder that affects roughly 2-3% of the world's population. It is characterized by erythematous, scaly plaques, which can cause significant morbidity and impair quality of life. Psoriasis has a variety of clinical phenotypes, with the most common being plaque psoriasis.The psoriasis is a multifactorial disease with complex etiology. Genetic, environmental, and immunologic factors are thought to contribute to the pathogenesis of this disorder. Streptococcal superantigens are thought to play a role in the pathogenesis of psoriasis. Superantigens are bacterial toxins that stimulate large numbers of T cells. The cross-reactivity of M-protein-specific T cells with keratin is another proposed mechanism. It is believed that these T cells, which are stimulated by streptococcal superantigens, may cross-react with keratin in the skin, resulting in inflammation and the formation of psoriatic plaques.
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Describe the levels of chromatin packing you'd expect to see in an interphase nucleus.
The levels of chromatin packing that can be seen in an interphase nucleus are heterochromatin and euchromatin.
The chromatin packing in interphase nucleus is essential because it enables access to DNA in the chromosomes. Chromatin's fibers go from being packed and condensed to more dispersed and open during the different stages of the cell cycle, such as interphase. Heterochromatin is the tightly packed chromatin that is found in the nucleus of a cell during the interphase.
Euchromatin, on the other hand, is loosely packed chromatin. It is less condensed than heterochromatin and is associated with transcriptional activity. Euchromatin is located around the edge of the nucleus, whereas heterochromatin is located centrally. Heterochromatin has a role in gene regulation, chromatin structure, nuclear architecture, and genomic stability. Euchromatin, on the other hand, plays a role in the regulation of gene expression. Therefore, it is important to understand the different levels of chromatin packing present in interphase nuclei.
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A client receives dialysis four times a week at a dialysis center. which type of care is provided at a dialysis center?
A dialysis center provides a specialized form of medical care known as hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is a treatment for individuals with kidney failure or end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who are unable to adequately filter waste products and excess fluid from their blood.
At a dialysis center, trained healthcare professionals administer hemodialysis to patients. Hemodialysis involves the use of a machine called a hemodialyzer or dialysis machine that filters the patient's blood outside of their body. During the procedure, the patient's blood is circulated through the machine, where it is cleansed by removing waste products and excess fluids. The purified blood is then returned to the patient's body.
Dialysis centers are equipped with the necessary equipment, including dialysis machines, monitoring devices, and trained staff to provide comprehensive care during the dialysis treatment. The healthcare professionals at the center closely monitor the patient's vital signs and adjust the dialysis parameters as needed to ensure safe and effective treatment.
In addition to the dialysis treatment itself, dialysis centers may also offer additional services such as education on kidney disease management, dietary counseling, and support for patients and their families.
Overall, dialysis centers provide specialized care in the form of hemodialysis, ensuring that patients with kidney failure receive the necessary treatment to maintain their health and manage their condition effectively.
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Describe the following sectional planes: o Frontal/Coronal: o Transverse/Horizontal: o Sagittal: o Midsagittal: List the four abdominal quadrants and include at least two organs located primarily in each of the quadrants. In addition, provide a small, labeled drawing of the quadrants.
Sectional planes are an essential tool in the field of anatomy, and they are critical for understanding the placement of organs and the structure of the body. They are used to divide the body into sections or planes, with each section offering a unique view of the internal organs and structures.
The following are the descriptions of the following sectional planes:
1. Frontal/Coronal plane: The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. This plane is perpendicular to the sagittal plane, and it passes through the body from side to side.
2. Transverse/Horizontal plane: The transverse or horizontal plane divides the body into superior and inferior halves. This plane is perpendicular to the sagittal plane, and it passes through the body horizontally.
3. Sagittal plane: The sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into left and right parts. It passes through the body from front to back.
4. Midsagittal plane: The midsagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into equal left and right halves.
The four abdominal quadrants are as follows:
1. Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ): The right upper quadrant contains the liver, gallbladder, and right kidney.
2. Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ): The left upper quadrant contains the stomach, spleen, and left kidney.
3. Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ): The right lower quadrant contains the appendix, small intestine, and right ovary.
4. Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ): The left lower quadrant contains the large intestine, left ovary, and left fallopian tube. To give you an idea of how the four abdominal quadrants are divided, below is a small labeled drawing of the quadrants.
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Which of the following causes the receptor cells to bend in the semicircular canals: ◯ endolymph pushing the gelatinous cupula ◯ otoliths putting pressure on the gelatinous macula ◯ sound waves distorting the tympanic membrane ◯ fluid in the middle ear putting pressure on the tympanic membrane Otoliths are defined as: ◯ three small bones that amplify air waves within the middle ear ◯ a stiff membrane in the cochlea that receptors vibrate against for hearing ◯ calcium stones that add weight and resistance to changes in gravitational motion ◯ gelatinous cones in the ampulla that bend in response to head rotation
Endolymph pushing the gelatinous cupula causes the receptor cells to bend in the semicircular canals
Otoliths are defined as Calcium stones that add weight and resistance to changes in gravitational motion
What is Otoliths?Otoliths, also known as minute calcified stones, are nestled within the gelatinous macula located in both the utricle and saccule. These calcium-rich stones possess the ability to react to head tilting by exerting their inertial force, causing the macula to be displaced alongside them.
Consequently, this displacement of the macula triggers the activation of hair cells, which transmit signals to the brain, relaying precise information regarding the direction and inclination of the head tilt.
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Endolymph pushing against the cupula, a gelatinous structure embedded with stereocilia, is what causes the receptor cells to bend in the semicircular canals, aiding in detecting rotational movement of the head. Otoliths, or calcium carbonate crystals on the otolithic membrane, respond primarily to gravity and linear motion changes. Sound waves impact hearing by distorting the tympanic membrane, but these do not directly cause bending of receptor cells in semicircular canals.
Explanation:The bending of receptor cells within the semicircular canals is caused by the endolymph pushing against the gelatinous cupula. As the head rotates, fluid within the semicircular canals (endolymph) lags behind due to inertia and this causes deflection of the cupula in the opposite direction. The cupula is a gelatinous structure where the hair cells' stereocilia are embedded. When the cupula deflects, the stereocilia bend, sending signals about the head's movement to the brain.
Otoliths, defined as calcium carbonate crystals, do not play a direct role in the bending of receptor cells in semicircular canals. Instead, they are part of the otolithic membrane in the utricle and saccule of the inner ear. These structures primarily respond to changes in linear motion and head position relative to gravity. The weight of otoliths causes the otolithic membrane to slide over the macula, bending the stereocilia, during head tilts.
In terms of the impact of sound waves and ear fluid on the tympanic membrane, sound waves distort this membrane, setting the ossicles (three small bones in the middle ear) in motion, causing vibration of the cochlea and movement of the fluid within. This process triggers the hearing response, not necessarily contributing directly to the bending of receptor cells in the semicircular canals.
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lifestyle? 9. a. What are the health risk factors associated with a sedentary b. If someone was very sedentary and asked you to design an exercise prescription for him or her, how would you proceed? Be sure to include in your answer the following points: 1. testing for body composition and fitness level 2. general guidelines for exercising 8: a sample "program that they might consider individual becomes more 4. a general idea about progression as the fit (20)
The health risk factors associated with a sedentary lifestyle include developing cardiovascular disease, obesity, and diabetes mellitus. If someone who is very sedentary asks for an exercise prescription, the following steps should be taken:
Step 1: Body composition and fitness level testing before initiating an exercise program, the person must be assessed for their body composition and fitness level. These assessments will help to create a program that is tailored to the individual's needs.
Step 2: General guidelines for exercising based on the individual's body composition and fitness level test results, a general guideline should be given for exercising. This should include the types of exercises that are safe for the individual and the duration, frequency, and intensity of the exercise program.
Step 3: Sample program that they might consider after the assessment, a sample program that the individual might consider should be designed. The exercise program should be tailored to the individual's needs and should start at a level that is comfortable for them.
Step 4: General idea about progression as the individual becomes more fit. The exercise program should be designed to be progressive. As the individual becomes more fit, the program should be modified to increase the duration, frequency, and intensity of the exercises.
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Which of the following is likely to be able to MOST rapidly kill virally infected lung epithelial cells? a. A CTL expressing CTLA-4 b. A naive CTL that has received signal 1 and signal 2 from a DC c. A TH1 cell undergoing clonal expansion d. A tissue resident memory CD8 T cell bearing homing receptors for the lung e. A TH2 cell undergoing clonal expansion
The tissue resident memory CD8 T cell bearing homing receptors for the lung is likely to be able to MOST rapidly kill virally infected lung epithelial cells.CD8 T cells, also known as killer T cells, are an essential part of the adaptive immune response.
They are capable of identifying and destroying cells that are infected with viruses, as well as cancerous cells and cells that have been damaged in other ways.Tissue-resident memory CD8 T cells are a subset of CD8 T cells that reside in various tissues of the body. They are long-lived and highly specialized cells that play a critical role in local immune surveillance and rapid responses to pathogens and other threats in the tissue they inhabit.
Tissue-resident memory CD8 T cells are essential for protecting the body from viral infections. They can rapidly respond to pathogens by killing infected cells, which helps to limit the spread of the infection and prevent it from causing severe damage to the body. Tissue-resident memory CD8 T cells are particularly effective at protecting against viruses that infect the lungs, such as influenza.
Because they reside in the lung tissue, they can rapidly respond to an infection in this area and eliminate virally infected lung epithelial cells before the infection has a chance to spread. Homing receptors are proteins that are expressed on the surface of T cells, which allow them to migrate to specific tissues in the body. Different homing receptors are associated with different tissues, and they allow T cells to home in on specific sites of infection or inflammation.
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All of the following effects are caused by glucocorticoids except:
a. Reduced inflammation.
b. Suppression of the immune system.
c. Increased gluconeogenesis.
d. Increased muscle size and strength.
The answer is: Increased muscle size and strength. Glucocorticoids are a type of corticosteroid hormone that are generated by the adrenal gland in the adrenal cortex.
They are called glucocorticoids because they are concerned with the regulation of glucose metabolism in the body.
The following are the effects of glucocorticoids:
1) Reduced inflammation.Suppression of the immune system.Increased gluconeogenesis.They help to break down protein and fat into glucose. They have an anti-inflammatory effect on the body, which helps to reduce inflammation.
2) The effects of glucocorticoids are the opposite of the effects of anabolic steroids, which increase muscle size and strength.
3) Anabolic steroids, such as testosterone, promote muscle growth and strength.
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Rem 200 of 200 Mark Customized subget for 200. A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of increasingly severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He has no history of major medical nesses hospital admissions, or operations. The patient is in obvious distress. His pulse is 110/min. On examination, his abdomen is slightly tympanitic with high-pitched bowel sounds. There is involuntary guarding on palpation. A CT scan of the abdomen shows congenital nonrotation of the bowel. Which of the following structures would have been the center visit this patient's bowel had rotated normally? A) Celiac artery B) Inferior mesenteric artery C) Median umbilical ligament D) Superior mesenteric artery E) Umbilical vein F) Urachus
d) If the patient's bowel had rotated normally, the structure at the center would have been the Superior mesenteric artery.
In normal embryological development, the bowel undergoes rotation to assume its final position in the abdomen. The Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) plays a crucial role in this rotation. It supplies blood to the midgut, which includes a significant portion of the small intestine and the proximal part of the large intestine.
In the case of congenital nonrotation of the bowel, the bowel fails to rotate properly during development. This can lead to complications such as volvulus, where the bowel twists on itself, causing obstruction and compromised blood supply. The patient's clinical presentation with severe abdominal pain and vomiting is consistent with such a complication.
Knowing the anatomy, it becomes apparent that if the bowel had rotated normally, the SMA would have been at the center. The SMA arises from the abdominal aorta and extends toward the small intestine, providing essential blood supply for proper intestinal function. In this patient, the abnormal rotation of the bowel has likely led to the development of his symptoms and the need for medical attention.
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Please answer using complete sentences
The cell membrane image below contains:
The purple tube is called the phospholipid bilayerThe blue round circles are called proteinsThe wavy strings in the middle are called cholesterol.The whole image shows a cell membrane. What are the functions?Phospholipid bilayer is the main structure of the cell membrane and is made up of two layers of phospholipids. The phospholipids are arranged so that their hydrophobic (water-hating) tails are facing each other and their hydrophilic (water-loving) heads are facing out. This arrangement creates a barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside environment.
Proteins are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer and perform a variety of functions, including transporting molecules into and out of the cell, signaling to other cells, and providing structural support.
Cholesterol is a lipid that is also embedded in the phospholipid bilayer. Cholesterol helps to keep the phospholipid bilayer fluid and prevents it from becoming too rigid.
The cell membrane is a thin, flexible barrier that surrounds all cells. It protects the cell from its surroundings and controls what enters and leaves the cell.
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yelshanskaya, m., sobolevsky, a.i. structural insights into function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. submitted.
Yelshanskaya and Sobolevsky conducted a research study on the ionotropic glutamate receptors in order to gain structural insights into their function.
The study conducted by Yelshanskaya and Sobolevsky was aimed at gaining structural insights into the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. The researchers utilized X-ray crystallography and cryo-electron microscopy to determine the structure of these receptors. The study found that the ionotropic glutamate receptors are heterotetramers, consisting of four subunits that form a ligand-gated ion channel.
The subunits were found to be composed of three distinct domains: the extracellular domain, the transmembrane domain, and the intracellular domain. The extracellular domain was responsible for the binding of glutamate, while the transmembrane domain formed the ion channel. The intracellular domain played a role in the activation and regulation of the receptor. These structural insights provided a better understanding of the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors and may have implications for the development of new drugs for neurological disorders.
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Complete question is:
Yelshanskaya, m., Sobolevsky, a.i. structural insights into the function of ionotropic glutamate receptors. submitted.
