For sensitive data transmission, the investigator should include a (b) disclosure process stating that every attempt will be made to protect information but cannot be guaranteed.
Sensitive data transmission can be described as a phenomenon in which crucial sensitive information needs to be shared as a part of data transmission.
When considering sensitive data transmission, one cannot take the authority that all of the information can be protected even though all possible attempts are made. This is because the information is being transmitted through sources that can get attacked. Hence, such sensitive data transmission has a disclosure process that states that information will be protected but cannot be guaranteed.
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When we talk about mental illness and symptoms of abnormal behavior, we are using terminology associated with which perspective?
While talking about mental illness and symptoms of abnormal behavior, we are use terminology associated with Medical perspective.
Which of the following best describes the major viewpoints on psychological disorders?In psychology, there are five main points of view: biological, psychodynamic, behavioral, cognitive, and humanistic.
According to the cognitive perspective, people act abnormally as a result of certain beliefs and actions that are frequently founded on their incorrect assumptions. The goal of treatments is to assist the maladjusted person in forming fresh perspectives and new moral principles. According to classical conditioning, depressive behavior can be learned by linking specific cues to unpleasant emotional states. According to the social learning hypothesis, people learn new behaviors through imitation, observation, and reinforcement.
In psychology, the cognitive perspective focuses on how the interplay between thinking, emotion, creativity, and problem-solving skills influence how and why one thinks the way he/she does.
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What are the two types of life insurance assignments?
Assignments are classified into two types: Assignment on condition: This is done when the insured intends to transfer insurance benefits to a relative in the event of premature death or specified circumstances.
Once the criteria are met, the policyholder's rights are restored. There are two types of life insurance: term and permanent.
Term life insurance covers you for a fixed period of time (typically 10 to 30 years), making it a less expensive alternative, whereas permanent life insurance covers you for your whole life.
Traditional insurance policy assignments are classified into two types:
An absolute assignment normally transfers all of your interests, rights, and ownership in the insurance to the assignee.A collateral assignment is a less comprehensive sort of transfer.Learn more about to Insurance assignments visit here;
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Short bursts of lifting very heavy weights with low repetitions can be
referred to as this type of exercise.
Answer:
Muscular strength exercise
Explanation:
It is for strength, and not endurance, because it is not for a long period of time but in "short bursts"
attached adults have positive views of relationships and find it easy to get close to others.
Adults who are securely attached have a positive outlook on relationships, have an easy time connecting with others, and are not unduly preoccupied or stressed out by their love connections.
Which adult attachment type views relationships favorably?
People with secure attachment often feel comfortable, stable, and more fulfilled in their personal relationships because they are empathic and capable of setting reasonable limits. They are not afraid of being alone, but they typically flourish in close, meaningful partnerships.
There are four types of adult attachment:
Anxious (sometimes referred to as Preoccupied) (also referred to as Preoccupied) Avoidant (sometimes referred to as Dismissive) (also referred to as Dismissive) Disorganized (sometimes referred to as Fearful-Avoidant) (also referred to as Fearful-Avoidant) Secure.
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the synthesis of cholesterol is a process that involves over 30 different steps. which step is the rate-determining step of cholesterol synthesis?
The rate-determining stage in cholesterol production is the conversion of HMG-CoA by HMG-CoA reductase to mevalonate.
Compounds that are successful at lowering serum cholesterol levels target the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase (HMGR).
What is cholesterol synthesis?
Beginning with acetyl-CoA, which is mostly produced from an oxidation event in the mitochondria, the biosynthesis of cholesterol typically occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatic cells. Acetyl-CoA synthetase can also produce acetyl-CoA via the cytoplasmic oxidation of ethanol.
In a multistep, intricate process, 3-hydroxy-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA-R) mediates the rate-limiting stage that catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonic acid, which is how cholesterol produced from acetyl-CoA.
In both healthy tissues and tumors, both the concentration of cholesterol and the rate of cholesterol biosynthesis are higher. Inhibiting cholesterol biosynthesis prevents cell development, suggesting a connection between cholesterol and DNA synthetic pathways. Cholesterol biosynthesis occurs far earlier than DNA synthesis.
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what conclusion should the nurse draw when a client's digoxin level is reported to be 2.2 ng/ml?
When a client's digoxin level is reported to be 2.2 ng/ml, the nurse should draw the conclusion that digitalis toxicity is a possibility.
Digitalis toxicity (DT) occurs when an individual takes too much digitalis (also referred to as digoxin), a medication used for the treatment of heart conditions. Signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity include vomiting, nausea, and an irregular heartbeat. When the digoxin level of a patient is reported to reach a certain limit that is 2.2 ng/ml, it is concluded that there is a possibility of digitalis toxicity. In order to prevent digitalis toxicity, it is important to monitor the intake of digitalis to make sure that it is not being taken too much of that medication.
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a client is scheduled for amniocentesis. when preparing her for the procedure, the nurse should:
While preparing the client for the procedure the nurse should " 1. Ask the client to void. 4. Assess fetal heart rate. 6. Monitor maternal vital signs. "
In the field of health and medicine, amniocentesis can be described as a test that is done in order to check for any genetic disorder that might occur in the fetus when it has developed to a certain stage.
Before the procedure of amniocentesis is done, the client should be checked whether he and the baby are fit enough for the procedure. The vital signs of the mother shall be monitored and noted. The heart rate of the fetus shall be noted and also the nurse should tell the client to void.
If any of these are not checked, then there can be a mishap during the time of amniocentesis.
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Insufficient intake of vitamins and minerals can result in a variety of deficiency diseases. Match each micronutrient with its deficiency symptoms Weakness, slow wound healing, bone pain, bleeding gums and pinpoint hemorrhages on the Initial symptoms include poor appetite weakness, and weight loss: advanced symptoms include dementia, diarrhea, and dermatitis Weakness and loss of appetite, nervous tingling throughout the body. poor coordination, and severe doma Inflammation of the mouth and tongue inflamed skin, and cracking of the tissue at the corners of the mouth Anemia characterized by many large red blood cells in the bloodstream despite adequate folate intake can lead to norve degeneration panalysis, and death Niacin Thiamin Riboflavin Initial symptoms include poor appetite weakness, and weight loss; advanced symptoms include dementia, diarrhea, and dermatitis Inflammation of the mouth and tongue, inflamed skin, and cracking of the tissue at the corners of the mouth Weakness, slow wound healing, bone pain, bleeding gums, and pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin Vitamin C Vitamin B-12 Weakness and loss of appetite, nervous tingling throughout the body, poor coordination, and severe edema Anemia characterized by many large rod blood cells in the bloodstream despite adequate folate intake can lead to nerve degeneration paralysis, and death
When you have anemia, your body doesn't produce enough healthy red blood cells to supply your tissues with enough oxygen.
What is anemia?When you have anemia, your body doesn't produce enough healthy red blood cells to supply your tissues with enough oxygen. Being anemic, or having low hemoglobin, can make you feel exhausted and frail.
Anemia can have many different forms, each with a unique etiology. Anemia can be mild to severe and can be short-term or long-term. Anemia typically has multiple causes. If you believe you may have anemia, consult a physician. It might be an indicator of a serious illness.
Depending on the underlying cause of anemia, treatments might range from taking supplements to receiving medical attention. Eating a healthy, varied diet may help you avoid some types of anemia.
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Which of the following is strong evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior?
a. Dizygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do monozygotic twins.
b. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins.
c. Adopted children resemble their adopted families with regard to a trait.
d. None of the above are correct.
b. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins, is evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior.
The study of genes, genetic diversity, and heredity in living things is known as genetics. It is a crucial area of biology because heredity plays a key role in how organisms evolve. The first person to conduct a scientific study of genetics was Moravian Augustinian friar Gregor Mendel, who lived and worked in Brno in the 19th century. Mendel investigated the patterns of "trait inheritance," or the transmission of traits over generations from parents to children. He noted that distinct "units of inheritance" are how features are passed down via organisms (pea plants). This phrase, which is still in use today, gives a vague explanation of what is meant by the term "gene."
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there should be at least 3g of dietary fiber for every 100 calories per serving.
True, there should be at least 3g of dietary fiber for every 100 calories per serving.
Dietary fiber or roughage is the percentage of plant-derived food that cannot be entirely broken down by human digestive enzymes. The solubility, viscosity, and fermentability of dietary fibers can be used to categorize them in general terms and determine how they are metabolized by the body.
It helps to maintain gut healthy and help in regular excreta passage through gut. Fiber is usually inert is highly present in plant product specially leaves, tubers and stem. It is also known to be helpful in improving microbiota of the gut. Thus, helping in better absorption of nutrients.
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A nurse is assessing the newborn of a client who took a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of withdrawal from an SSRI?
Expected clinical manifestation associated with fetal exposure to SSRIs include irritability, agitation, tremors, diarrhea, and vomiting. These manifestations typically last 2 days.
Tachypnea
Hypoglycemia
Low birth weight
The nurse identify vomiting as an indication of withdrawal from an selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).
What are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) drugs?
These are a type of antidepressants by increasing levels of serotonin in the brain. Serotonin is the chemical messenger that carry signals between brain nerve cells. SSRIs block the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into neurons.
The food and drug Administration (FDA) has approved SSRIs to treat:
Citalopram (Celexa)Escitalopram (Lexapro)Fluoxetine (Prozac)Paroxetine (Paxil)Sertraline (Zoloft)Symptoms of the rejection of SSRI drugs:
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Which statement should the nurse convey to the mother of a 3-year-old son who has not achieved urinary continence?
Boys may take longer for daytime continence than girls.
Children in North American cultures usually achieve daytime urinary continence by 3 years of age; boys may take longer than girls.
Nighttime continence may not occur until 4 or 5 years of age.
Urinary incontinence may be a temporary condition that results from an underlying medical condition.
Why does incontinence occur?The nurse should inform the mother of a 3-year-old boy who has not gained urine continence that boys sometimes take longer to attain daytime urinary continence.Numerous conditions, such as urinary tract infections, vaginal infections or irritations, or constipation, can cause incontinence. Some medications have the potential to cause momentary bladder control issues. Weak pelvic floor muscles or a weak bladder may be to blame for incontinence that lasts longer.Patients frequently mention triggers for urge incontinence, such as chilly temperatures, running water, or inserting a key into a lock. A urodynamic diagnosis of leakage accompanied by uncontrollable detrusor muscle spasms is called detrusor overactivity incontinence.Over a five-year period, approximately 1 in 10 men over the age of 70 and almost one in three men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention is much less common in women. Each year, about 3 in 100,000 women develop acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention in children is rare.To know more about urinary continence visit:-
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what is the preliminary treatment in a municipal wastewater treatment plant? preliminary treatment includes wastewater screening and . there is change in wastewater quality after the treatment.
Preliminary wastewater treatment might not take center stage during the treatment process, but it would be impossible to properly treat water without these initial procedures.
What is preliminary treatment?Why do facilities bother with preliminary treatment at all when primary, secondary, and tertiary wastewater treatment processes are primary, secondary, and complete! Why is preliminary treatment required in the first place if all impurities and debris will be removed during the main treatment phases!
We must change our attention in order to comprehend preliminary wastewater treatment. Preliminary treatment is not mainly about safeguarding public health and ecosystems — this is what the major phases are designed for. Instead, this initial stage is meant to safeguard the infrastructure and machinery used for water treatment, extending their useful lives and assuring their continued viability.
Tanks, filters, and other essential machinery are found in sewage treatment plants.
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Ryan has a condition called achalasia, where the muscles in his esophagus refuse to relax and allow food to enter his stomach. Ryan has seen specialists for this issue but his last treatment involving a laparoscopic myotomy did not fix it. In fact, Ryan has seen a substantial increase in the amount of acid reflux he has since the procedure. He hears about an experimental new treatment called POEM that is being tried in a hospital across the country. Ryan sends a letter to the surgeons on staff, asking that he be considered for this treatment. In this situation, what healthcare role is the hospital experimenting with POEM filling?
ANSWERS
1. primary care
2 secondary care
3 tertiary care
4 quaternary care
The healthcare that hospital takes by experimenting poem filling is quaternary care.
What is quaternary care?Quaternary care is a more specialized version of tertiary care. Examples include experimental medicine and procedures, as well as extremely rare, specialized surgeries.When you consult with your primary care provider, you are in primary care. When you see a specialist, such as an oncologist or endocrinologist, you are receiving secondary care. Tertiary care refers to hospital-based specialized care such as dialysis or heart surgery. Quaternary care is a highly specialized level of care.Tertiary care is for extremely specialized care that is provided over a short or long period of time and involves complex and advanced equipment, treatment, or procedures, often for severe or life-threatening conditions.Tertiary and quaternary healthcare refers to specialized care that is only available through referral centers and is rarely available to the general public.
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You discover that your friend has been experimenting with drugs and you notice that their behavior is increasingly aggressive. It's best not to do anything because it's probably just a phase that will disappear soon.
Answer:
Wrong
Explanation:
Talk to your friend, get medical help if they start to harm themselves an or others.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Took the test and got 100%
which is not a feature of a multifactorial trait?
Multifactorial characteristics may not must be 100% concordant among twin pairs, especially those raised apart, as they may be modified by the environment, and since many genes play a part in their control.
How are character characteristics related to health?Your personality directs your actions and habits, both of which have a significant impact on your general health. Your personality qualities have an early impact on how they deal with difficult, when active we are, how frequently you socialize, and when you visit the doctor.
What kind of qualities are examples of?Psychological attributes include traits like honesty, loyalty, charity, and impatience. These are only a few of the numerous character qualities that might aid in your understanding of yourself or those around you.
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Hello, I need help with an I-human case for Ken Fowler
Name: Ken Fowler
Age: 70 years
Sex: M
Ht: 5'10" (178.0 cm)
Wgt: 190 lb (86.0 kg) (BMI 27.3)
T = 99F (oral)
Pulse: 98 bpm
BP 108/60 mmHg - supine / sitting
BP: 94/46 mmHg - upon standing
RR: 18 bpm
SpO2: 98% on rm air
CC is Nausea & Fatigue
Patient states:
"I went to see my doctor this morning because I have been feeling bad for the past few days. I'm tired, with nausea & vomiting. Well, he examined me and ordered some labs, and then told me that "kidneys are failing," something about a big change in my creatinine and that I needed to come to the emergency department. He told me to bring the test results here with me. [Test results today: creatinine 3.2 mg/dL; 1 month ago Test results 1.1 mg/dL; urine protein = 400 mg microalbuminuria] Do you understand what all that means? I sure don't!"
Do you know any possible differential diagnosis as well as primary. And treatment plan
The possible differential diagnosis as well as primary. And treatment plan Serum creatinine of 2,6mg/dL.
What is the symptoms of patients?The patients states that "I went to see my doctor this morning because I have been feeling bad for the past few days. I'm tired, with nausea & vomiting. Well, he examined me and ordered some labs, and then told me that "kidneys are failing,".
He told me to bring the test results here with me. [Test results today: creatinine 3.2 mg/dL; 1 month ago Test results 1.1 mg/dL; urine protein = 400 mg microalbuminuria]
Therefore, The possible differential diagnosis as well as primary. And treatment plan Serum creatinine of 2,6mg/dL.
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Medical research has found that HIV/AIDS develops at about the same
rate for all affected people. true or false?
Answer:
the answer is false
Explanation:
A client is admitted for suspected meningitis. What priority interventions will be most important for the nurse to initiate
A nurse is caring for a client who has had a below the knee amputation of his right leg due to traumatic injury. Discuss some potential postoperative complication that can develop and the nursing intervention to address this complication.
A client is prescribed timolol for the treatment of glaucoma. The client ask the nurse, "why was I asked about my cardiac history for eye drops?" How should the nurse respond?
A nurse is caring for the client following a hypophysectomy, what postoperative nursing actions should be taken for this client?
A nurse is caring for a client following a bone marrow biopsy. What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Answers to all the questions are mentioned below:
Assessing neurologic status at least every 2 to 4 hours.
Rewrap the stump 3 times a day.
The nurse should politely reply to the client as timolol will decrease blood pressure in the patients thus it was necessary to ask about the client's cardiac history.
Tell the client to report any excessive bleeding or infection to the provider. Teach him/her to check the site daily and to keep the dressing clean, dry, and intact. If sutures are in place, return to have them removed in 7-10 days.
The precise monitoring and documentation of the neurologic status, vital signs, and vascular assessment of meningitis patients is the most crucial nursing intervention. Vital signs and the client's neurologic condition should be checked at least every four hours, or more frequently if clinically necessary. The focus of treatment is to keep an eye out for any early neurologic alterations, including a loss of consciousness, that might point to an increase in intracranial pressure. For the client with meningitis, reducing environmental stimulation is beneficial but not the top concern. Although pain control is needed for severe headaches caused by meningitis, it is only the second most important treatment. The greatest priority is not to evaluate fluid balance while guarding against overload.
Timolol, a beta-blocker, also reduces intraocular pressure. Timolol ophthalmic, an eye medicine, is used to treat open-angle glaucoma and other disorders that cause excessive pressure inside the eye.
Determine the essential signs and conduct the focused assessments. Analyze your neurological condition and pain level every hour. Keep an eye out for postnasal drip, which could mean CSF is leaking. Check any discharge for glucose and the Halo sign. Keep an eye on fluid balance and electrolyte levels. Keep an eye on kidney health. Maintain adequate hand hygiene during the treatment. Encourage the patient to avoid coughing and give them the suggested amount of stool softener.
The complete question is:
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Rewrap the stump 3 times a day.
B. Anchor the elastic bandage to the distal site of the amputation.
C. Elevate the stump on 2 pillows for the first 3 days following the amputation.
D. Wrap the stump in a consecutive circular direction.
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A credible source can be defined as _____________________________.
options:
A source that is unbiased.
A source that is backed up with evidence.
A source that is not peer-reviewed.
Both A and B
Both B and C
A credible source is free from bias and backed up with evidence. A trustworthy author or organization writes it. Thus both A and B are correct.
A credible source is factual, unbiased, and supported by evidence. It was written by a respectable individual or group. of the of and of the part of the and has. and of. and a part of and part of Analyzing the credibility of sources is a crucial information literacy skill. It guarantees that you assemble reliable evidence to support the justifications you offer and the conclusions you reach. The sources can be categorized into three groups: primary sources, secondary sources, and tertiary sources. There are a wide variety of sources. Because they provide you with genuine evidence of the subject you are investigating, primary sources are often regarded as the most trustworthy evidence for your argument. However, it is your responsibility to ensure that the data they offer is correct and dependable. The three sorts will probably be combined throughout your investigation.
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Which of the following is a common malfunction in water baths? Responses Loose coils Loose coils Growth of microbes Growth of microbes Machine rotor failure Machine rotor failure Cracks in the gas tube
The most common fault with the water bath is that of the loose coils in the water bath. Option A
What is a water bath?In the laboratory, there is often a need to be able to heat a sample that is going to be used for an analysis. Sometimes, the heating of the sample would be regarded as part of the test or the experiment that is going on.
At any time that we want to heat a sample we would need to rely on a water bath to be able to do the heating. When we heat, there is always a coil that has the function of carrying out the process of the heating and when the col is bad, the process of the heating is not able to take place in the water bath.
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Question 24 (4 points) systems focus on reasoning to an appropriate action. a. virtue ethics b.
consequence-oriented c. duty-oriented d. deontological
Option D. Deontological systems focus on following the rules, even if the result is an undesirable outcome. This means reasoning to an appropriate action is based on the idea of what is moral and what is not, rather than what will bring about the most desirable result.
Systems focus on reasoning to an appropriate action Option D. DeontologicalThis type of system is based on a moral code that is followed, regardless of the outcome. The main principle is to do what is right, regardless of the consequences. The moral code dictates what is right and wrong, and the decision maker is expected to uphold it and make decisions based on it.
This system relies on the idea that an action should be chosen based on its morality, rather than the result it will bring. This is in stark contrast to consequentialism systems, which focus on maximizing benefits and minimizing harms. Deontological systems focus on following the rules, even if the result is an undesirable outcome, and are based on the idea of what is moral and what is not.
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The lower the client's viral load,
the longer the survival time.
As viral loads go down, their chances of getting better go up. These symptoms may get worse if you have an underlying condition, especially one that weakens your immune system.
What is the importance of the viral set point and how does it affect our care?The higher the viral load at the set point, the faster the virus will progress to AIDS; the lower the viral load at the set point, the longer the patient will remain in clinical latency, the next stage of the infection.Regardless of CD4 cell count, the decision to initiate ART should always include consideration of any co-morbid conditions, the willingness and readiness of the patient to initiate therapy, and the availability of resources.The first and most reliable sign of compartment syndrome. Pain out of proportion to injury, extreme pain on passive movement and pain unrelieved with opioid analgesia. Paralysis: Is generally a late sign of compartment syndrome and results from prolonged nerve compression or muscle damage.Almost everyone who starts taking their HIV medication daily as prescribed, viral load will drop to an undetectable level in six months or less. Continuing to take HIV medications as directed is imperative to stay undetectable.To learn more about viral load refer to:
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What BEST describes the focus of a fitness group?
A.
their ability
B.
their strength training
C.
their relationships
D.
winning
Answer: I'm pretty sure it's A
Explanation: In a fitness class you get stronger, faster and slimmer among many other things, and all that increases your ability to do things
What is an example of a physical hazard?
a. An employee who came to work sick
b. An unlabeled bottle of sanitizer in the
utility closet
c. A toothpick that got pushed so far inside a sandwich it's no longer visible
Answer:
b. An unlabeled bottle of sanitizer in the utility closet
Explanation:
Examples of physical hazards are toxins, poisonous gases, etc. A toothpick in a sandwich is a problem, but not severe enough to be considered a hazard as you can strip apart the sandwich and eat parts of it with no harm.
However, if you use an unlabeled bottle of sanitizer, you can get affected by it as it may have harmful chemicals in it. A single drop of it can be lethal.
what does it take to get abs in 2 days
Answer:
exercises the whole 2 days non stop
Answer: gym
Explanation:
gym and chad energy
Which of the following diseases are more common in tobacco users or those exposed to tobacco smoke? Responses lung cancer lung cancer asthma asthma ear infections ear infections all choices are correct all choices are correct heart disease heart disease stroke ("brain attack") stroke ("brain attack") bladder cancer bladder cancer emphysema (destruction of lung tissue) emphysema (destruction of lung tissue) bronchitis (infection of the airways) bronchitis (infection of the airways) laryngeal (throat) cancer laryngeal (throat) cancer mouth cancer mouth cancer dental (tooth) decay
Answer:
Check explanation
Explanation:
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
Lung Cancer
Heart Disease
Stroke
Asthma
Reproductive Effects in Women
Premature, Low Birth-Weight Babies
Diabetes
Blindness, Cataracts and Age-Related Macular Degeneration
Over 10 Other Types of Cancer, Including Colon, Cervix, Liver, Stomach and Pancreatic Cancer
Answer:
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
Lung Cancer
Heart Disease
Stroke
Asthma
Reproductive Effects in Women
Premature, Low Birth-Weight Babies
Diabetes
Blindness, Cataracts and Age-Related Macular Degeneration
Over 10 Other Types of Cancer, Including Colon, Cervix, Liver, Stomach and Pancreatic Cancer
people who are overly neat, may have had difficulty in the __________ stage of development
Psychoanalytic theory predicts that adults who are too regimented, overly tidy, and never messy are more prone to be focused on this stage.
Explain about the adults?A mature, fully formed individual is an adult. The age at which a person is held accountable for their conduct by the law is called adulthood. He had become an adult because he had become a father.
Adulthood brings you a new world of possibilities, which can be daunting if one is unsure of where they want to go. There are instances when young individuals are unsure of their particular professional goals, housing preferences, or independent strategies.
Depending on a person's culture, there may be a difference in when they pass from childhood to adulthood. The legal definition often ranges from 16 to 21 years.
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Please help will mark brainiest!!!
Which essential nutrient is often thought of as being bad because we often consume too much of it?
A. proteins
B. fats
C. carbohydrates
Answer: B. fats
Explanation:
Fats are a macronutrient that play an important role in our bodies, providing energy, insulation, and helping to absorb and transport certain nutrients. However, it is possible to consume too much of certain types of fats, which can contribute to weight gain and other health problems.
There are three main types of fats: saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated. Saturated fats and trans fats, which are found in foods such as fried foods, processed snacks, and baked goods, can raise LDL (bad) cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats, such as those found in nuts, seeds, and fatty fish, are generally considered to be healthier options.
The American Heart Association recommends that adults consume no more than 25-35% of their daily calories from fat. It is important to choose fats wisely and aim to consume more healthy fats, such as those found in nuts, seeds, and fatty fish, and limit intake of saturated and trans fats. This can help to maintain a healthy weight and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.
What is affordable housing association of Nova Scotia vision?(what do they hope to achieve)
Answer:
AHANS | Affordable Housing Association Nova Scotia. A community-based program aimed at preventing and reducing homelessness across Canada. Supporting the most vulnerable in maintaining safe, stable and affordable housing, and to reduce chronic homelessness nationally by 50% by fiscal year 2028.
Explanation: