ʙʀᴀɪɴʟɪᴇsᴛ!
Solve for h:
h/4 = -7

The closest answer is 80 cupcakes per minute, so the correct option is .8. The closest answer is 165 minutes, so the correct option is 165.

The throughput capacity of the icing stage can be calculated by dividing the number of cupcakes in a batch (100) by the time required to process each cupcake (1.25 minutes).

Throughput capacity = Number of cupcakes in a batch / Time to process each cupcake

Throughput capacity = 100 cupcakes / 1.25 minutes

Throughput capacity = 80 cupcakes per minute

The closest answer is 80 cupcakes per minute, so the correct option is .8.

The throughput time for a batch of cupcakes is the time required to process the entire batch, including the setup time.

Throughput time = Time for setup + (Number of cupcakes in a batch * Time to process each cupcake)

Throughput time = 40 minutes + (100 cupcakes * 1.25 minutes per cupcake)

Throughput time = 40 minutes + 125 minutes

Throughput time = 165 minutes

The closest answer is 165 minutes, so the correct option is 165.

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To find the component form of the velocity of the airplane, we need to break down the velocity vector into its horizontal (x) and vertical (y) components.

Given that the airplane is flying 25 degrees west of north at 800 km/h, we can determine the horizontal and vertical components using trigonometry.

The vertical component (Vy) represents the velocity in the north direction, and the horizontal component (Vx) represents the velocity in the east direction.

To calculate Vy, we use the sine function:

Vy = V * sin(θ)

Vy = 800 * sin(25°)

To calculate Vx, we use the cosine function:

Vx = V * cos(θ)

Vx = 800 * cos(25°)

Therefore, the component form of the velocity vector is:

Velocity = (Vx, Vy) = (800 * cos(25°), 800 * sin(25°))

Calculating the values:

Vx ≈ 722.6 km/h

Vy ≈ 342.0 km/h

Hence, the component form of the velocity vector is approximately (722.6 km/h, 342.0 km/h).

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Answer:

2135

Step-by-step explanation:

610 divided by to is 305 so the half of the hours the plane flys 305 miles.

610 times three equals 1830.

1830 plus 305 equals

Answer:

2135 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

ok so the plane is going at a speed of 610 mph

1 hour = 610 miles

this is a whole break down of what goes on in my head

610 x 3.5 = ?

600 x 3 = 1800

600 x .5 = 300

10 x 3 = 30

10 x .5 = 5

1800 + 300 + 30 + 5 = 2135

the plane will fly 2135 miles in 3.5 hours

The statement "1,024 is the smallest 4-digit number that is a perfect square" is statement.

Yes, the given sentence "1,024 is the smallest 4-digit number that is a perfect square" is a statement. A statement is a sentence that conveys some information, idea, or proposition. It can either be true or false and is usually based on facts or opinions.

In this case, the statement is true as 1024 is the smallest four-digit number that is a perfect square. A perfect square is a number that is obtained by multiplying a number by itself. 1024 is a perfect square since it is equal to 32 * 32 (or 2^10).

The given statement, therefore, is a true statement since it conveys a factual and accurate piece of information.

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Answer: true

Step-by-step explanation:

The rearranged equation for V is V = 25 / (14.475 + 2.625g). This expression represents the value of V in terms of the given equation and the variable g.

To rearrange the equation (0.75V * 19.3) + (0.25V * 10.5) * g = 25 for V, we can start by expanding and simplifying the terms on the left side of the equation. The equation becomes (14.475V) + (2.625V * g) = 25.

Next, we can combine like terms by adding the coefficients of V. This gives us (14.475 + 2.625g)V = 25.

To isolate V, we divide both sides of the equation by the coefficient (14.475 + 2.625g). This results in V = 25 / (14.475 + 2.625g).

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Answer:

To solve this one, simply use the equation (600/2.5)=(x/1)

then solve for x. that will give you the speed in kilometers per hour

Answer:

240 mph

Step-by-step explanation:

a.  MUx = ∂u/∂x1 = 1 - x1

And MUy = ∂u/∂x2 = 1 - x2

b. This suggests that Elena's utility function does not satisfy monotonicity or strict monotonicity.

c. MRSx,y = MUx / MUy = (1 - x1) / (1 - x2)

d. We also have the budget constraint:

Px * x1 + Py * x2 = I

4x1 + 10x2 = 1200

(a) To find the marginal utilities (MUx and MUy), we need to differentiate the utility function with respect to each variable.

Given:

u(x1​,x2​) = (x1​−21​x12​)+(x2​−21​x22​)

Differentiating with respect to x1:

∂u/∂x1 = 1 - 2x1/2 = 1 - x1

Differentiating with respect to x2:

∂u/∂x2 = 1 - 2x2/2 = 1 - x2

So, MUx = ∂u/∂x1 = 1 - x1

And MUy = ∂u/∂x2 = 1 - x2

(b) Monotonicity requires that if x increases, then utility should increase as well. Strict monotonicity requires that utility strictly increases as x increases.

In this case, since MUx = 1 - x1 and MUy = 1 - x2, we can see that both marginal utilities decrease as their respective goods' quantities increase. This suggests that Elena's utility function does not satisfy monotonicity or strict monotonicity.

(c) The Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) between two goods, x and y, is given by the ratio of their marginal utilities:

MRSx,y = MUx / MUy = (1 - x1) / (1 - x2)

(d) To find the equilibrium quantities for goods x and y, we need to set the MRS equal to the price ratio Px / Py and solve for x1 and x2.

MRSx,y = (1 - x1) / (1 - x2) = Px / Py = 4 / 10 = 2 / 5

Now we can solve for x1 and x2. Rearranging the equation:

(1 - x1) / (1 - x2) = 2 / 5

Cross-multiplying:

5(1 - x1) = 2(1 - x2)

Expanding:

5 - 5x1 = 2 - 2x2

Rearranging terms:

5x1 - 2x2 = 3

We also have the budget constraint:

Px * x1 + Py * x2 = I

4x1 + 10x2 = 1200

Now we have a system of two equations with two variables. Solving this system will give us the equilibrium quantities for goods x and y.

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Answer:

1. 24

2. [tex]10+2n[/tex] where n denotes number of days.

3. 70

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

Consider the sequence: [tex]12,14,16,18,...[/tex]

Here,

[tex]14-12=2\\16-14=2\\18-16=2[/tex]

Take the common difference as d = 2 and the first term as a = 12

Use the formula: [tex]a_n=a+(n-1)d[/tex]

To find expected gain at the end of the week, find [tex]a_7[/tex]

[tex]a_7=12+(7-1)2\\=12+6(2)\\=12+12\\=24[/tex]

2.

Yes, the gain shows the pattern.

Put [tex]a=12,d=2[/tex] in [tex]a_n=a+(n-1)d[/tex]

[tex]a_n=12+(n-1)2\\=12+2n-2\\=10+2n[/tex]

Here, n denotes number of days.

3.

To find expected gain at the end of 30  days, put [tex]n=30[/tex] in [tex]a_n=10+2n[/tex]

[tex]a_{30}=10+2(30)\\ =10+60\\=70[/tex]

Answer:

2 2/3 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

so you take 2/3 and times it by 4/1

you now have 8/3

then you simply and come up with 2 2/3

the answer also just might be 2 depends on what they want, the full mile or the partial also.

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

                                       [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Your\;Answer\;is\;1.\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]Explanation[/tex] \/

Find the prime factorization of 6

[tex]6=2*3[/tex]

Find the prime factorization of 35

[tex]35 = 5 * 7[/tex]

To find the GCF, multiply all the prime factors common to both numbers:

Therefore, [tex]GCF = 1[/tex]

1 is the largest positive integer that divides both 6 and 35 without leaving a remainder.

The greatest common factor (GCF), also known as the greatest common divisor (GCD), of two numbers is the largest positive integer that divides both of the numbers without leaving a remainder.

Step 1: Prime factorization of 6

The prime factors of 6 are 2 and 3.

So, 6 = 2 * 3.

Step 2: Prime factorization of 35

The prime factors of 35 are 5 and 7.

So, 35 = 5 * 7.

Step 3: Determine the common prime factors

The common prime factors of 6 and 35 are 1.

Step 4: Multiply the common prime factors

Multiplying the common prime factors gives us 1.

Therefore, the GCF of 6 and 35 is 1.

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Answer:

Given that 5 pounds of rice at a store cost $6.50.

Then 1 pounds of rice at a store cost = $6.50/5= $1.3

So the equation for the cost can be written as:

C=1.3P just like we write equation y=mx

Now we have to graph the cost C, vs pounds of rice.

Variable for Pounds of rice is not given so let it be "P"

So let's make a table for number of pounds (P) and cost (C) the we can graph the points from that table to get the final graph.

Attached graph is the final graph.

Answer:

root 10, 3 root 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the length of the shorter side be x

Hence,

the length of the longer side= 3x

Length of the diagonal= 10 cm

We know that the sides of the triangle intersect at right angles...

Hence,

By using the pythagoreas property...

[tex] {x}^{2} + {(3x)}^{2} = {10}^{2} \\ {x}^{2} + 9 {x}^{2} = 100 \\ 10 {x}^{2} = 100 \\ {x}^{2} = 10 \\ x = \sqrt{10} [/tex]

Hence,

length of the shorter side=

[tex] \sqrt{10} [/tex]

The length of the longer side =

[tex]3 \sqrt{10} [/tex]

Answer:

125

Step-by-step explanation:

i did it too

Answer:

3.6 miles in 90 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

REMEMBER PROPORTIONS

SO IN THIS CASE THIS IS HOW YOU WRITE IT:

[tex]\frac{2 miles = 50 mins}{x=90 mins}[/tex]

So this means in 50 minutes he covered 2 miles and in 90 minutes she covered x miles.

To find x cross multiply :

2 miles * 90 = 180 and x * 50 = 50x

That means 180 = 50x

Divide both sides by 50:

[tex]\frac{180}{50}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{50x }{50}[/tex]

3.6 = x

180 divided by 50 is 3.6 and 50x divided by 50 is x.

THUS HE TRAVELLED 3.6 MILES IN 90 MINUTES.

HOPE IT REALLY HELPED

HAVE A GOOD NIGHT/DAY

Approximately 99.7% of employees in the company earn between $5.40 and $24.60 per hour.

To find the interval within which 99.7% of employees' salaries fall, we can use the properties of the normal distribution.

Given:

Mean (μ) = $15.00 per hour

Standard deviation (σ) = $3.20

In a normal distribution, approximately 99.7% of the data falls within three standard deviations of the mean. So, we can calculate the interval as follows:

Lower bound = μ - 3σ

Upper bound = μ + 3σ

Lower bound = $15.00 - 3 * $3.20

= $15.00 - $9.60

= $5.40

Upper bound = $15.00 + 3 * $3.20

= $15.00 + $9.60

= $24.60

Therefore, approximately 99.7% of employees in the company earn between $5.40 and $24.60 per hour.

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Answer:

No solution

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

Prediction of the broadcaster = 88 points

Actual score scored = 98points

% error = actual score-predicted score/actual score × 100℅

Substitute the given scores into the formula;

%error = 98-88/98 × 100

%error = 10/98 × 100

%error = 1000/98

%error = 10.2%

Hence the broadcaster percentage error is approximately 10.2%

Answer:

Less than

Step-by-step explanation:

0.36 is equal to 0.360

So if you substitute 0.36 by 0.360, it is easier to compare.

0.360 less than 0.361

Answer:

Less Than (<)

Step-by-step explanation:

The second number has a extra 0.001

a. The probability of success (hitting the target) is constant for each trial (88% or 0.88).

b. The probability of hitting the 6th target is:

P(X = 1) = C(1, 1) * 0.88^1 * (1 - 0.88)^(1 - 1) = 0.88

c. Using the binomial probability formula as before, with p = 0.88 and n = 3:

P(X = 1) = C(3, 1) * 0.88^1 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 1)

P(X = 2) = C(3, 2) * 0.88^2 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 2)

P(X = 3) = C(3, 3) * 0.88^3 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 3)

a) The three characteristics of this scenario that indicate we are working with Bernoulli trials are:

The experiment consists of a fixed number of trials (eight shots).

Each trial (shot) has two possible outcomes: hitting the target or missing the target.

The probability of success (hitting the target) is constant for each trial (88% or 0.88).

b) To find the probability of hitting the 6th target (considered as a single trial), we can use the binomial probability formula:

P(X = k) = C(n, k) * p^k * (1 - p)^(n - k)

where:

P(X = k) is the probability of getting exactly k successes,

C(n, k) is the binomial coefficient or number of ways to choose k successes out of n trials,

p is the probability of success in a single trial, and

n is the total number of trials.

In this case, k = 1 (hitting the target once), p = 0.88, and n = 1. Therefore, the probability of hitting the 6th target is:

P(X = 1) = C(1, 1) * 0.88^1 * (1 - 0.88)^(1 - 1) = 0.88

c) To find the probability that the first time hitting the target is not until the 4th shot, we need to consider the complementary event. The complementary event is hitting the target before the 4th shot.

P(not hitting until the 4th shot) = P(hitting on the 4th shot or later) = 1 - P(hitting on or before the 3rd shot)

The probability of hitting on or before the 3rd shot is the sum of the probabilities of hitting on the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd shots:

P(hitting on or before the 3rd shot) = P(X ≤ 3) = P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)

Using the binomial probability formula as before, with p = 0.88 and n = 3:

P(X = 1) = C(3, 1) * 0.88^1 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 1)

P(X = 2) = C(3, 2) * 0.88^2 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 2)

P(X = 3) = C(3, 3) * 0.88^3 * (1 - 0.88)^(3 - 3)

Calculate these probabilities and sum them up to find P(hitting on or before the 3rd shot), and then subtract from 1 to find the desired probability.

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Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

1.  The inverse means take the not of both sides

If it is Saturday, then there is no school.

 Inverse     If it is not Saturday, then there is school.

The converse flips the then and the if

If there is no school, then it is Saturday.

2.) The first given part is the if, what will happen is the then part

If you are a freshman, then you are required to attend orientation.

3.)

Given: 3x+1=-14 Prove: x=-5

Statements    Reasons

1. 3x+1=-14     Given

2. 3x=-15          Subtraction Property of equality  ( since we subtract 1 from                         each side)

3. X=-5          Division Property  ( since we divide each side by 3)

The length of JL is 9 units. The length of KM is also 9 units. Yes, JL equals KM. Parallelogram JKLM is a rectangle.

To determine if parallelogram JKLM is a rectangle, we need to compare the lengths of its diagonals JL and KM.

Using the distance formula, we can calculate the length of JL:

JL = [tex]√[(x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2][/tex]

JL = [tex]√[(4 - (-8))^2 + (0 - 1)^2][/tex]

JL = [tex]√[12^2 + (-1)^2][/tex]

JL = √[144 + 1]

JL ≈ √145 ≈ 12.04 (rounded to two decimal places)

Using the distance formula, we can calculate the length of KM:

KM = [tex]√[(x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2][/tex]

KM = √[tex][(-6 - 2)^2 + (-4 - 5)^2][/tex]

KM = √[tex][(-8)^2 + (-9)^2][/tex]

KM = √[64 + 81]

KM ≈ √145 ≈ 12.04 (rounded to two decimal places)

Since JL = KM, the lengths of the diagonals are equal. This indicates that the opposite sides of parallelogram JKLM are congruent, which is a characteristic of a rectangle. Therefore, parallelogram JKLM is a rectangle.

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Answer:

so every 6 cups there you can make 96 cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression that represent the new price is p(0.5 + 1).

Lora bought a house for a price of p dollars. After 1 year the value of the house increased by 50%.

Therefore, the expression that can be used to represent the new value of the house can be represented as follows:

Hence,

increased price = 50% of p

increased price = 50 / 100 p

increased price = 0.5p

Hence, the expression that represent the new price is as follows;

expression for the new price = 0.5p + p

expression for the new price = p(0.5 + 1)

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Answer:

2x^2+x-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the F.O.I.L method

2x^2+4x-3x-6

Answer:

[tex]x=3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x+3=6[/tex]

Subtract 3 from both sides:

[tex]x+3-3=6-3\\x=3[/tex]

Hope this helps!

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