select all that apply which of the following will result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities? (check all that apply.) multiple select question. repayment of loan principal purchase of intangible assets accumulated depreciation sale of equipment purchase of equipment depreciation expense

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Answer 1

The repayment of loan principal, purchase of intangible assets, and purchase of equipment will all result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities.

The following options will result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities: - Repayment of loan principal: When a company repays the principal amount of a loan, it involves an outflow of cash, reducing the company's cash balance and therefore decreasing net cash from investing activities. - Purchase of intangible assets: When a company acquires intangible assets such as patents, copyrights, or trademarks, it typically involves cash outflow, resulting in a decrease to net cash from investing activities. - Purchase of equipment: The purchase of equipment requires a cash outflow and will result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities.

The options that do not result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities are: - Accumulated depreciation: Accumulated depreciation represents the total depreciation expense recorded for an asset over its useful life. While it reduces the carrying value of the asset on the balance sheet, it does not directly impact cash flows and thus does not affect net cash from investing activities. - Sale of equipment: The sale of equipment generates cash inflow and is classified as an investing cash inflow, increasing net cash from investing activities. - Depreciation expense: Depreciation expense is a non-cash expense that reflects the allocation of an asset's cost over its useful life. It does not involve cash flows and therefore does not affect net cash from investing activities.

In summary, the repayment of loan principal, purchase of intangible assets, and purchase of equipment will all result in a decrease to net cash from investing activities.

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Related Questions

if a purely competitive firm shuts down in the short run: group of answer choices its loss will be zero. it will realize a loss equal to its total fixed costs. it will realize a loss equal to its total variable costs. it will realize a loss equal to its explicit costs.

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If a purely competitive firm shuts down in the short run, it will realize a loss equal to its total fixed costs.the firm will experience a loss equal to its total fixed costs when it shuts down in the short run.

Shutting down means the firm stops all production temporarily. In this case, it incurs a loss equal to its fixed costs because those costs cannot be avoided in the short run.

Variable costs can be avoided by shutting down, but fixed costs remain. Therefore, the firm will experience a loss equal to its total fixed costs when it shuts down in the short run.

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Does it make sense to buy software to measure carriers' performance? A. Yes. Doing so allows you to make side-by-side comparisons of carriers' on-time rates, damages, and many other important measurements. B. No. There's no substitute for calling carriers and finding out their information through a series of one-on-one conversations. C. Maybe, if you're just starting out in the business. D. Maybe, if you've been a broker or agent for many years and need to fine-tune your carrier selections.

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Yes. Doing so allows you to make side-by-side comparisons of carriers' on-time rates, damages, and many other important measurements. Option A is the correct answer.

By purchasing software to measure carriers' performance, you gain access to data-driven insights and metrics that can help you evaluate carriers more effectively. This software provides objective measurements of carriers' performance, such as on-time delivery rates and damages, allowing you to compare different carriers' performance side by side.

This data-driven approach provides valuable information for making informed decisions and selecting carriers that best meet your specific requirements. It saves time and effort compared to relying solely on one-on-one conversations with carriers, making it a sensible choice for improving carrier selection and performance evaluation.

Option A is the correct answer.

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State or municipal bonds that have interest and par value paid for with funds from a designated project or specific tax are known as ________ bonds. Question 13 options: Series EE life cycle revenue general obligation None of these

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The bonds that have interest and par value paid for with funds from a designated project or specific tax are known as revenue bonds.

: Revenue bonds are issued by state or municipal governments to finance specific projects such as bridges, highways, airports, or water treatment plants. The interest and principal payments on these bonds are supported by the revenue generated by the project that the bond is financing, rather than the general taxing authority of the government.

This means that the funds to pay for the bond's interest and par value come from the revenue generated by the specific project or from a designated tax that is earmarked for that project. Revenue bonds are typically considered to have a higher risk compared to general obligation bonds, as the revenue stream may be more volatile.

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A particular stock pays an annual dividend of $2 per share and the annual dividend yield is 4 percent. The price of a share of this stock is

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The price of a share of this stock is $50.

To find the price of a share of the stock, we need to use the formula for dividend yield. The dividend yield is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the price of a share and then multiplying by 100.

Given that the annual dividend is $2 per share and the annual dividend yield is 4 percent, we can set up the equation as follows:

4% = ($2 / Price) * 100

To solve for the price, we need to isolate it on one side of the equation. We can do this by dividing both sides of the equation by 4% (or 0.04):

[tex]\text{Price} = $2 / (4\% / 100) \\\text{Price} = $2 / 0.04[/tex]

Simplifying the equation:

Price = $50

Therefore, the price of a share of this stock is $50.

Conclusion: The price of a share of this stock is $50.

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Average total assets for wells fargo was quite high as of december 31, 2013. use the data from december 31, 2013, to explain whether this bank was a high- or low-performance bank compared with peers.

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To determine if Wells Fargo was a high- or low-performance bank compared to its peers, we would need more information than just the average total assets. Factors such as return on assets, profitability ratios, and other financial indicators would need to be considered. Therefore, it is not possible to determine the bank's performance solely based on the average total assets as of December 31, 2013.

To determine whether Wells Fargo was a high- or low-performance bank compared to its peers based on the average total assets as of December 31, 2013, we would need additional information about the average total assets of its peer banks during the same period. Without that information, it is difficult to make a conclusive assessment.

However, in general, a high average total asset value can indicate that Wells Fargo was a large and prominent bank in terms of its size and market presence. A large asset base can provide several advantages, such as increased lending capacity, higher revenue potential, and better economies of scale. These factors can contribute to a bank's overall performance and competitiveness.

To evaluate Wells Fargo's performance accurately, it is important to consider other financial indicators, such as profitability ratios (e.g., return on assets, return on equity), efficiency ratios (e.g., expense ratio, efficiency ratio), and credit quality measures (e.g., non-performing loan ratio). By analyzing these metrics alongside the average total assets, a more comprehensive assessment of Wells Fargo's performance relative to its peers can be made.

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your family promises to give you $10,000 if you get an a in this business law class and you earn an a. this is an enforceable contract. true or false?

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"If you get an A in this business law class and you do, your family promises to give you $10,000." This agreement is enforceable. is Real.

This agreement can be enforced. Your family's pledge to provide you $10,000 if you get an A in business law class qualifies as a legal offer. You have satisfied the need for the contract's enforceability by receiving the A.

Please be aware that there can be other elements to take into account, such as any legal requirements or limitations, which might have an impact on whether the contract can be enforced in particular countries jurisdictions.

A legal expert should always be consulted for particular guidance on a contract's enforceability.

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The cost per risk discovered is typically highest in the _______________ stage of the project

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The cost per risk discovered is typically highest in the initial stage of the project. It is common for the cost per risk to be at its highest in the beginning stages of a project, particularly in the stage where the project is being initiated or where plans are being made.

At this point in the process, the many dangers and unpredictabilities that are connected to the project are recognised and evaluated. Because it needs a large amount of effort, resources, and skill to adequately analyse and evaluate potential risks, this stage of the process typically results in the highest cost associated with risk identification.

In addition, when the project is in its early phases, there is likely to be a lack of information, which adds to the complexity of the situation and makes it more difficult to effectively identify and analyse risks. Because of increasing information and efficient risk management systems, the cost per risk that is detected typically lowers as the project proceeds and as more risks are uncovered.

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Which of the following contributed to problems with shadow banks around the Great Recession? They found it harder to hide risk than traditional banks. They found it harder to meet reserve requirements than other banics They last depositors due to the passing of Regulation less regulated than traditional banks

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Problems with shadow banks around the Great Recession were primarily due to their difficulty in hiding risk and their less regulated nature compared to traditional banks.

Shadow banks faced significant challenges during the Great Recession, primarily because they found it harder to hide risk than traditional banks and were less regulated. Shadow banks, also known as non-bank financial intermediaries, operate outside the scope of traditional banking regulations, which allowed them to engage in riskier practices and pursue higher returns. However, this lack of regulation also meant that they had fewer safeguards in place to mitigate the impact of market downturns.

One of the critical factors contributing to the problems faced by shadow banks was their limited ability to hide risk. Unlike traditional banks, which are subject to stricter regulations and reporting requirements, shadow banks often operated with greater opacity. This lack of transparency made it difficult for investors and regulators to assess the true level of risk in their activities. As the Great Recession unfolded, the exposure of these hidden risks became apparent, leading to significant losses and systemic disruptions.

Furthermore, shadow banks faced challenges in meeting reserve requirements compared to traditional banks. Reserve requirements are the minimum amount of funds that financial institutions must hold in reserve to ensure liquidity and stability. While traditional banks are subject to reserve requirements set by regulatory bodies, shadow banks had more flexibility in managing their reserves. This flexibility, coupled with the pursuit of higher returns, often resulted in a higher level of leverage and exposure to risky assets, which amplified the impact of the financial crisis.

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milk has an inelastic demand, and beef has an elastic demand. suppose that a mysterious increase in bovine infertility decreases both the population of dairy cows and the population of beef cattle by 50 percent. the change in equilibrium quantity will be

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The equilibrium quantity of milk will decrease by a smaller percentage than the equilibrium quantity of beef because milk has an inelastic demand and beef has an elastic demand.

Inelastic demand means that consumers are not very responsive to changes in price. So, even though the supply of milk decreases by 50%, the demand for milk will not decrease by as much.

This means that the equilibrium quantity of milk will decrease, but by a smaller percentage than the 50% decrease in supply.

On the other hand, beef has an elastic demand. This means that consumers are more responsive to changes in price. So, when the supply of beef decreases by 50%, the demand for beef will decrease by more than 50%.

This means that the equilibrium quantity of beef will decrease by a larger percentage than the 50% decrease in supply.

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Find the amount of each payment to be made into a sinking fund earning 7% compounded monthly to accumulate $17,000 over 8 years. Payments are made at the end of each period. The payment size is S (Do not round until the final answer. Then round to the nearest cent.)

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The amount of each payment to be made into the sinking fund, earning 7% compounded monthly, to accumulate $17,000 over 8 years is approximately $152.32.

To find the amount of each payment, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity:

A = P * ((1 + r/n)^(n*t) - 1) / (r/n)

Where:

A is the future value

P is the payment size

r is the interest rate per period

n is the number of compounding periods per year

t is the number of years

In this case, the future value is $17,000, the time period is 8 years, and the interest rate per period is 7% divided by 12 (since it is compounded monthly).

We need to solve for P, the payment size. Rearranging the formula, we have:

P = A * (r/n) / ((1 + r/n)^(n*t) - 1)

Plugging in the values, we get:

P = 17,000 * (0.07/12) / ((1 + 0.07/12)^(12*8) - 1)

Calculating this expression, we find that the amount of each payment should be approximately $152.32.

Therefore, the amount of each payment to be made into the sinking fund, earning 7% compounded monthly, to accumulate $17,000 over 8 years is approximately $152.32.

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stepwise refinement can be defined as a means to postpone decisions on details until as late as possible to concentrate on the important issues. quizlet

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Stepwise refinement is a technique used in software development to break down a complex problem into smaller, more manageable tasks.

It involves gradually refining and adding more details to a solution as the development process progresses. This approach allows developers to focus on the important issues initially and delay making decisions on specific details until later stages.

The idea is to concentrate on understanding the problem and designing a high-level solution before diving into the implementation and finer details. By postponing decisions, stepwise refinement helps in creating more flexible and adaptable solutions.

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to assess the usability of a site, the designers of the site can ask visitors to perform a sequence of tasks and observe the problems they encounter. true false

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The statement "to assess the usability of a site, the designers of the site can ask visitors to perform a sequence of tasks and observe the problems they encounter" is true because it is a widely accepted method of usability testing called User Testing.

User Testing involves watching real users interact with the website and noting their difficulties, to gain insights into how to improve the site’s usability. The process can be done in-person or remotely, and provides real-time feedback that helps designers identify problematic areas of the website.

This can include issues with navigation, content, layout, or functionality. The goal of user testing is to identify areas that can be improved in the website so that it can be made more user-friendly, and ultimately, lead to higher conversion rates and greater success.

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Since residual income (RI) is not a percentage, it is not very useful for: Group of answer choices Motivating goal-congruent behavior on the part of divisional managers. Evaluating the short-term financial performance of small divisions. Comparing business units of significantly different size. Evaluating the short-term financial performance of larger divisions. Evaluating the performance of subunits with high ROIs.

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Residual income (RI) is not very useful for: Comparing business units of significantly different size.

Residual income (RI) is a financial performance measure that evaluates the profitability of an investment or business unit by comparing its actual net income to its expected return. While RI can be a valuable tool in many scenarios, it may not be as useful for comparing business units of significantly different size. Here's a detailed explanation for each option:

1. Motivating goal-congruent behavior on the part of divisional managers: Residual income can be an effective tool for motivating divisional managers as it aligns their goals with maximizing the residual income of their division. By incentivizing managers to generate positive residual income, it encourages them to make decisions that contribute to the long-term profitability of the division.

2. Evaluating the short-term financial performance of small divisions: Residual income is particularly useful for evaluating the performance of small divisions or business units. Since it considers the cost of capital employed, it provides a more accurate picture of the division's profitability, accounting for the opportunity cost of the capital invested.

3. Comparing business units of significantly different size: Residual income may not be as useful when comparing business units of significantly different size. This is because the absolute amount of residual income can vary greatly based on the size of the business unit. Comparing residual income alone might not provide an accurate reflection of the relative performance between units.

4. Evaluating the short-term financial performance of larger divisions: Residual income can still be useful for evaluating the short-term financial performance of larger divisions. However, in such cases, it's important to consider other performance metrics alongside residual income to ensure a comprehensive evaluation. Additional metrics such as return on investment (ROI) and operating income can provide a more holistic view of the division's performance.

5. Evaluating the performance of subunits with high ROIs: Residual income is valuable for evaluating the performance of subunits with high return on investment (ROI). It helps in assessing whether the subunit is generating income above the required return on capital and contributing to overall value creation.

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When developing a common-size balance sheet to evaluate last year’s performance, all accounts are expressed as a percentage of:
the base year’s total assets.
the base year’s sales.
the base year’s total equity.
last year’s sales.
last year’s total assets.

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When developing a common-size balance sheet to evaluate last year's performance, all accounts are expressed as a percentage of last year's total assets.

A common-size balance sheet is a financial statement analysis technique that allows for easy comparison of different companies or different periods within the same company. By expressing each account as a percentage of total assets, it provides a relative measure of the composition and significance of each account in relation to the company's total assets. This allows for a better understanding of the company's financial structure, profitability, and overall performance in the given year.

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the price of a product in a competitive market is $200. if the cost per unit of producing the product is 90 0.1x dollars, where x is the number of units produced per month, how many units should the firm produce and sell to maximize its profit?

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The firm should produce and sell 2000 units per month to maximize its profit.

To maximize profit, the firm should produce and sell the quantity where marginal cost equals marginal revenue. In a competitive market, marginal revenue equals the price of the product. Therefore, the firm should produce and sell the quantity where marginal cost equals the price. In this case, the marginal cost is given by 0.1x dollars, and the price is $200.  

Setting up the equation:

0.1x = 200

Solving for x:

x = 200 / 0.1

x = 2000

So, the firm should produce and sell 2000 units per month to maximize its profit.

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Concord Corporation has gathered the following information for one model of its hiking boots: Variable manufacturing costs $46000 Variable selling and administrative costs $23000 Fixed manufacturing costs $120000 Fixed selling and administrative costs $80000 Investment $1400000 ROI 40 % Planned production and sales 5000 pairs What is the target selling price per pair of boots

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The target selling price per pair of boots for Concord Corporation would be $364.

To calculate the target selling price per pair of boots, we need to consider the total costs and the desired return on investment (ROI).

First, we add up the variable costs and fixed costs:

Variable costs: $46,000 (manufacturing) + $23,000 (selling and administrative) = $69,000

Fixed costs: $120,000 (manufacturing) + $80,000 (selling and administrative) = $200,000

Next, we calculate the total costs:

Total costs = Variable costs + Fixed costs

Total costs = $69,000 + $200,000 = $269,000

To determine the target selling price, we divide the total costs by the planned production and sales:

Target selling price = Total costs / Planned production and sales

Target selling price = $269,000 / 5,000 = $53.80

However, the target selling price should also consider the desired return on investment (ROI). The ROI is given as 40%, which means the desired return is 40% of the investment.

To calculate the desired return, we multiply the investment by the ROI:

Desired return = Investment * ROI

Desired return = $1,400,000 * 0.40 = $560,000

We then add the desired return to the total costs:

Target selling price = Total costs + Desired return

Target selling price = $269,000 + $560,000 = $829,000

Finally, we divide the target selling price by the planned production and sales to find the target selling price per pair of boots:

Target selling price per pair = Target selling price / Planned production and sales

Target selling price per pair = $829,000 / 5,000 = $364

Therefore, the target selling price per pair of boots for Concord Corporation would be $364.

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Under the uniform securities act, an investment adviser may share in the profits of a client's account:____.

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Under the Uniform Securities Act, an investment adviser may share in the profits of a client's account if there is a written agreement between the adviser and the client that clearly discloses this arrangement. This is known as a performance-based fee arrangement.

The to your question is that an investment adviser may share in the profits of a client's account if there is a written agreement in place. 1. Check if there is a written agreement: Before an investment adviser can share in the profits of a client's account, it is important to ensure that there is a written agreement between the adviser and the client.
2. Clearly disclose the arrangement: The written agreement must clearly disclose the performance-based fee arrangement, where the adviser shares in the profits of the client's account.

3. Comply with the Uniform Securities Act: This arrangement is allowed under the Uniform Securities Act, as long as there is a written agreement and the disclosure is made. It is important to adhere to the regulations outlined in the Act to ensure compliance.

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if marginal product increased from 50 to 60 when the quantity of labor increased from 200 to 205, then what must be true of costs over this range of output? marginal costs are decreasing. marginal costs are increasing. average total costs are increasing. average fixed costs are increasing. average variable costs are decreasing.

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The most likely outcome in this scenario is that marginal costs (MC) are decreasing (option A).

To determine the relationship between costs and the change in marginal product, we need to understand the concept of marginal cost and its relationship with marginal product.

Marginal cost (MC) is the additional cost incurred to produce one more unit of output. Marginal product (MP) represents the additional output produced by employing one more unit of input, in this case, labor. The relationship between marginal product and marginal cost is crucial for understanding cost dynamics.

If marginal product (MP) increases from 50 to 60 when the quantity of labor increases from 200 to 205, it implies that the additional output generated from employing the 5 additional units of labor is 10 units (60 - 50).

In general, when marginal product increases, it indicates increasing returns to the variable input, which can lead to a change in the trend of marginal cost.

Specifically, if the additional output (10 units) is achieved by employing a relatively small number of additional units of labor (5 units), it suggests that the cost of producing those additional units is lower than the average cost of the existing units.

Option A

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To be counted as unemployed in the official unemployment rate, during the survey week, a survey respondent must :

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A survey respondent must have been jobless during the survey week in order to be included in the official unemployment rate.

To be counted as unemployed in the official unemployment rate, during the survey week, a survey respondent must meet the following criteria:
  - Be without a job, meaning they are not currently employed or self-employed.
  - Be actively seeking employment, which means they are actively looking for work, such as submitting job applications or attending job interviews.
  - Be available to start working, meaning they are ready and able to accept employment if a job opportunity arises.
  - Have not found a job but are actively seeking and available for work during the survey week.

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The Federal Reserve is said to be a fairly independent central bank. Economists tend to think that having an independent central bank is important for the reasons below: (Mark ALL that apply.) An independent central bank means that the central bank can change it goals when needed to. Independence helps avoid what we call "political business cycles." If the central bank is not independent, it can be exposed to political pressure. An independent central bank can make policies that may be unpopular, but are in the long-term interest of the monetary policy goals.

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The Federal Reserve is said to be a fairly independent central bank. Economists tend to think that having an independent central bank is important for the reasons below: An independent central bank means that the central bank can change its goals when needed to.  

If the goals of the central bank are not flexible, it will lead to long-term negative effects on the economy. Therefore, the independence of the central bank helps it to maintain flexibility in setting monetary policies and achieving its goals. helps avoid what we call "political business cycles." If the central bank is independent, it is less likely to follow thIndependence e political agenda. Therefore, it is less susceptible to the "political business cycle," which is the manipulation of economic policies by politicians to win elections or other political support .If the central bank is not independent, it can be exposed to political pressure. An independent central bank is protected from the influence of politicians and other external factors. This makes it possible for the central bank to make decisions based on economic data and analysis rather than political considerations .An independent central bank can make policies that may be unpopular, but are in the long-term interest of the monetary policy goals. The independence of the central bank makes it possible for it to prioritize the long-term goals of monetary policy over the short-term political interests of the government or politicians. Therefore, it can make policies that may be unpopular but beneficial in the long run.

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_______ means that in most states, unless there is a specific agreement or discrimination of some sort has occurred, an employee can be summarily fired for any reason or for no reason at all.

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The term you are looking for is "at-will employment."

In most states, unless there is a specific agreement or discrimination involved, an employee can be fired at-will, meaning they can be terminated for any reason or even for no reason at all.

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The term that describes the situation where an employee can be fired without cause or reason in most states, unless there is a specific agreement or discrimination, is known as "at-will employment."

At-will employment is a legal doctrine that is prevalent in the employment laws of many states in the United States. It means that an employer has the right to terminate an employee at any time, for any reason, or for no reason at all, as long as there is no specific agreement or illegal discrimination involved. Similarly, the employee has the freedom to resign from their position without providing a reason.

The at-will employment doctrine is based on the principle of contractual freedom, allowing both employers and employees to have flexibility in the employment relationship. It grants employers the authority to make personnel decisions according to their own judgment and business needs, without being bound by strict requirements for cause or reason for termination. However, there are limitations to at-will employment, such as laws prohibiting discrimination based on protected characteristics like race, gender, religion, disability, or age. In such cases, an employer cannot terminate an employee for discriminatory reasons.

It's important to note that while at-will employment is the default rule in many states, there are exceptions and additional employment protections provided by federal and state laws. These laws may offer certain safeguards for employees, such as protection against wrongful termination or retaliation in specific circumstances.

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Selena purchased some gifts for her nieces and nephews online. She bought 3 dolls each priced at $19.99 each and 4 remote control cars priced at $21.99 each. Selena was able to get an online coupon for $3 off on each remote control car that she purchased. There was no sales tax, but the shipping charge was $10.50. What was the total amount Selena paid for her online purchase

Answers

To calculate the total amount Selena paid for her online purchase, we need to determine the cost of the dolls, the cost of the remote control cars, and the shipping charge.

Selena bought 3 dolls, and each doll is priced at $19.99. So the total cost of the dolls is 3 * $19.99 = $59.97.

She also bought 4 remote control cars, and each car is priced at $21.99. However, Selena was able to use an online coupon to get a $3 discount on each remote control car. So the discounted price of each car is $21.99 - $3 = $18.99. The total cost of the remote control cars is 4 * $18.99 = $75.96.

The shipping charge is $10.50.

To find the total amount Selena paid, we add the cost of the dolls, the cost of the remote control cars, and the shipping charge:

$59.97 (dolls) + $75.96 (remote control cars) + $10.50 (shipping charge) = $146.43.

Therefore, the total amount Selena paid for her online purchase was $146.43.

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you are given the following information about a stock: share price: usd 20 p/e: 25 dividend yield: 0.50% the market average p/e is 14 and the average dividend yield is 2.5%. based on the above information, what type of stock is this (all other things being equal)?

Answers

Based on the given information, the stock can be classified as a growth stock.

A growth stock typically has a higher price-to-earnings ratio (P/E) compared to the market average P/E. In this case, the stock has a P/E ratio of 25, which is higher than the market average P/E of 14.

This indicates that investors are willing to pay a premium for the company's earnings, suggesting that the stock is expected to have strong future growth potential.

Additionally, the dividend yield of 0.50% for the stock is lower than the average dividend yield of 2.5%. This implies that the company may not prioritize distributing a significant portion of its earnings as dividends. Instead, it is likely reinvesting earnings back into the business to fuel growth and expansion.

Therefore, based on the higher P/E ratio and lower dividend yield compared to the market averages, this stock can be categorized as a growth stock.


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The aggregate production function connects: products to the sales revenue they generate. the output from machinery to the use of labor. inputs of physical capital to outputs of human capital. GDP to labor, human capital, and physical capital.

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The aggregate production function connects GDP to labor, human capital, and physical capital. It helps us understand how these inputs contribute to the overall output of an economy. Option D



Option A is incorrect because the aggregate production function is not directly related to sales revenue. It focuses on the physical production process rather than the monetary aspect.

Option B is partially correct. The aggregate production function does consider the relationship between output from machinery and the use of labor. However, it is not limited to just these two factors.

Option C is incorrect. The aggregate production function does not specifically link inputs of physical capital to outputs of human capital. It focuses on the combination of physical capital and labor as inputs to the production process.

Option D is the most accurate choice. The aggregate production function connects GDP, which represents the total output of an economy, to the inputs of labor, human capital, and physical capital. It highlights the role of these factors in determining the level of economic output.
Optiomn D

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in march 2016 american employers added 215,000 positions to their payrolls, bringing the average job increase for the year to more than 200,000 per month. at the same time, though, the official unemployment rate actually went up, from 4.9% to 5.0%. what is a likely explanation?

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In March 2016, American employers added 215,000 positions to their payrolls, resulting in an average monthly job increase of over 200,000. However, during the same period, the official unemployment rate increased from 4.9% to 5.0%. This discrepancy requires an explanation.

A likely explanation for the increase in the official unemployment rate despite job growth could be attributed to several factors. First, it's important to understand how the unemployment rate is calculated. The rate is derived by dividing the number of unemployed individuals actively seeking employment by the total labor force, which includes both employed and unemployed individuals actively seeking work.

One possible explanation is that the increase in the labor force outpaced the number of job additions. In other words, more people might have entered the labor force, either by graduating from education programs or rejoining the workforce after a period of inactivity, thereby increasing the number of individuals actively seeking employment. This influx of new job seekers could offset the positive impact of job growth on the overall unemployment rate.

Additionally, the official unemployment rate does not capture the full complexity of the labor market. It only considers those actively seeking employment and does not account for other factors such as discouraged workers who have stopped actively looking for jobs or individuals working part-time but desiring full-time employment. If there was an increase in the number of individuals who shifted from being classified as discouraged workers or part-time workers to actively seeking full-time employment, it could contribute to the rise in the unemployment rate.

In conclusion, despite the positive job growth in March 2016, the increase in the official unemployment rate could be explained by a larger influx of individuals entering the labor force or a shift in the employment status of certain individuals. Understanding the nuances of labor force dynamics and the limitations of the unemployment rate calculation helps provide a clearer picture of the complex factors influencing employment and unemployment trends.

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a data analyst is evaluating data to determine whether it is good or bad. which qualities characterize good data? select all that apply. 1 point

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As a data analyst, the following qualities characterize good data: Complete, Correct, Consistent, Accurate, Relevant, and Timely.

Let's discuss each characteristic in brief.

Complete: Complete data means that there are no missing values in the data set. Incomplete data leads to data loss and inaccuracy of analysis. Therefore, complete data is an important aspect of good data.

Correct: Correct data is free from errors and mistakes. The data should be true and verifiable. Incorrect data leads to inaccurate results and decision-making and may result in monetary losses.

Consistent: Consistent data is uniform in terms of format, meaning, and use. Inconsistent data may lead to confusion and error, which is undesirable in data analysis.

Accurate: Accuracy is essential for good data. It means that the data is precise and error-free. Accurate data helps in making informed decisions.

Relevant: Relevant data is information that pertains to the research question or analysis. It is important to ensure that data is relevant, or else it will lead to inaccurate or incorrect decisions.

Timely: Timely data is up-to-date and relevant to the research question or analysis. Old or outdated data can lead to an incorrect analysis. Therefore, timeliness is an important aspect of good data.

Hence, the correct answer is Complete, Correct, Consistent, Accurate, Relevant, and Timely.

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a decrease in government spending and the enactment of an investment tax credit would definitely cause question 6 options: a) the quantity of loanable funds traded to decrease. b) the interest rate to decrease. c) the quantity of loanable funds traded to increase. d) the interest rate to increase.

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When the government decreases its spending and enacts an investment tax credit, it can have an impact on the loanable funds market.

The loanable funds market represents the supply and demand of funds available for borrowing and lending.

1. Quantity of loanable funds traded: Both actions, decreasing government spending and enacting an investment tax credit, can increase the quantity of loanable funds traded.

- Decreasing government spending: When the government spends less, it reduces its borrowing needs. This reduces the demand for loanable funds by the government sector, freeing up funds to be borrowed and invested by the private sector. As a result, the quantity of loanable funds available for private investment increases.

- Enacting an investment tax credit: An investment tax credit encourages private investment by providing a tax incentive. This increases the demand for loanable funds by the private sector as businesses seek to take advantage of the credit to finance their investment projects. Consequently, the quantity of loanable funds demanded increases.

Overall, the combined effect of these actions is an increase in the quantity of loanable funds traded in the market.

2. Interest rate: The impact on the interest rate is not as definitive and can depend on other factors.

- Decreasing government spending: When the government reduces its borrowing, it decreases the demand for loanable funds, which could put downward pressure on interest rates. However, if the decrease in government spending leads to expectations of lower economic growth or reduced investment, it could also reduce the supply of loanable funds and put upward pressure on interest rates.

- Enacting an investment tax credit: The investment tax credit encourages investment, which increases the demand for loanable funds. Depending on the magnitude of the increase in demand, it could put upward pressure on interest rates. However, if the increased investment leads to higher economic growth and increased saving, it could also increase the supply of loanable funds and put downward pressure on interest rates.

Therefore, while a decrease in government spending and the enactment of an investment tax credit generally lead to an increase in the quantity of loanable funds traded, the impact on interest rates is less certain and depends on various factors in the economy.

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hannah has liabilities totaling $30,000 (excluding her mortgage of $100,000). her net worth is $45,000. what is her debt-to-equity ratio?

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To calculate Hannah's debt-to-equity ratio, we need to divide her liabilities (excluding her mortgage) by her net worth.Hannah's liabilities, excluding her mortgage, are $30,000. Her net worth is $45,000

This means that Hannah's debt-to-equity ratio is 0.67. It indicates that her liabilities (excluding her mortgage) are 67% of her net worth. A higher debt-to-equity ratio suggests a higher level of debt relative to equity and may indicate greater financial risk. It's important to consider this ratio when assessing an individual's financial situation and their ability to manage debt obligations. To calculate Hannah's debt-to-equity ratio, we need to divide her liabilities (excluding her mortgage) by her net worth. Hannah's liabilities, excluding her mortgage, are $30,000. Her net worth is $45,000

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In terms of tractors, the terms of trade must be set between _________ and ________ units of cotton per tractor.

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In terms of tractors, the terms of trade must be set between the number of units of cotton a country is willing to trade for each tractor.

The terms of trade are determined by the bargaining power and negotiation skills of the parties involved in the trade. The terms of trade can be influenced by factors such as supply and demand, production costs, exchange rates, and government policies. It is important to note that the specific number of units of cotton per tractor will vary depending on the market conditions and the preferences of the parties involved in the trade.

Therefore, without further information, it is not possible to provide a specific range for the terms of trade between cotton and tractors.

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Value of an annuity versus a single amount assume that you just won the state lottery. your prize can be taken either in the form of $40,000 at the end of each of the next 25 years (that is, $1,000,000 over 25 years) or as a single amount of $500,000 paid immediately. a. if you expect to be able to earn 5% annually on your investments over the next 25 years, ignoring taxes and other considerations, which alternative should you take? why? lg 3 lg 3 lg 2 lg 3 lg 2 lg 3 b. would your decision in part a change if you could earn 7% rather than 5% on your investments over the next 25 years? why? c. on a strictly economic basis, at approximately what earnings rate would you be indifferent between the two plans?

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If you expect to be able to earn 5% annually on your investments over the next 25 years, ignoring taxes and other considerations, the alternative you should take is to receive $40,000 at the end of each of the next 25 years. Therefore, on a strictly economic basis, you would be indifferent between the two plans at an earnings rate of approximately 3.77%.

To determine this, we need to compare the present value of both options. The present value of the annuity can be calculated using the formula:

PV = CF * (1 - (1 + r)^-n) / r

where PV is the present value, CF is the cash flow per period, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods. Plugging in the values, we get:

PV = $40,000 * (1 - (1 + 0.05)^-25) / 0.05
PV ≈ $646,580.85

On the other hand, if you were to take the single amount of $500,000 paid immediately, the present value would simply be $500,000.

Since the present value of the annuity is higher than the present value of the single amount, you should choose the annuity option.

Now, let's move on to part b. If you could earn 7% rather than 5% on your investments over the next 25 years, your decision in part a would change. To determine which alternative is more beneficial, we need to recalculate the present values using the new interest rate.

For the annuity option, the present value can be calculated using the same formula as before, but with a new interest rate of 7%.

PV = $40,000 * (1 - (1 + 0.07)^-25) / 0.07
PV ≈ $782,722.81

For the single amount option, the present value remains $500,000.

Since the present value of the annuity is still higher than the present value of the single amount, you should still choose the annuity option.

Finally, in part c, you asked at approximately what earnings rate would you be indifferent between the two plans. To find this, we need to set the present values of both options equal to each other and solve for the interest rate.

$40,000 * (1 - (1 + r)^-25) / r = $500,000

Using financial calculators or software, we find that the approximate interest rate at which the two options are equal is around 3.77%.

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