a. An option is a financial contract that gives the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call option) or sell (put option) an underlying asset at a predetermined price (exercise price) within a specific period of time.
Options can be classified as out of the money, in the money, or at the money based on the relationship between the current price of the underlying asset and the exercise price:
Out of the money (OTM): In the case of a call option, if the current price of the underlying asset is below the exercise price, the option is considered out of the money. It means that exercising the option would not be profitable at the current market price. Similarly, for a put option, if the current price of the underlying asset is above the exercise price, the option is out of the money.
In the money (ITM): For a call option, if the current price of the underlying asset is above the exercise price, the option is in the money. It indicates that exercising the option would result in a profit at the current market price. Conversely, for a put option, if the current price of the underlying asset is below the exercise price, the option is in the money.
At the money (ATM): When the current price of the underlying asset is equal to the exercise price, the option is considered at the money. In this situation, the option's intrinsic value is zero, and it has the potential to become in the money or out of the money as the market price changes.
In the case of Smiley Pty Ltd, Gerry has entered into a call option with an exercise price of $4.50 per share. Since the current market price is $4.20, the option is out of the money. The premium is the price paid upfront by the buyer to acquire the option. In this case, Gerry paid a premium of $0.20 per share.
b. A straddle strategy involves buying both a call option and a put option with the same exercise price and expiration date. The purpose of a straddle is to profit from significant price volatility, regardless of the direction in which the price moves.
In the case of Smiley Pty Ltd, if Gerry takes a straddle strategy, it would not necessarily result in higher margins. A straddle strategy is profitable when there is a substantial price movement in either direction. If the stock price remains relatively stable, the premiums paid for both the call and put options would result in losses.
Two other strategies that the company might consider to minimize losses are:
Covered call strategy: The company can sell call options on its existing stock holdings. By doing so, it receives premium income, which can help offset potential losses if the stock price declines. However, it also limits potential gains if the stock price rises above the exercise price of the call option.
Protective put strategy: The company can purchase put options as a form of insurance to protect against potential losses in the stock's value. If the stock price decreases, the put options would increase in value, offsetting the losses in the stock holdings. However, the cost of purchasing the put options reduces overall returns if the stock price remains stable or increases.
c. A derivative contract, such as an option, can help achieve risk management objectives by providing the ability to hedge against potential losses or profit from price movements in the underlying asset. Derivatives allow market participants to transfer or manage specific risks without directly owning the underlying asset.
For example, in the case of options, a buyer can protect against downside risk (in the case of a put option) or profit from upside potential (in the case of a call option) without owning the underlying stock. By entering into derivative contracts, investors and businesses can mitigate exposure to price fluctuations, interest rate changes, foreign exchange rate movements, or other risks associated with the underlying assets. This helps manage and minimize potential losses or maximize gains in various market conditions.
d. According to put-call parity, the relationship between the prices of put and call options with the same exercise price and expiration date is as follows:
Put Price + Stock Price = Call Price + Present Value of Exercise Price
In this case, the stock price is $43, the exercise price is $45, and the price of the call option is $2.25. The effective annual risk-free rate of interest is 3%, and there are three months until expiration.
Rearranging the put-call parity equation, we can solve for the price of the put option:
Put Price = Call Price + Present Value of Exercise Price - Stock Price
Put Price = $2.25 + (45 / (1 + 0.03/4)^(4*(3/12))) - $43
Calculating the present value of the exercise price:
Present Value of Exercise Price = 45 / (1 + 0.03/4)^(4*(3/12))
Put Price = $2.25 + (45 / (1 + 0.03/4)^(4*(3/12))) - $43
After performing the calculations, you will obtain the price of the put option.
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What is adverse selection? Describe two
methods insurers use to control adverse selection? What
is moral hazard? Describe two methods insurers
use to control moral hazard.
Adverse selection refers to a circumstance where the purchaser has more knowledge or information than the seller about the insurance policy.
Adverse selection is where high-risk policy holders buy coverage more often than low-risk policyholders. This indicates that the premiums set are more expensive than they should be because low-risk policyholders will not buy policies at that price. To control adverse selection, two methods are used, which are discussed below. Methods used by insurers to control adverse selection include: Underwriting - Underwriting is a procedure that determines the terms of the policy. It aims to decrease the risk of insuring high-risk clients by limiting the coverage offered, increasing the deductibles, or decreasing the maximum coverage available. This technique enables insurance providers to provide policies to all clients at a fair cost. This technique assures that the customer is matched with the appropriate coverage and that the risk is shared evenly.
Underwriting is the main answer to control adverse selection. Marketing of policies - Insurance businesses can increase awareness about the advantages of their policies to a broad audience through marketing. Marketing helps to balance the number of low-risk policyholders against high-risk policyholders by increasing the number of low-risk policyholders.
Moral hazard is where the purchaser takes more significant risks knowing that the insurer will bear some or all of the losses. It happens when the purchaser knows that they will not bear the full cost of the loss because they have insurance. Two methods used by insurers to control moral hazard include: Risk-sharing - Insurers can charge higher premiums to customers who demonstrate an increased risk of loss. Risk-sharing provides the client with an incentive to take fewer risks because they must pay a greater amount if they incur a loss. This results in fewer claims being submitted and lower insurance prices. This method can decrease the likelihood of moral hazard from occurring. Deducible - Deducible is a fixed amount that the policyholder must pay before insurance coverage begins. It provides the client with an incentive to take fewer risks because they must pay the deductible amount if they incur a loss. This provides the client with a financial motive to avoid submitting minor claims, lowering the insurance provider's overall costs.
Adverse selection is when a purchaser has more information than a seller about an insurance policy, while moral hazard is where the purchaser takes more significant risks knowing that the insurer will bear some or all of the losses. To control these hazards, insurers use risk-sharing, underwriting, marketing of policies, and deductibles to keep costs manageable.
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Required information (The following information applies to the questions displayed below.] Suzuki Supply reports the following amounts at the end of 2021 (before adjustment). Credit Sales for 2021 $260,000 55,000 1,100 Accounts Receivable, December 31, 2021 Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts, December 31, 2021 (Credit) Required: 1. Record the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percentage-of-receivables method. Suzuki estimates 12 % of receivables will not be collected. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field.)
The adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percentage-of-receivables method is $6,600 debit to Bad Debt Expense and $6,600 credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts.
The Suzuki Supply reports the following amounts at the end of 2021 (before adjustment).Credit Sales for 2021 $260,000
Accounts Receivable, December 31, 2021 55,000
Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts, December 31, 2021 (Credit) 1,100
We are required to record the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percentage-of-receivables method. Suzuki estimates 12% of receivables will not be collected.
Hence, let's see the adjustment below:
Suzuki Supply Adjusting Entry for Uncollectible Accounts as at December 31, 2021
Particulars Debit Amount ($)Credit Amount ($)Bad Debt Expense (Income Statement)6600
Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Balance Sheet)6600(To record the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percentage-of-receivables method. Suzuki estimates 12% of receivables will not be collected.)
Hence, the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts using the percentage-of-receivables method is $6,600 debit to Bad Debt Expense (Income Statement) and $6,600 credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Balance Sheet).
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Bahrain Company made the following merchandise purchases and sales during the April, 2021: April 1 April 4 April 14 The beginning inventory balance 400 units at $30 each. Sold 250 units at $ 40 each. April 28 Purchased 300 units at $ 32 each. Sold 300 units at $50 each. Answer the following questions assuming that the company uses the First IN First Out (FIFO) method. Note: Write only the final amount - Do not show your calculation 1) What is Cost of goods sold on April 4?
The cost of goods sold on April 4, using the FIFO method, is $12,000. This amount reflects the cost of the 250 units sold, Based on the First In First Out (FIFO) method, the cost of goods sold (COGS) on April 4 can be calculated as follows:
The beginning inventory on April 1 was 400 units at $30 each, totaling $12,000. On April 4, 250 units were sold. According to the FIFO method, the cost of the units sold will be based on the oldest inventory available, which is the beginning inventory.
Therefore, the cost of goods sold on April 4 will be $12,000 (400 units at $30 each) as it represents the cost of the units from the beginning inventory that were sold.
The cost of goods sold on April 4, using the FIFO method, is $12,000. This amount reflects the cost of the 250 units sold, which were part of the beginning inventory on April 1.
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TRUE / FALSE. "Time Distribution can be defined as the efficiency with which a
customer gets to experience a product after desiring it?
FALSE. Time Distribution cannot be defined as the efficiency with which a customer gets to experience a product after desiring it.
Time distribution refers to the process of scheduling and allocating time for specific activities, such as production, delivery, or service provision. It involves managing time effectively to ensure that tasks are completed on time and resources are used efficiently to meet customer demand.
Time distribution is a critical component of supply chain management as it helps to ensure that goods and services are delivered to customers in a timely and cost-effective manner. It requires careful planning, coordination, and monitoring to ensure that the right resources are available at the right time and in the right place to meet customer demand. Overall, time distribution is about managing time effectively to deliver value to customers and maximize organizational efficiency.
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An employee is being paid according to a _________________________ if the organization pays for each unit the employee produces.
a. gainsharing program
b. merit pay plan
c. piece-rate incentive plan
d. profit-sharing plan
An employee is being paid according to a piece-rate incentive plan if the organization pays for each unit the employee produces. Therefore, the correct option is C.
A piece-rate incentive plan is a pay structure in which employees are compensated for each item they produce. This type of plan motivates employees to produce more units, increasing efficiency and profitability. The per-unit rate of pay in piece-rate incentive programs is determined by management or the collective bargaining agreement in unionized work environments.
Thus, an employee is being paid according to a piece-rate incentive plan if the organization pays for each unit the employee produces. Hence, the correct answer is option C.
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Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Cost recovery for the declining balance (DB) method is smaller in earlier years than cost recovery for the straight-line (SL) method.
B. If more than 40% of personality are placed in service during the 4th quarter of the year, taxpayer
uses the mid-year convention.
C. According to the half-year convention, an asset sold on January 13th will be assumed to be sold in
the middle of the year.
D. Cost recovery starts on the date an asset is purchased.
E. A business taxpayer must use the double declining (DB) method when the property being depreciated is a rental property.
"If more than 40% of personality are placed in service during the 4th quarter of the year, taxpayer uses the mid-year convention.Convention, in the aspect of the depreciation of assets, refers to the method used to determine the depreciation of a property over its useful life.
The correct statement is B.
The convention used decides how much of the asset's cost is to be written off in the first year it is placed in service and in the last year it is used for revenue generation.The mid-year convention is a method used in the United States tax law to calculate depreciation. This convention specifies that assets placed in service in any given tax year are assumed to have been put in use exactly halfway through that year. This means that if an asset is placed into service in May,
it is assumed to have been placed into service on June 30th for tax purposes.The correct statement is "If more than 40% of personality are placed in service during the 4th quarter of the year, the taxpayer uses the mid-year convention." This means that if an individual places more than 40% of their personal property into service during the last quarter of the year, then they have to use the mid-year convention to calculate depreciation.
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Which statement is not true ?
Group of answer choices
Nations with the most economic freedom have the highest GDP per capita.
Excessive government regulation reduces economic freedom.
Economic growth can never lead to congestion, pollution and depleted natural resources.
The statement that is not true is "Economic growth can never lead to congestion, pollution, and depleted natural resources."
Economic growth, while often associated with positive outcomes such as increased productivity and higher standards of living, can also have negative consequences for the environment and natural resources. As economies expand and industries grow, there is an increased demand for energy, transportation, and resources, which can lead to congestion, pollution, and resource depletion.
Economic growth involves increased production and consumption, which can result in increased pollution levels, congested cities due to increased transportation demand, and the depletion of natural resources like forests, minerals, and water. Rapid industrialization and urbanization, often seen in developing countries, can exacerbate these issues. Consequently, sustainable development practices and environmental regulations are necessary to mitigate the negative impacts of economic growth and ensure long-term well-being.
It is crucial to recognize that economic growth, while important for improving living standards, can have adverse effects on the environment and natural resources. Sustainable development strategies that balance economic growth with environmental preservation are essential for a prosperous and environmentally conscious future.
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Oregon Corp.’s stock transactions during the year were as follows:
January 1: 320,000 shares issued and outstanding.
April 1: 1 for 2 reverse stock split occurred.
July 1: Acquisition of Smith, Inc. in exchange for issuance of 60,000 shares in an acquisition method transaction.
October 1: 30,000 shares issued for cash.
What is Oregon’s weighted average number of shares outstanding?
a) 197,500
b) 250,000
c) 277,500
d) 167,500
the weighted average number of shares outstanding for Oregon Corp is 732,500.
The weighted average number of shares outstanding for Oregon Corp can be calculated using the following steps: First, we'll need to calculate the total number of shares outstanding for each transaction: On January 1, the number of shares outstanding is 320,000 shares.On April 1, the 1 for 2 reverse stock split occurred. This means that the number of shares outstanding was reduced by half.320,000 / 2
= 160,000 shares were outstanding on April 1.On July 1, 60,000 shares were issued as part of the acquisition of Smith, Inc. The total number of shares outstanding is now 320,000 + 60,000
= 380,000 shares.On October 1, 30,000 shares were issued for cash. The total number of shares outstanding is now 380,000 + 30,000
= 410,000 shares. Now we'll calculate the weighted average number of shares outstanding: Weighted Average Shares Outstanding
= (Number of Shares x Fraction of Year) + (Number of Shares x Fraction of Year) + ...
Let's first calculate the fraction of the year that each number of shares was outstanding for. On January 1, 320,000 shares were outstanding for the entire year, so the fraction of the year that they were outstanding is 1.0.On April 1, 160,000 shares were outstanding for 9 months of the year, so the fraction of the year that they were outstanding is 9/12
= 0.75.On July 1, 380,000 shares were outstanding for 6 months of the year, so the fraction of the year that they were outstanding is 6/12
= 0.5.On October 1, 410,000 shares were outstanding for 3 months of the year, so the fraction of the year that they were outstanding is 3/12
= 0.25.Now we'll substitute these values into the formula:Weighted Average Shares Outstanding
= (320,000 x 1.0) + (160,000 x 0.75) + (380,000 x 0.5) + (410,000 x 0.25) Weighted Average Shares Outstanding
= 320,000 + 120,000 + 190,000 + 102,500
Weighted Average Shares Outstanding
= 732,500
Therefore, the weighted average number of shares outstanding for Oregon Corp is 732,500. The answer is not in the options provided, but
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The Average Variable Cost (AVC) function of a production unit at a certain level of output is AVC = 100 - 15Q + Q2 The Average Fixed Cost (AFC) at this level of output is $50.
(i) Find the output at which the MC (Marginal Cost) is minimum.
(ii) Find the output at which Average Cost (AC) is minimum.
(iii) On the basis of the MC and AC values show the relation between MC and AC with the help of a correct figure
The output at which the MC (Marginal Cost) is minimum can be found by taking the derivative of the AVC function with respect to Q and setting it equal to zero.
To find the derivative of the AVC function, we differentiate each term with respect to Q:
d(AVC)/dQ = -15 + 2Q
Setting the derivative equal to zero:
-15 + 2Q = 0
Solving for Q:
2Q = 15
Q = 15/2
Q = 7.5
Therefore, the output at which the MC is minimum is 7.5 units.
The output at which the Average Cost (AC) is minimum can be found by summing the Average Variable Cost (AVC) and Average Fixed Cost (AFC) at each level of output and finding the minimum value.
The Average Cost (AC) is calculated by adding the Average Variable Cost (AVC) and Average Fixed Cost (AFC) together:
AC = AVC + AFC
Given that AFC is $50, we can substitute it into the equation:
AC = AVC + 50
To find the output at which AC is minimum, we need to find the value of Q that minimizes AC. This can be done by differentiating AC with respect to Q and setting it equal to zero.Unfortunately, since the AVC function is not provided, we cannot calculate the specific output at which AC is minimum.
At output levels above this point, MC is above AC, causing AC to increase. The point of intersection between MC and AC represents the output level at which the cost per unit of output is minimized. By comparing the MC and AC values at different levels of output, we can determine the efficiency and cost structure of the production unit.
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Alyssa Marshall practices law under the business title Alyssa
Marshall, Attorney at Law, Inc. During June, her law practice
engaged in the following transactions:
journalize each transaction. No expla
ht More info Jun 1 Sold $55,000 of common stock to Marshall to start the business. 3 Paid $900 for the purchase of office supplies. 8 Paid $18,000 cash to purchase land for an office site. 12 Purchase
Although there is disagreement about the precise definition of law, it is usually accepted to be a set of rules enacted and implemented by social institutions or the government to control behavior. It has been called both science and the practice of justice in diverse contexts.
Law is a discipline and profession that deals with communal norms and regulations of conduct that are accepted as binding through the community. A governing authority oversees the body of regulations' application.
Social science is also studied in the study of law. Humans try to control our interpersonal, societal, economic, and political interactions through the employment of laws. Studying law entails learning about the nature of those connections.
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Since the beginning of the year, the U.S. rate of inflation has hovered near 8% per year. To reduce this inflation, on April 7, Federal Reserve Chairman Jerome Powell stated that the Fed would combat inflation by reducing its existing bond buying program that was begun to assist the economy during the coronavirus pandemic. Between March 3 and April 6, the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) increased from 34,364 points to 35,768 points, an increase of nearly 5%. [The DJIA is a U.S. stock market index showing the stocks of 30 publicly-owned American companies.] Between April 7 and May 5, the DJIA decreased by 7%, culminating in a 862-point drop on May 5. Which of the answer choices best explains this occurrence in the DJIA stock market? a If the Fed ends its bond buying, then this will increase interest rates. The return on bonds increases relative to the return on stocks. The increase in the interest rate also causes spending to decrease, so that revenues and profits decrease, making companies' stocks less valuable. b If the Fed ends its bond buying, then this will increase interest rates. The return on bonds decreases relative to the return on stocks. The increase in the interest rate also causes spending to increase, so that revenues and profits increase, making companies' stocks less valuable. c If the Fed ends its bond buying, then this will decrease interest rates. The return on bonds increases relative to the return on stocks. The decrease in the interest rate also causes spending to decrease, so that revenues and profits decrease, making companies' stocks more valuable. d If the Fed ends its bond buying, then this will decrease interest rates. The return on bonds decreases relative to the return on stocks. The decrease in the interest rate also causes spending to increase, so that revenues and profits increase, making companies' stocks more valuable.
Since the start of the year, the U.S. inflation rate has been circling about 8% annually. On April 7 is when this inflation will be reduced. Interest rates will rise if the Fed stops purchasing bonds. Compared to the return on stocks, the return on bonds declines. Spending rises as a result of the interest rate hike, boosting revenues and profits yet decreasing the value of a company's shares. Therefore, (B) is the best choice.
The reasons for inflation are a topic of debate among economists. Most often, fluctuations in the real demand for goods and services or changes in the supply, such as those that occur during scarcities, are blamed for low or moderate U.S. inflation.
Both positive and negative effects of moderate inflation may be seen in economies.
The drawbacks would be an increase in the opportunity Interest rates cost of holding money, uncertainty about future inflation, which might deter investment and savings, and, if inflation were to occur too quickly, shortages of goods as people started stockpiling in anticipation of price increases.
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The Deductible is always subtracted from the Medicare allowed Medicare allowed charge minus deductible = a specific dollar value the specific dollar value x 80% = Medicare payment the specific dollar value x 20% + deductible (if owed) = Patient’s payment Dr’s courtesy adjustment is Dr’s bill minus (-) Medicare allowed Mr. Smith has Medicare Parts A and B coverage. He was well during the entire past year. On January 1, Mr. Smith is rushed to the hospital, where Dr. Input performs an emergency gastric resection. The hospital bills Medicare under the Part A coverage. The physician bills $865.00 for surgical services. The doctor agrees to accept assignment. The patient has not paid any deductible. The Medicare deductible is $175.00 Medicare allows $ 800.00 for the procedure Complete the following statements by putting in the correct amounts Patient payment is $ _____________________________
$300.00
$550.00
$675.00
$280.00
The patient payment is $280.00.
Explanation:
Step 1: The Medicare allowable charge for the procedure is calculated. In this case, it is $800.00.
Step 2: The deductible amount is subtracted from the Medicare allowable charge. The deductible is $175.00, so the calculation is $800.00 - $175.00 = $625.00.
Step 3: The Medicare payment split is calculated. Medicare covers 80% of the Medicare allowable charge. Therefore, the Medicare payment is 80% of $625.00, which is $500.00.
Step 4: The remaining amount owed to the doctor is calculated by adding the deductible ($175.00) to the 20% of the bill that the patient is responsible for paying. The patient is responsible for 20% of the Medicare allowable charge, which is $125.00. So, the calculation is $175.00 + $125.00 = $300.00.
Step 5: The doctor's courtesy adjustment is calculated. The doctor's bill is $865.00, and the Medicare allowable charge is $800.00. So, the courtesy adjustment is $865.00 - $800.00 = $65.00.
Step 6: The patient payment is calculated by subtracting the courtesy adjustment from the amount owed to the doctor. The calculation is $300.00 - $65.00 = $235.00.
Therefore, the patient payment is $235.00.
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Eileen inherits $20,000 from her uncle and deposits the money into an account at Silver Star Bank. Silver Star has a required reserve ratio of 10 percent, meaning it must keep of Eileen's deposit in reserve. O $10,000 O $18,000 O $2,000 O $8,000 Question 51 1 pts Grapevine Bank receives a deposit of $200,000. Its required reserve ratio is 12 percent. How much of this deposit is available to be loaned to borrowers? $200,000 O $12,000 O $24,000 $176,000
Eileen's deposit of $20,000 at Silver Star Bank would require a reserve of $2,000 (10% of $20,000) to be held, leaving $18,000 available to be loaned to borrowers.
Grapevine Bank's deposit of $200,000 with a required reserve ratio of 12% would require a reserve of $24,000 (12% of $200,000) to be held, leaving $176,000 available to be loaned to borrowers.
For Eileen's deposit of $20,000 at Silver Star Bank:
Required reserve ratio: 10%
Reserve required to be held: $20,000 x 10% = $2,000
Amount available to be loaned: $20,000 - $2,000 = $18,000
For Grapevine Bank's deposit of $200,000:
Required reserve ratio: 12%
Reserve required to be held: $200,000 x 12% = $24,000
Amount available to be loaned: $200,000 - $24,000 = $176,000
Eileen's deposit of $20,000 at Silver Star Bank allows $18,000 to be available for loans after accounting for the required reserve of $2,000 (10% of the deposit).
Grapevine Bank's deposit of $200,000 allows $176,000 to be available for loans after accounting for the required reserve of $24,000 (12% of the deposit).
These calculations demonstrate the impact of the required reserve ratio on the amount of money that banks can loan out from customer deposits while keeping the mandated reserves.
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Mar. 2 Issued 5,700 shares of $5 par value common stock to attorneys in payment of a bill for $34,200 for services performed in helping the company to incorporate.
June 12 Issued 68,000 shares of $5 par value common stock for cash of $425,000.
July 11 Issued 1,400 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for cash at $111 per share.
Nov. 28 Purchased 1,500 shares of treasury stock for $60,000.
Journalize the transactions.
Journalizing the transactions: Journalizing transactions is the process of recording the financial transactions of a company in a journal. The following are the journal entries that should be made as a result of the given transactions:
March 2:Issued 5,700 shares of $5 par value common stock to attorneys in payment of a bill for $34,200 for services performed in helping the company to incorporate.
$28,500 will be credited to Common Stock and $5,700 will be credited to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock to record the issuance of the stock.
June 12:Issued 68,000 shares of $5 par value common stock for cash of $425,000.
The following journal entry will be made:Cash 425,000 Common Stock 340,000 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock 85,000 July 11:Issued 1,400 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for cash at $111 per share.
Cash will be credited with $155,400, Preferred Stock will be credited with $140,000, and Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Preferred Stock will be credited with $15,400.
Nov. 28:Purchased 1,500 shares of treasury stock for $60,000. Treasury stock is debited with $60,000, and cash is credited with $60,000. Treasury stock is a contra equity account that reflects the amount paid for shares of a company's stock that has been repurchased by the company.
Treasury stock purchases reduce a company's total equity and should be viewed as a use of cash.
Thus, Treasury Stock will be debited, and Cash will be credited. Therefore, the given transactions' journal entries are as follows:March 2:Common Stock 28,500Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock 5,700To Lawyers in Payment of Bill
June 12:Cash 425,000 Common Stock 340,000 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock 85,000 Issued 68,000 shares of $5 par value common stock for cash of $425,000.July 11:Cash 155,400 Preferred Stock 140,000 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Preferred Stock 15,400 Issued 1,400 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for cash at $111 per share.
Nov. 28:Treasury Stock 60,000Cash 60,000Purchased 1,500 shares of treasury stock for $60,000.
Answer: Journalizing transactions is the process of recording the financial transactions of a company in a journal.
The following are the journal entries that should be made as a result of the given transactions:
March 2:Common Stock 28,500 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock 5,700 To Lawyers in Payment of Bill
June 12:Cash 425,000 Common Stock 340,000 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Common Stock 85,000 Issued 68,000 shares of $5 par value common stock for cash of $425,000.
July 11:Cash 155,400 Preferred Stock 140,000 Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value Preferred Stock 15,400 Issued 1,400 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for cash at $111 per share.
Nov. 28:Treasury Stock 60,000 Cash 60,000 Purchased 1,500 shares of treasury stock for $60,000.
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Differences between pretax financial accounting and taxable income that are expected to reverse in one or more future accounting periods are called
a. temporary differences.
b. material differences.
c. permanent differences.
d. partial differences.
The differences between pretax financial accounting and taxable income that are expected to reverse in one or more future accounting periods are called temporary differences. Thus, option a) is correct.
Temporary differences are the differences between the tax basis of an asset or liability and its reported amount on the balance sheet. Temporary differences that will result in a taxable amount or a tax-deductible amount in future periods are temporary differences. Pretax financial accounting is a set of accounting principles and standards used to prepare financial statements.
The principles aim to represent the actual financial condition of a company, irrespective of any tax regulations. The tax rules in a given country determine the amount of tax that a corporation is liable to pay. Pretax accounting methods do not include taxes in their calculations.
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Which of the following assets is the most liquid? O pounds of wheat O checking account balances O savings account balances O stocks Question 41 Which of the following is part of the M1 definition of money? demand deposits stocks savings deposits O time deposits
checking account balances assets is the most liquid of the given following options.
Liquidity refers to the degree to which an asset can be quickly and easily converted into cash. The most liquid asset is the one that can be converted into cash most quickly and easily. Checking account balances are considered the most liquid asset because they can be withdrawn as cash or used for electronic transactions almost immediately.
M1 refers to a narrow definition of the money supply that includes only the most liquid forms of money. Checking account balances are part of the M1 definition of money, along with physical currency, traveler's checks, and some other types of deposits.
In summary, checking account balances are the most liquid asset because they can be quickly and easily converted to cash or used for electronic transactions. They are also a part of the M1 definition of money because of their high level of liquidity.
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What would you propose a parent maximizes if you want to analyze what a parent does with respect to their child?
Give two examples of actions by parents that you would expect to observe if they do maximize what you stated in (1) above. Explain in short.
If we want to analyze what a parent does with respect to their child, I would propose that a parent maximizes the well-being or the long-term development of their child.
When parents prioritize the well-being or long-term development of their child, they make decisions and take actions that aim to provide the best possible environment, support, and opportunities for their child's growth and development. This includes ensuring their physical and emotional needs are met, promoting their education and learning, fostering a supportive and nurturing relationship, and cultivating their social and emotional skills.
Examples of actions by parents that can be expected if they prioritize the well-being or long-term development of their child:
Investing in their child's education: Parents who prioritize their child's well-being and long-term development may actively invest in their education. They may enroll their child in quality schools, provide resources for additional educational activities, support their academic pursuits, and encourage a love for learning.
Providing emotional support and nurturing: Parents who prioritize their child's well-being focus on creating a loving and supportive environment. They provide emotional support, listen to their child's concerns, and engage in open and meaningful communication. They promote a secure attachment bond, offer guidance, and help their child develop resilience and coping skills.
When parents prioritize the well-being or long-term development of their child, they are likely to engage in actions that promote education, emotional support, and overall growth. This includes investing in their child's education and providing emotional support and nurturing. By understanding the priorities and actions of parents, we can gain insights into their motivations and goals for raising their children, which can help inform policies, programs, and interventions aimed at supporting parents in their role and ultimately benefiting the well-being and development of children.
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Consider an Australian investor who borrows money in pounds from a UK bank at an interest rate of 4.1 per cent, in order to buy Australian shares. After one year, the shares have increased in price by 6 per cent, while the Australian dollar has appreciated against the pound by 5 per cent. If the investor then sells the shares and repays the loan and interest, what is the approximate net gain or loss expressed as a percentage of the original amount borrowed? (Assume the shares have paid no dividends.) a 3.1 per cent b 6.9 per cent c -10.1 per cent d -15.1 per cent
Investments are made with the intention of making a profit or acquiring an advantage down the road. The bulk of the time, the investor uses this allocated cash to buy some sort of property.
Any person or other organization (such as a company or mutual fund) that invests money in the hopes of making a profit is referred to as an investor.
Anyone who takes monetary choices with the hope of profiting or getting an edge in the future is said to be investing. The bulk of the time, the investor uses this allocated cash to buy some sort of property.
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the public affairs office (pao) conducts prepublication reviews for which of the following considerations? select all that apply.
The Public Affairs Office (PAO) conducts prepublication reviews for the following considerations:
To prevent the unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
To ensure adherence to laws and regulations governing the release of information.
To protect national security interests.
To maintain the integrity and reputation of the organization or agency.
To prevent potential conflicts of interest or the appearance of impropriety.
To maintain the privacy rights of individuals or groups.
The PAO conducts prepublication reviews to ensure that any information that is released publicly is cleared for dissemination and that it complies with applicable laws and regulations. The primary considerations for conducting prepublication reviews are to protect national security interests, prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information, and safeguard the reputation of the agency or organization. Additionally, prepublication reviews may be conducted to prevent conflicts of interest, protect privacy rights, and ensure that released information is accurate and helpful to the public.
The PAO conducts prepublication reviews for six primary considerations: preventing the unauthorized disclosure of classified information, ensuring adherence to laws and regulations, protecting national security interests, maintaining the integrity and reputation of the organization or agency, preventing potential conflicts of interest, and protecting the privacy rights of individuals or groups.
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CMS takes the view that social and organizational structures are instrumental in corporation effects, many times more so than individuals who are constrained by those structures. How does this challenge your current beliefs about what management is and does?
How would you integrate CMS with the ideas of management as a profession?
The perspective of Critical Management Studies (CMS) challenges the conventional belief that individuals are the primary drivers of corporate outcomes.
Instead, CMS emphasizes the significance of social and organizational structures, suggesting that these structures have a more substantial influence on organizations than individual actions.
This challenges the traditional understanding of management and its role. Integrating CMS with the concept of management as a profession requires recognizing the impact of systemic structures on managerial decision-making, understanding the power dynamics within organizations, and promoting ethical and responsible management practices
The CMS perspective poses a significant challenge to the prevailing notion of management, which often attributes organizational success or failure to individual managers. CMS argues that managerial decisions and actions are heavily influenced and constrained by social and organizational structures. This challenges the belief that managers have complete autonomy and control over corporate outcomes. Instead, CMS suggests that understanding the systemic structures, power dynamics, and cultural contexts within organizations is crucial for comprehending how management operates.
Integrating CMS with the idea of management as a profession necessitates a reevaluation of the role and responsibilities of managers. It requires acknowledging that management is not solely about individual expertise or skills but also involves navigating complex organizational systems. CMS highlights the importance of ethical considerations, social responsibility, and sustainability in managerial decision-making. By integrating CMS principles into the concept of management as a profession, managers are encouraged to critically analyze and challenge existing power structures, promote inclusivity, and foster environments that facilitate meaningful collaboration and innovation.
Furthermore, incorporating CMS into management as a profession fosters a broader understanding of managerial competence. It recognizes the need for managers to possess a deep awareness of the social, political, and cultural contexts in which organizations operate. This includes understanding the impact of power relations, cultural biases, and structural inequalities on managerial practices. By embracing CMS, management as a profession can evolve to become more reflective, inclusive, and focused on societal well-being rather than solely on individual achievements or organizational profitability.
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Boogie Man: The Lee Atwater Story
What scandal damaged the reputation of George H. W. Bush going into the 1988 presidential campaign?
What was the only sport that Atwater liked? Why?
Who made the pledge, "Read my lips: No new taxes!"?
What image of the South and Republicans did Atwater enjoy exaggerating for the sake of the slow-play?
The scandal that damaged the reputation of George H. W. Bush going into the 1988 presidential campaign was the Iran-Contra Affair.
This scandal involved the illegal sale of weapons to Iran and the use of proceeds to fund anti-Sandinista rebels in Nicaragua, which raised questions about the administration's integrity and adherence to the law.
The only sport that Lee Atwater, the subject of the documentary, "Boogie Man: The Lee Atwater Story," liked was football. This is mentioned in the film, highlighting Atwater's passion for the sport and possibly implying that it played a significant role in his life or personality.
The pledge "Read my lips: No new taxes!" was made by George H. W. Bush during his 1988 presidential campaign. It was a prominent statement that Bush used to convey his commitment to not increase taxes, but he later had to break this promise due to economic circumstances, which had a negative impact on his public perception and trust.
In the documentary, Atwater is depicted as someone who enjoyed exaggerating and exploiting racial and regional divisions in the South for political gain. This portrayal suggests that he embraced and amplified negative stereotypes of the South and Republicans for strategic purposes, emphasizing the slow-play approach to politics that Atwater employed.
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During the last 200 years, the necessary and proper clause has been applied to justify
a. the expanion of the state government
b. the reducation of state courts.
c. the reduction of the federal government
d. the expansion of the federal government
During the last 200 years, the necessary and proper clause has been applied to justify the expansion of the federal government. (Option D)
The necessary and proper clause, also known as the elastic clause, is found in Article I, Section 8, Clause 18 of the United States Constitution. It grants Congress the power to make all laws that are necessary and proper for carrying out its enumerated powers.
Over the past 200 years, the necessary and proper clause has been interpreted by the courts to expand the powers of the federal government. It has been invoked to justify various actions and legislation that extend the reach and authority of the federal government, such as the establishment of regulatory agencies, the enactment of social welfare programs, and the regulation of interstate commerce.
The application of the necessary and proper clause has often been controversial, with debates about the extent of federal power and the balance between federal and state authority. However, overall, it has been primarily used to support and justify the expansion of the federal government's role and responsibilities in governing the nation.
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Transformational versus transactional leadership describes two leadership styles commonly associated with senior leaders of corporations (Chapter 9). Which of these types of leadership do you think Robert Stevens represents? Support your answer.
Leadership is the ability of an individual or a group of people to influence and guide followers or members of an organization, society, or team.
Transformational and transactional leadership are the two most common leadership styles associated with corporate senior leaders. The two leadership styles differ significantly, with transformational leadership focused on change, growth, and development and transactional leadership focused on maintaining the status quo and efficiency. Robert Stevens is best represented by transactional leadership, as he was focused on maintaining the status quo and efficiency. Stevens was not a change agent and did not lead his company through transformational change, which is a key characteristic of transformational leadership. His leadership style is more focused on the day-to-day operations of his company and ensuring that it is running smoothly. Stevens' leadership style was effective in achieving his goals, as his company remained competitive and successful during his tenure. Overall, it is clear that Stevens' leadership style was transactional rather than transformational.
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he following T-accounts reflect the correct posting of a journal entry on January 9, 2017 by Bailey Company: Cash (Credit Side of Ledger) 10,000 Accounts Payable (Debit Side of Ledger) 10,000 What transaction is represented by the posting? O al Ob Ok d Bailey bought supplies on credit from a supplier for $10,000 on credit. Bailey bought supplies from a supplier for $10,000 cash. Bailey sold inventory to a customer for $10,000 on credit. Bailey paid a supplier $10,000 cash to pay down the amount owing on their account. What types of account balances are increased by credits? à Assets and Liabilities b Liabilities and revenues Owners' equity and expenses Revenues and expenses
The transaction represented by the posting is: Bailey bought supplies on credit from a supplier for $10,000.
The journal entry shows an increase of $10,000 on the credit side of the Cash account and an equal increase of $10,000 on the debit side of the Accounts Payable account. This indicates that Bailey purchased supplies on credit, meaning they acquired the supplies without paying cash immediately but instead creating an accounts payable liability to the supplier. This transaction is commonly recorded when a company obtains goods or services on credit terms, agreeing to pay the amount owed at a later date.
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Which of the following is NOT true of structural unemployment? Select one: a. It results from scarcity of information. b. It results from industry restructuring. c. It is persistent over time. d. It is long-term in duration.
The statement "a. It results from scarcity of information" is NOT true of structural unemployment.
Structural unemployment primarily arises from factors such as industry restructuring, changes in technology, or shifts in the demand for certain skills in the labor market. It is not caused by a scarcity of information.
Scarcity of information typically relates to frictional unemployment, which occurs when individuals are temporarily searching for jobs or transitioning between jobs due to limited access to job market information. Frictional unemployment is driven by factors such as information asymmetry or search frictions in the labor market.
On the other hand, structural unemployment refers to a situation where the skills and qualifications of workers do not align with the available job opportunities due to underlying structural changes in the economy. It tends to be persistent over time and can be long-term in duration as workers need to acquire new skills or find alternative industries in which their skills are in demand.
Therefore, the correct answer is a. It results from scarcity of information.
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"Bottom Line, Inc.'s net income for the year was $24M. Its interest expense was $7M and its depreciation was $2M. Find the operating cash flow (in $MM) if the tax rate is 10%."
33.0
32.3
46.9
21.6
24.0
The operating cash if the tax rate is 10% would be 24.0.
To calculate the operating cash flow, we need to start with the net income and make adjustments for non-cash expenses and changes in working capital. The formula for operating cash flow is as follows:
Operating Cash Flow = Net Income + Depreciation - Taxes
Given:
Net Income = $24 million
Depreciation = $2 million
Tax Rate = 10%
Let's calculate the operating cash flow:
Operating Cash Flow = $24 million + $2 million - (0.10 * $24 million)
Operating Cash Flow = $24 million + $2 million - $2.4 million
Operating Cash Flow = $24 million - $0.4 million
Operating Cash Flow = $23.6 million
The operating cash flow is $23.6 million.
Among the given options, the closest value to the calculated operating cash flow is: 24.0
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B4. Estimating Abnormal Returns Information. Desmond Ltd announced its earnings results on 20th February. The table shows the price of Desmond shares, the return on a treasury note, and the overall market index for 19th and 20th February. Desmond has a beta of 2 Date Price ($) T-note (%) Market (Index) 19 Feb 4.00 5.25 5000 20 Feb 4.60 5.25 5050 Requirements. Answer the following questions: Q1. What was the return on Desmond shares on 20th February? Q2. What was the return on a treasury note on 20th February? Q3. What was the return on the market on 20th February? Q4. What was the expected return on Desmond shares on 20th February? Q5. What was the abnormal return on Desmond shares on 20th February?
Q1. The return on Desmond shares on 20th February is 15%. Return on Desmond shares = (Price on 20th Feb - Price on 19th Feb) / Price on 19th Feb
= (4.60 - 4.00) / 4.00
= 0.60 / 4.00
= 0.15 or 15%
Q2. Return on treasury note on 20th February:
Return on treasury note = T-note (%) / 100
= 5.25 / 100
= 0.0525 or 5.25%
Q3. Return on the market on 20th February:
Return on the market = (Market Index on 20th Feb - Market Index on 19th Feb) / Market Index on 19th Feb
= (5050 - 5000) / 5000
= 50 / 5000
= 0.01 or 1%
Q4. Expected return on Desmond shares on 20th February:
Expected return = Risk-free rate + Beta * (Return on the market - Risk-free rate)
Assuming the risk-free rate is the same as the treasury note rate:
Expected return = 5.25% + 2 * (1% - 5.25%)
= 5.25% + 2 * (-4.25%)
= 5.25% - 8.5%
= -3.25% or -0.0325
Q5. Abnormal return on Desmond shares on 20th February:
Abnormal return = Return on Desmond shares - Expected return
= 15% - (-3.25%)
= 15% + 3.25%
= 18.25% or 0.1825
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what happens when an independent contractor agreement does not lay out the financial agreement between the salesperson and the broker?
When an independent contractor agreement does not lay out the financial agreement between the salesperson and the broker, it may mean that the broker is not legally obligated to pay the salesperson a salary or commission rate.
This could lead to a lot of confusion, misunderstandings, and disputes between the broker and salesperson. Financial agreements in independent contractor agreements are important because they help clarify the terms of payment for the salesperson. This can include the commission rate, sales volume requirements, payment schedules, and other important financial details. Basically, without a clear financial agreement between the broker and salesperson, the salesperson may be paid on commission based on sales volume. The lack of a financial agreement may also make it harder to resolve disputes if one party believes they are being treated unfairly. Therefore, it is always advisable for both parties to clearly lay out their financial agreements in writing before entering into an independent contractor agreement.
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Your firm is currently paying $3,000 a year to a commercial garbage collection agency to haul waste paper to the city dump. The paper could be sold as waste paper if it were baled and strapped. A paper baler is available at the following conditions:
Purchase price = $6,500
Labor to operate baler = $3,500/year
Strapping material = $300/year
Life of baler = 30 years
Salvage value = $500
MARR = 10%/year
If it is estimated that 500 bales would be produced per year, what would the selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer have to be to make this project acceptable? Assume no inflation
The selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer have to be $24.65 to make this project acceptable.
Here is the explanation: Firstly, find the cost of owning and operating the baler for the project life:
Cost of owning and operating the baler = $6,500 + $3,500 + $300 [ A / P, i, n ] + $500 [P/F, i, n ]= $6,500 + $3,500 + ($300 × 6.1446) + ($500 × 0.38697) = $6,500 + $3,500 + $1,843.38 + $193.485 = $11,036.87
Find the equivalent annual cost of owning and operating the baler: EAC = A / [ (P/A, i, n) ] = $11,036.87 / [ (P/A, 10%, 30) ]= $11,036.87 / 6.71008= $1,643.32 per year
Total costs for this project are the annual cost of owning and operating the baler plus the annual waste collection cost: Total costs = $1,643.32 + $3,000 = $4,643.32 per year
Next, determine the revenue per bale: Revenue per bale = total costs / number of bales per year= $4,643.32 / 500= $9.29 per bale Find the selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer by adding the MARR to the revenue per bale: Selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer = Revenue per bale + MARR= $9.29 + 10% of $9.29= $9.29 + $0.93= $10.22 per bale
Finally, find the selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer that makes this project acceptable by dividing the total cost of owning and operating the baler by the number of bales per year and adding this quotient to the revenue per bale:
Selling price per bale to a wastepaper dealer that makes the project acceptable= (Total cost of owning and operating the baler / number of bales per year) + revenue per bale= ($11,036.87 / 500) + $9.29= $22.07 + $2.58= $24.65 per bale.
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Which is not a direct benefit of building personal resilience?
Increased motivation.
Improved performance.
Increased happiness at work.
Elimination of adversity.
The term that is not a direct benefit of building personal resilience is "Elimination of adversity." Resilience refers to the capability to recover and adjust oneself when faced with adversity or negative situations.
It also allows individuals to develop new strategies to address personal and professional challenges. A resilient person understands that adversities and difficulties are a part of life and that it is important to develop the coping mechanisms required to survive and grow during challenging times. Therefore, one of the benefits of building personal resilience is increased motivation, improved performance, and increased happiness at work. However, the elimination of adversity is not a direct benefit of building personal resilience. This is because adversity is an integral part of life, and it is impossible to avoid it.
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