Sort two features into each stage of translation they describe.
Elongation
Initiation
Termination
The ribosome shifts exactly one codon to the right.
The ribozyme present in the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation.
The mRNA binds to the small subunit of a ribosome.
A methionine-carrying tRNA has an anticodon UAC that occupies the AUG site of mRNA at the 5' end.
The stop codon present on mRNA does not code for any amino acid.
The ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and polypeptide chain separate.

Answers

Answer 1

Elongation:

The ribosome shifts exactly one codon to the right.

The ribozyme present in the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation

Initiation:

The mRNA binds to the small subunit of a ribosome.

A methionine-carrying tRNA has an anticodon UAC that occupies the AUG site of mRNA at the 5' end.

Termination:

The stop codon present on mRNA does not code for any amino acid.

The ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and polypeptide chain separate.

So, the features for each stage of translation are as follows:

Elongation: Ribosome shifts codon to the right, Ribozyme catalyzes peptide bond formation.

Initiation: mRNA binds to small ribosomal subunit, Methionine-carrying tRNA occupies AUG site.

Termination: Stop codon does not code for amino acid, Ribosomal subunits separate.

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Answer 2

The stop codon present on mRNA does not code for any amino acid. 2. The ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and polypeptide chain separate.

Elongation:
- The ribosome shifts exactly one codon to the right.
- The ribozyme present in the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation.

Initiation:
- The mRNA binds to the small subunit of a ribosome.
- A methionine-carrying tRNA has an anticodon UAC that occupies the AUG site of mRNA at the 5' end.

Termination:
- The stop codon present on mRNA does not code for any amino acid.
- The ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and polypeptide chain separate.

Note: The terms "initiation", "translation", and "ribosomal" are all related to the process of protein synthesis. Initiation refers to the beginning of translation, translation refers to the process of mRNA being translated into a protein, and ribosomal refers to the involvement of ribosomes in this process.

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Related Questions

q19. how is the magnification affected (increases, decreases or remains the same)

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The magnification is **affected** by changes in the distance between the object and the lens, or by adjusting the focal length of the lens. The magnification can **increase, decrease, or remain the same** depending on the specific adjustments made.

In a microscope or telescope, for example, changing the distance between the object and the lens, or adjusting the focal length of the lens, can alter the magnification. When the distance between the object and the lens decreases, or the focal length increases, the magnification typically increases. Conversely, when the distance between the object and the lens increases, or the focal length decreases, the magnification generally decreases. However, if there are no changes in the distance or focal length, the magnification will remain the same. By understanding how these factors influence magnification, it becomes possible to adjust the magnification according to the desired observation or application.

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why do the body's energy requirements decrease with age? because

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The specific energy needs can vary among individuals based on factors such as body composition, activity level, and health status. So, energy requirements may decrease with age.

The body's energy requirements decrease with age due to several factors:

Metabolic rate decline: As individuals age, their metabolic rate tends to decrease. Metabolic rate refers to the energy expenditure required for bodily functions at rest. A decline in metabolic rate means the body requires fewer calories to sustain basic physiological processes.Loss of lean muscle mass: With aging, there is often a gradual loss of lean muscle mass, a condition known as sarcopenia. Muscle tissue is metabolically active and requires energy for maintenance. As muscle mass decreases, the overall energy needs of the body also decline.Decreased physical activity: Older adults may generally have a more sedentary lifestyle compared to younger individuals, resulting in reduced physical activity levels. Lower levels of physical activity translate to fewer calories being burned, further contributing to decreased energy requirements.Changes in hormone levels: Hormonal changes that occur with age, such as a decline in growth hormone and sex hormone levels, can affect metabolism and energy expenditure. These hormonal shifts can lead to decreased energy requirements.

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Based on these data, at which respiratory complex does itaconate act? Explain your answer. Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentence on the right. - complex III
- complex IV
- complex I - reduced - complex II - oxidized Itaconate acts at ___ Succinate is ___ by __ (succinate dehydrogenase), which catalyzes transfer of electrons from succinate to CoQ. Rotenone is included to block reverse electron flow from reduced CoQH2 back through ___ The glutamate and pyruvate are both ___ by ___
Ascorbate/TMPD is___ by ___
Only the succinate/rotenone reaction (___) was inhibited by itaconate

Answers

Based on the provided data, itaconate acts at Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase).

In the given sentence, the words that match the appropriate blanks are as follows:

Itaconate acts at ___: Complex IISuccinate is ___ by __ (succinate dehydrogenase): oxidizedwhich catalyzes the transfer of electrons from succinate to CoQ.Rotenone is included to block reverse electron flow from reduced CoQH2 back through ___: Complex IThe glutamate and pyruvate are both ___ by ___: oxidized, Complex IVAscorbate/TMPD is___ by ___: reduced, Complex IVOnly the succinate/rotenone reaction (___) was inhibited by itaconate.

Itaconate acts at Complex II, also known as succinate dehydrogenase. Succinate dehydrogenase is responsible for catalyzing the transfer of electrons from succinate to CoQ (Coenzyme Q) in the electron transport chain.

From this information, we can conclude that itaconate acts specifically at Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) in the respiratory chain, inhibiting the succinate/rotenone reaction.

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what is controlled by the side dial on a telescopic sight?

Answers

The side dial on a telescopic sight is commonly known as the parallax adjustment dial. It is a control mechanism for correcting parallax.

Parallax is the discrepancy between the target and the crosshairs when the eye is not centered on the optical axis. By adjusting the side dial on a telescopic sight, the image can be brought into better focus and parallax can be minimized to a great extent.However, some sights are made in such a way that they do not have the side parallax adjustment. Instead, they have an adjustable objective lens that is adjusted to the correct distance, allowing the shooter to get a parallax-free view of the target through the sight. The distance to the target will determine how the shooter adjusts the scope to achieve the parallax-free view.

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which of the following would decrease gas diffusion between alveoli and blood?
a. decreased resistance b. increased compliance c. thick scar tissue forming around the alveolar sacs d. breathing deeply

Answers

Thick scar tissue forming around the alveolar sacs would decrease gas diffusion between alveoli and blood. The correct answer is c.

Scar tissue formation around the alveolar sacs can lead to a decrease in the surface area available for gas exchange and can also lead to an increase in the thickness of the alveolar membrane, making it more difficult for gases to diffuse across.

This can ultimately lead to a decrease in the efficiency of gas exchange between the lungs and the blood. Decreased resistance (a) and increased compliance (b) would actually improve gas diffusion between alveoli and blood, while breathing deeply (d) would increase ventilation and improve gas exchange, but would not directly affect gas diffusion.

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which of the following occurs when a bone is caused to twist about the longitudinal axis? question 2 options: a. compression b. tension c. torsion d. none of the above

Answers

When a bone is caused to twist about the longitudinal axis, it is called torsion. The correct answer is option(c).

Torsion is a type of mechanical stress that causes the bone to twist along its axis, which can lead to fractures or other injuries. This type of stress is often seen in sports or activities that involve sudden changes in direction or repetitive twisting motions, such as soccer, basketball, or gymnastics.

Torsion can also occur as a result of trauma or accidents, such as car crashes or falls. It is important to properly treat and rehabilitate torsion injuries in order to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing.

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helllo i need an answer to this fast

Answers

The flow of water gradually removes material to form a canyon. The presence of dripping water and thick soil in this model illustrates the natural processes responsible for canyon creation.  

The claim that material is gradually removed by the passage of water to build canyons is Option D's best explanation of how the model illustrates canyon creation.

The process of water erosion wears away the soil and rock layers over time, deepening and widening the channel until a canyon is eventually formed.

Hence the correct option is D.

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Which of the following describes stratified squamous epithelium?
A. lines the urinary bladder
B. cell that secretes mucin
C. exposed surface not covered by epithelium
D. forms serous membranes
E. epithelium that lines the internal surface of the heart and blood vessels
F. lines the stomach
G. attaches epithelium to deeper connective tissue
H. found in the top layer of the skin
I. performs surface transport of mucus
J. occurs as tubules in kidneys

Answers

Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of epithelial tissue that consists of multiple layers of flattened cells. It is found in various parts of the body and serves different functions depending on its location.

To provide further information on the other options:

A. lines the urinary bladder - Transitional epithelium is the type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder.

B. cell that secretes mucin - Goblet cells are specialized cells that secrete mucin, which is the main component of mucus.

C. exposed surface not covered by epithelium - This description does not match any specific type of epithelium.

D. forms serous membranes - Simple squamous epithelium is the type of epithelium that forms serous membranes.

E. epithelium that lines the internal surface of the heart and blood vessels - Endothelium is the type of epithelium that lines the internal surface of the heart and blood vessels.

F. lines the stomach - Simple columnar epithelium is the type of epithelium that lines the stomach.

G. attaches epithelium to deeper connective tissue - This description refers to the basement membrane, which is a specialized structure that attaches epithelium to deeper connective tissue.

I. performs surface transport of mucus - Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium is the type of epithelium that performs surface transport of mucus.

J. occurs as tubules in kidneys - Simple cuboidal epithelium is the type of epithelium that occurs as tubules in the kidneys.

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Which of the following statements about major histocompatibility complex I(MHC-1) are false? 1. Presents cytosolic peptides from the classical proteasome as well as the interferon-inducible immunoproteasome li. Only presents peptides >13 amino acids in length ill. Can present extracellular antigens phagocytosed by dendritic cells by using a specialized mechanism called cross- presentation iv. Interacts with the CD4 co-receptor to present antigen to helper CD4* T cells ii and iv O i and ii O ili and iv O i and it

Answers

The false statements about MHC-1 are **ii. Only presents peptides >13 amino acids in length** and **iv. Interacts with the CD4 co-receptor to present antigen to helper CD4* T cells**.

Major histocompatibility complex I (MHC-1) molecules are essential for presenting **cytosolic peptides** to the immune system, but they typically present peptides 8-10 amino acids in length (not >13 as mentioned in statement ii). Additionally, MHC-1 interacts with the **CD8 co-receptor** on cytotoxic T cells, not the CD4 co-receptor on helper T cells (as stated in statement iv). In contrast, MHC-II molecules interact with the CD4 co-receptor. The other two statements, i and iii, are accurate descriptions of MHC-1 functions.

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why does sexual reproduction eliminate linkage disequilibrium?

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Sexual reproduction helps eliminate linkage disequilibrium, which refers to the non-random association of alleles at different loci..

Linkage disequilibrium refers to the non-random association of alleles at different loci on a chromosome. It occurs when certain combinations of alleles are inherited together more frequently than expected by chance. Linkage disequilibrium can arise due to genetic linkage, where alleles at different loci are physically close to each other on the same chromosome.

Sexual reproduction plays a crucial role in reducing linkage disequilibrium. During meiosis, the process by which sex cells (gametes) are formed, recombination occurs. Recombination involves the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, leading to the creation of new combinations of alleles.

Independent assortment is another key process in sexual reproduction. During meiosis, the homologous pairs of chromosomes segregate independently into daughter cells, resulting in the shuffling of alleles from different loci.

both recombination and independent assortment contribute to the reshuffling of genetic combinations in offspring. As a result, alleles that were previously linked together on the same chromosome become separated, leading to a reduction in linkage disequilibrium. The more sexual reproduction occurs, the greater the potential for reshuffling and breaking down associations between alleles.

By introducing new genetic combinations and increasing genetic diversity, sexual reproduction helps to eliminate linkage disequilibrium and promotes the generation of offspring with different combinations of alleles. This genetic diversity is beneficial for populations, as it provides more opportunities for adaptation and survival in changing environments.

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Biochemistry Place the correct word into each sentence regarding the molecular evidence for common descent. DNA All living organisms use RNA, and ATP which leads scientists to the conclusion that these molecules were present in the first living organism. variation protein Most organisms also use the same genetic code for amino acids in their structure. cell bond Thus, differences between species exist mainly due to small differences between the proteins each one and uses. structure Some organisms have very few differences in the amino acid sequences of their proteins, yet are vastly different in and function destroys These blochemical differences account for a vast majority of in life on Earth produces mRNA

Answers

The molecular evidence for common descent includes the fact that all living organisms use DNA, RNA, and ATP, which suggests that these molecules were present in the first living organism.

Additionally, most organisms use the same genetic code for amino acids in their protein structure, although small variations between species exist due to differences in the proteins each one uses. These differences in protein structure and function account for a vast majority of the variation in life on Earth.

Finally, the production of mRNA and the presence of bonds that can be destroyed by various biochemical reactions are also key aspects of the molecular evidence for common descent.

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Which of the following is NOT a good example of an empowering affirmation according to the tips in the book? O "I am calm and relaxed." O "I am confident." O "I am a lovable person." "I will not fail this attempt."

Answers

The statement "I will not fail this attempt" is NOT a good example of an empowering affirmation according to the tips in the book.

Positive statements known as empowering affirmations are intended to encourage and uplift people, promoting a positive outlook and self-belief. They frequently serve to dispel unfavorable ideas or feelings of inadequacy and to foster a sense of empowerment and confidence.

The declaration "I will not fail this attempt" can be viewed as empowering because it puts the emphasis on a successful outcome and inspires confidence. It strengthens confidence in one's skills and increases the likelihood of success by saying out loud that one won't fail.

It's crucial to keep in mind, though, that different people may respond to affirmations differently.  Affirmations that are positive outcomes-focused may work well for some people, while affirmations that are more specific or catered to their individual goals may work better for others. The most important thing is to select affirmations that speak to you personally and are consistent with the mindset and objectives you want to achieve.

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Review novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation in laboratories today by completing the sentences.
1. Many novel approaches are being investigated as an alternative to antimicrobial drugs. For example, researchers are testing the effectiveness and safety of using _____ to specifically target one bacterial species. to
2. Because of our understanding of the importance of the normal _____ other strategies for controlling infection aim at replacing or supplementing those organisms.
3. The use of _____ intestinal biota, _____ and preparations of live microorganisms that are ingested to improve nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial intestinal microbes, are being pursued as an alternative to the use of traditional antibiotics that are more problematic.
3. Another technique ____ has been used to treat recurrent infections with by replacing organisms of the gut microbiome.
a. prebiotics
b. douching
c. bacteriophages
d. probiotics
e. ribozymes
f. fecal transplants
g. microbiota
h. E. coli
i. Clostridium difficile

Answers

For example, researchers are testing the effectiveness and safety of using  bacteriophages to specifically target one bacterial species.

2. Because of our understanding of the importance of the normal microbiota other strategies for controlling infection.

3.  The use of probiotics,  preparation of live organism,that are ingested to improve nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial intestinal microbes.

4. Another technique, fecal transplant has been used to treat recurrent infection with clostridium difficile by replacing organisms of the gut microbiome.

What are strategies against microbes?

Drugs that kill or slow down the growth of microorganisms are called antimicrobials. In modern medicine, these medications—antibiotics, antivirals, and antifungals—are necessary for the prevention and treatment of numerous infectious diseases.

What is the fundamental antimicrobial treatment strategy?

Principal focal point of antimicrobial treatment is specific designated treatment to stay away from harmfulness to the host and to stay away from rise of opposition. This can be accomplished by comprehending antimicrobials' PK/PD parameters, such as their bactericidal and static nature, spectrum of activity, host factors, and organism biology.

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fibers that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic fibers. True/False?

Answers

The statement that fibers that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic fibers is true. Cholinergic fibers are nerve fibers that release acetylcholine as their primary neurotransmitter.

Cholinergic fibers refer to nerve fibers that release acetylcholine as their primary neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine is a chemical messenger that transmits signals between nerve cells, or from nerves to muscles or glands. It is involved in many important functions of the nervous system.

In the context of the statement, fibers that secrete acetylcholine are indeed called cholinergic fibers. These fibers are responsible for transmitting signals through the release of acetylcholine, which then binds to specific receptors on target cells, triggering various physiological responses.

Cholinergic fibers are found throughout the body and are involved in both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. In the somatic nervous system, cholinergic fibers transmit signals to skeletal muscles, contributing to voluntary muscle contraction. In the autonomic nervous system, cholinergic fibers are involved in the parasympathetic division, which regulates rest and digest functions.

In summary, the statement is true: fibers that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic fibers. Acetylcholine acts as the primary neurotransmitter released by these fibers, playing important roles in muscle contraction, autonomic functions, and other physiological processes.

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which of the following is the part of rreplication fork where syntesis is discontinous?
a. lagging strand b. origin of replication c. leading strand d. template strand

Answers

During DNA replication, the lagging strand is the part of the replication fork where synthesis is discontinuous. The correct answer is: a. Lagging strand

The lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments called Okazaki fragments. This occurs because DNA replication proceeds in a 5' to 3' direction, but the two strands of DNA run in opposite directions (one is the leading strand, and the other is the lagging strand).

On the leading strand, synthesis can occur continuously in the same direction as the replication fork. However, on the lagging strand, since it runs in the opposite direction, DNA polymerase synthesizes short Okazaki fragments that are later joined together by DNA ligase to form a continuous strand.

This process of discontinuous synthesis on the lagging strand allows both strands of DNA to be replicated effectively and accurately during DNA replication. The correct answer is: a. Lagging strand

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what class of hormones is released by the adrenal glands during times of stress

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The adrenal glands are an important part of the endocrine system and play a crucial role in our body's response to stress. During times of stress, the adrenal glands release a class of hormones known as stress hormones. These hormones include cortisol and adrenaline, which are released in response to a perceived threat or danger.

The adrenal glands are located on top of the kidneys and produce these hormones in response to signals from the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Cortisol helps to increase blood sugar levels, suppress the immune system, and aid in the metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. Adrenaline, on the other hand, increases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, and stimulates the breakdown of glycogen into glucose in the liver. Together, these hormones help our body cope with stress and allow us to respond quickly in times of danger.

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why do plant cells not form cleavage furrows during cytokinesis?

Answers

Plant cells do not form cleavage furrows during cytokinesis because they have a cell wall that cannot be pinched inward like animal cells.

Instead, during cytokinesis in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter cells and grows outward to form a new cell wall. This process allows for the successful separation of the two daughter cells without damaging the cell wall or compromising the integrity of the plant. Therefore, cytokinesis in plant cells is accomplished through a different mechanism than in animal cells. Plant cells have a stiff cell wall, which prevents them from forming cleavage furrows during cytokinesis. Instead, they go through cytokinesis by developing a cell plate, which later develops into the new cell wall dividing the two daughter cells.

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What did North America look like during the last ice age?
Check all that apply.
A. Much of what is today the northern United States was ice
covered.
B. The whole continent was covered with thick ice.
C. The southwest consisted of dry, open prairie.
D. Florida was covered with sand dunes.

Answers

North America looks like during the last ice age as much of what is today and the southwest consisted of dry, open prairie. The correct options are A and C.

Thus, the Laurentide Ice Sheet, a vast ice sheet that formerly blanketed the northern United States, was present during the last ice age. These many km thick ice sheets changed the terrain and left glacial landforms in their wake. The land was not entirely covered in ice, though.

The southwest of North America, however, was made up of arid, wide plains. Despite having cooler and drier weather, ice did not harm this area. In contrast, Florida did not have sand dunes during the previous ice age. While other locations have varied climatic features and ecosystems, the north had the most extensive ice cover.

Thus, the ideal selection is option A and C.

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after birth, red blood cells are normally made only in the

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After birth, red blood cells are normally made only in the bone marrow.Red cells are produced continuously in the marrow of certain bones.

As stated above, in adults the principal sites of red cell production, called erythropoiesis, are the marrow spaces of the vertebrae, ribs, breastbone, and pelvis. Within the bone marrow the red cell is derived from a primitive precursor, or erythroblast, a nucleated cell in which there is no hemoglobin. Proliferation occurs as a result of several successive cell divisions. During maturation, hemoglobin appears in the cell, and the nucleus becomes progressively smaller. After a few days the cell loses its nucleus and is then introduced into the bloodstream in the vascular channels of the marrow. Almost 1 percent of the red cells are generated each day, and the balance between red cell production and the removal of aging red cells from the circulation is precisely maintained. When blood is lost from the circulation, the erythropoietic activity of marrow increases until the normal number of circulating cells has been restored.

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Which of the following functions make seeds useful to plants? A) Seeds provide a mechanism for dispersal. B) Seeds protect the embryo. C) An embryo may remain dormant until optimum growth conditions are available. D) All of the above

Answers

Seeds serve several important functions for plants, including A) facilitating dispersal, B) safeguarding the embryo, and C) enabling dormancy until optimal growth conditions are present. Therefore, the answer is option D).

Seeds play a crucial role in plant reproduction and survival. Function A, dispersal, ensures that seeds are spread over a wide area, reducing competition for resources like water, sunlight, and nutrients among offspring. Various mechanisms like wind, water, or animals can aid in seed dispersal.

Function B, protecting the embryo, is essential because the seed coat offers a protective layer that shields the embryo from physical damage, pathogens, and extreme temperatures. This ensures that the embryo stays viable until it encounters favorable conditions for germination.

Lastly, function C, dormancy, allows the embryo to remain inactive until environmental conditions, such as temperature, moisture, and light, are optimal for growth. This adaptation increases the chances of successful germination and the establishment of a new plant.

In conclusion, seeds are useful to plants because they provide a mechanism for dispersal, protect the embryo, and allow the embryo to remain dormant until optimum growth conditions are available. These functions work together to ensure the continuation of the plant species and its adaptation to the environment.

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imagine a population evolving by genetic drift, in which the frequency of the allele K is 0.8. What is the probability that at some point in the future allele K will drift to a frequency of 1.0? Express your answer as a number between 0 and 1.

Answers

The probability that allele K will drift to a frequency of 1.0 is 0.8

In a population evolving by genetic drift, the frequency of an allele may change randomly over time. The probability that an allele will eventually reach a frequency of 1.0 (i.e., become fixed in the population) is equal to its current frequency.

In this case, the frequency of allele K is 0.8. Therefore, there is an 80% (0.8) chance that allele K will drift to a frequency of 1.0 at some point in the future. This probability is derived from the principles of genetic drift and the fact that the allele's frequency determines its likelihood of becoming fixed.

Genetic drift is when a population's existing gene variants change in frequency at random. Variants in genes may completely disappear as a result of genetic drift, reducing genetic variation. It could also make initially uncommon alleles much more common and even permanent.

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which mollusks have a veliger as one of its larval stages?

Answers

The veliger larval stage is a characteristic feature of various mollusks, particularly those belonging to the class Gastropod and Bivalvia.

Many species of the group Gastropod, which includes snails and slugs, have veliger larvae. A characteristic ciliated planktonic structure with a fully formed foot, a shell, and a swimming organ called the velum define this stage.

Gastropod veliger larvae are essential for the dispersal and colonization of new environments. Similar to this, the veliger larval stage is frequently seen in the group of animals known as Bivalvia, which includes clams, mussels, oysters, and scallops.

Bivalve veliger's have two ciliated lobes that they use for both feeding and moving around. Before undergoing metamorphosis and dispersing onto the sediment as juvenile bivalves, they normally spend some time as plankton.

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The permanent replacement of normal tissue by scar tissue is called:
a) inflammation.
b) necrosis.
c) apoptosis.
d) fibrosis.

Answers

Fibrosis can also cause lung tissue to become thickened and scarred, making it more difficult for the lungs to function properly, and affecting breathing.  Therefore, the correct option is D) fibrosis.

The permanent replacement of normal tissue by scar tissue is called fibrosis. Fibrosis is the replacement of normal tissue with scar tissue that occurs as a result of wound healing or pathological conditions such as chronic inflammation or excessive tissue injury. The excess fibrous tissue that forms scars can result in the development of fibrous tissue bands, which may impede normal function and cause significant health issues such as pulmonary fibrosis, liver cirrhosis, or cardiac fibrosis.

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breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:

Answers

When incompatible bloods are mixed, the recipient's immune system may perceive the donor's blood as a threat and attack the foreign red blood cells.

This can lead to the breakdown of the recipient's own red blood cells, causing a condition called hemolysis. Hemolysis can lead to serious complications such as anemia, jaundice, and organ failure. It is essential to ensure blood compatibility before transfusing blood to avoid such adverse reactions.This process, known as hemolysis, can cause serious complications and should be avoided through proper blood typing and cross-matching.Hemolysis is the breakdown of recipients red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed.The destruction of incompatible RBCs is called a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which may occur immediately (acute) or after a period of days (delayed).

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.How are you going to determine if iodine and/or starch diffuse across the dialysis tubing? Select all of the correct statements. A. If both iodine and starch are able to diffuse across the membrane, both the dialysis tubing and the beaker will look dark purple. B. If only starch is able to diffuse across the membrane, the solution in the dialysis tubing will look dark purple. C. If only iodine is able to diffuse across the membrane, the solution in the dialysis tubing bag will look dark purple.

Answers

If iodine and/or starch diffuse across the dialysis tubing, C. If only iodine is able to diffuse across the membrane, the solution in the dialysis tubing bag will look dark purple.

Iodine is a small molecule that can easily pass through a semi-permeable membrane such as dialysis tubing. If only iodine is able to diffuse across the membrane, the iodine molecules will pass into the dialysis tubing bag, resulting in a dark purple color in the solution inside the bag.

Starch, on the other hand, is a large molecule that cannot pass through the membrane. Therefore, if starch is unable to diffuse across the membrane, the solution inside the dialysis tubing bag will not have a dark purple color.

Option A is incorrect because if both iodine and starch are able to diffuse across the membrane, the presence of starch will prevent the dialysis tubing and the beaker from looking dark purple.

Option B is incorrect because if only starch is able to diffuse across the membrane, the solution inside the dialysis tubing will not have a dark purple color.

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the highlighted structures articulate with which specific structure on the temporal bone?

Answers

The highlighted structures articulate with the mandibular fossa on the temporal bone.

The mandibular (or mandibular) fossa is located in the temporal bone. It is separated from the outer acoustic meatus by a narrow fissure in the temporal bone known as the petrotympanic fissure. It is bordered at the front by an articular tubule and at the back by a tympanic tubule.

The mandibula is a smooth, concave, articular surface made up of the squamous (outermost layer of the bone) and petrous (outer layer of the bone), known as the mandibula. The glenoid (outer layer of bone) is made up of the mandibula and the squamous (inner layer of the bone).

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Which of the following methods is not used by cells to regulate the amount of a protein in the cell? a. Genes can be transcribed into mRNA with different efficiencies. b. Many ribosomes can bind to a single mRNA molecule. c. Proteins can be tagged with ubiquitin, marking them for degradation. d. Nuclear pore complexes can regulate the speed at which newly synthesized proteins are exported from the nucleus into the cytoplasm. Where does gene expression occur? In euchromatine or heterochromatine?

Answers

The method which is not used by cells to regulate the amount of a protein in the cell is; Nuclear pore complexes can regulate the speed at which newly synthesized proteins were exported from nucleus into the cytoplasm. Gene expression occur in euchromatin. Option D is correct.

Nuclear pore complexes primarily function in regulating the transport of molecules, including RNA molecules such as mRNA, between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. While they play a role in the transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, they do not directly regulate the amount of protein within the cell. Instead, they are involved in the nucleocytoplasmic transport of various molecules.

Gene expression, which refers to the process by which information from a gene is used to synthesize a functional protein or RNA molecule, occurs in euchromatin. Euchromatin represents the less condensed and more accessible form of chromatin, where active gene transcription takes place.

It is associated with regions of the genome that are actively transcribed and involved in gene expression. In contrast, heterochromatin is a more condensed and less accessible form of chromatin, usually associated with transcriptionally inactive regions of the genome.

Hence, D. is the correct option.

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1. Give the importance of microscope in the field of
science.
2. Differentiate innovations and inventions.

Answers

The microscope helped with the geeky theory and finding out what DNA looked like.

if a person has pulmonary valve stenosis which circulation is affected the most

Answers

If a person has pulmonary valve stenosis, the circulation that is affected the most is the pulmonary circulation.

Pulmonary valve stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing or restriction of the pulmonary valve, which is responsible for regulating blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. This narrowing obstructs the flow of blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery and subsequently affects the pulmonary circulation the most.

In a normal functioning heart, oxygen-depleted blood from the body enters the right atrium, flows into the right ventricle, and is then pumped through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery. From the pulmonary artery, the blood travels to the lungs to be oxygenated before returning to the left side of the heart.

When there is stenosis or narrowing of the pulmonary valve, the blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery is impeded. This obstruction leads to increased pressure in the right ventricle and compromises the efficient pumping of blood to the lungs for oxygenation. As a result, the pulmonary circulation is primarily affected, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and reduced exercise tolerance.

In summary, pulmonary valve stenosis primarily affects the pulmonary circulation by obstructing the flow of blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, impairing the delivery of deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

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State true or false
1 ) tooth decay is caused by the presence of acid
2) conduction does not require any medium to transfer heat
3) solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis
4) organic acids come from both the plants and animals
5) iodine test is performed to test the presence of the proteins
6) the materials which do not allow the heat to pass through them are called insulators

Answers

1) True
2) False
3) False
4) True
5) False
6) True
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