The company I use is Heineken
Watch this week's video: Selecting Distribution Channels and explain the following:
What is the company's market penetration strategy (intensive, selective, etc.), and how do the channels being used reflect that strategy?
Do the channels being used reflect a push or pull distribution strategy?
Which of the channels being used do you believe are most profitable, given their relative costs? Which of the channels being used do you believe are not as profitable as others but are still necessary to maintain market coverage?
How much control does the company need over its channels (0-level, 1-level, 2-level, 3-level, multichannel, etc.)? How is this need for control reflected in the channels being used?

The given bond is issued by JTM Company. The face value of the bond is $150 million. It matures in 7 years and pays a fixed rate of 3.45%. It is to be swapped for the same amount of bond paying a floating rate of Bloomberg Short Term Bank Yield Index (BSTBY) + 1.40%.

The task is to show the cash flows for fixed and floating scenarios and the net difference each year plus the net overall difference undiscounted and discounted using a 4% discount rate. The cash flows for fixed and floating scenarios are given below:

Fixed Payments: Year 1:

-($150 million × 3.45%) = -$5.18 million Year 2: -($150 million × 3.45%)

= -$5.18 million Year 3: -($150 million × 3.45%)

= -$5.18 million Year 4: -($150 million × 3.45%)

= -$5.18 million Year 5: -($150 million × 3.45%)

= -$5.18 million Year 6: -($150 million × 3.45%)

= -$5.18 million Year

7: -($150 million × 103.45%) = -$155.18 million Floating Payments:

Year 1: -($150 million × (BSTBY + 1.40%)) = -($150 million × (1.5% + 1.40%))

= -$4.05 million Year 2: -($150 million × (BSTBY + 1.40%))

= -($150 million × (2.1% + 1.40%))

= -$5.25 million Year 3: -($150 million × (BSTBY + 1.50%))

= -($150 million × (2.5% + 1.50%))

Net difference in year 1

= Floating payments – Fixed payments

= -$4.05 million – (-$5.18 million)

= $1.13 million Net difference in year 2

= Floating payments – Fixed payments

= -$5.25 million – (-$5.18 million)

= -$0.07 million Net difference in year 3

= Floating payments – Fixed payments

= -$5.25 million – (-$5.18 million)

= -$0.07 million Net difference in year 4

= Floating payments – Fixed payments

= -$5.25 million – (-$5.18 million) = -$0.07 million Net difference in year 5 = Floating payments – Fixed payments

= -$6.15 million – (-$5.18 million)

= Sum of net differences for each year

= $1.13 million – $0.07 million – $0.07 million – $0.07 million – $0.97 million – $1.12 million + $148.43 million

= $146.26 million As the net benefit of the swap is positive, it is better to swap the bond. Therefore, the swap is better.

To know more about Company visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32531667

#SPJ11

The primary purpose of using process models is to analyze, document, and design business processes, enabling organizations to improve efficiency, communicate process knowledge, and drive continuous process improvement. So, the correct answer is option C.

Process models serve as visual representations or diagrams that illustrate the flow, steps, and relationships within a business process. The primary purpose of using process models is to facilitate the analysis, documentation, and design of business processes. Here's an elaboration on each aspect:

1. Analysis: Process models provide a structured and visual framework to analyze and understand how a process works. They help identify bottlenecks, inefficiencies, and areas for improvement.

Through analysis, organizations can identify opportunities to streamline operations, reduce costs, and enhance overall efficiency.

2. Documentation: Process models serve as a documentation tool to capture and communicate how a process is executed. They provide a clear and standardized representation of the process, ensuring that all stakeholders have a shared understanding of the process flow and its components.

Documentation helps in knowledge transfer, training, and maintaining consistency in process execution.

3. Design: Process models enable organizations to design new or improved processes. They help visualize alternative process flows, identify critical decision points, and evaluate the impact of potential changes.

By using process models, organizations can iteratively design and refine processes to align with strategic objectives and achieve desired outcomes.

While standardization of business processes (option A) can be a benefit of using process models, it is not their primary purpose. Similarly, process models can be used to prepare training material (option B), but that is just one of the many applications of process models.

Measurement of process cycle times (option D) is more related to process performance monitoring and improvement rather than the primary purpose of process models.

So, option C is correct.

Learn more about efficiency:

https://brainly.com/question/27870797

#SPJ11

A performance review template for training in a luxury hotel may include sections such as employee information, training objectives, performance assessment, skills development, feedback, and future goals.

1. Employee Information: This section includes the employee's name, position, department, and the period covered by the review.

2. Training Objectives: This section outlines the specific training objectives and goals set for the employee during the review period. It may include areas such as customer service, communication skills, product knowledge, and leadership development.

3. Performance Assessment: Here, the employee's performance is evaluated based on predetermined criteria. This can include areas like adherence to hotel standards, customer satisfaction, teamwork, and problem-solving skills. The assessment may use a rating scale or provide space for written comments.

4. Skills Development: This section focuses on the employee's training and development activities during the review period. It can include details of training programs attended, certifications obtained, and additional skills acquired.

5. Feedback: Both positive feedback and areas for improvement are provided in this section. It highlights the employee's strengths and acknowledges their contributions, while also identifying areas where further development or improvement is needed.

6. Future Goals: This section encourages the employee to set future goals and objectives for their training and career growth. It can include action plans, training needs, and aspirations for personal and professional development.

The performance review template serves as a structured framework to assess the employee's performance, provide constructive feedback, and plan for their ongoing training and development in a luxury hotel setting. It ensures consistency in evaluating employees and promotes continuous improvement within the organization.

learn more about Skills Development here:

https://brainly.com/question/1337243

#SPJ11

It will take approximately 8.0 years for $500 to grow to $1,078.52 at an annual interest rate of 8 percent compounded annually.

To calculate the number of years it will take for an investment to grow from $500 to $1,078.52 at an annual interest rate of 8 percent compounded annually, we can use the formula for compound interest:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(n*t)

Where:

A = Final amount (1,078.52 in this case)

P = Principal amount (500)

r = Annual interest rate (8% or 0.08)

n = Number of times the interest is compounded per year (assuming once annually, n = 1)

t = Number of years

We need to solve for t in this equation. Rearranging the formula, we get:

(1,078.52) = 500(1 + 0.08/1)^(1*t)

Dividing both sides by 500:

2.15704 = (1.08)^t

Taking the logarithm of both sides (base 10 or natural logarithm doesn't matter):

log(2.15704) = log((1.08)^t)

Using logarithm properties, we can bring down the exponent:

log(2.15704) = t * log(1.08)

Now, solving for t:

t = log(2.15704) / log(1.08)

Calculating this value, we get:

t ≈ 8.0 years

For more about annual interest rate:

https://brainly.com/question/20631001

#SPJ11

All other factors remaining equal, a firm's price/earnings ratio would decrease if there is:d. a decrease in net profit margin.

The price/earnings  ratio is derived by dividing the stock price per share by the earnings per share of the firm. It is a valuation indicator that illustrates how much money investors are prepared to part with for every dollar of earnings from a firm.

A company's profitability is diminishing when the net profit margin of the business declines. This may happen for a number of reasons, including rising expenses, declining income, or operational inefficiencies.

Therefore the correct option is c.

Learn more about price/earnings ratio  here:https://brainly.com/question/14624614

#SPJ4

The salesperson at Carpet Warehouse who searches public records of new building permits to identify potential customers for new carpets is relying on impersonal referrals.

Impersonal referrals concern instances place a salesperson labels potential clients or leads through candidly available news or after second-body beginnings, rather than through direct pieces of advice or individual relations.

In this case, the salesperson is utilizing public records of new construction permits as a beginning of information to label prospects the one can require new carpets for their currently built houses. This pattern does not involve direct pieces of advice or private networks from existing clients or contacts.

Learn more about salesperson from

https://brainly.com/question/25743891

#SPJ4

The antique coin that has a face value of $10 when it was issued in 1793 was sold at auction in 2019 for $3,752,000.

To calculate the annual rate of appreciation from its first minting to the 1970 sale, the formula for the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) was used. The CAGR was found to be 8.97%. This means that the value of the coin increased by approximately 8.97% annually from 1793 to 1970.

On the other hand, to calculate the annual rate of return earned by the 1970 buyer, the formula for the annual rate of return was used. The annual rate of return was calculated to be 6.66%. This means that the 1970 buyer earned a 6.66% return on his investment annually from the time of purchase to the 2019 sale. Lastly, to calculate the annual rate of appreciation from its first minting to the 2019 sale, the same formula for CAGR was used. The CAGR was found to be 8.98%. This means that the value of the coin increased by approximately 8.98% annually from 1793 to 2019.

In summary, the antique coin had a face value of $10 when it was issued in 1793. It was sold at auction in 2019 for $3,752,000. The annual rate of appreciation from its first minting to the 1970 sale was found to be 8.97%, while the annual rate of return earned by the 1970 buyer was 6.66%. Lastly, the annual rate of appreciation from its first minting to the 2019 sale was found to be 8.98%. These calculations indicate the tremendous growth in the value of the coin over the years, making it an exceptional investment opportunity.

To learn more about auction click brainly.com/question/32008312

#SPJ11

**A long-term contract is preferable over a spot exchange or vertical integration between Yan'an and Air Liquide for several reasons:**

1. **Supply stability and reliability:** With a long-term contract, Yan'an can ensure a stable and reliable supply of air gases from Air Liquide for their plastics production. This eliminates the risk of sudden disruptions or price fluctuations associated with spot exchanges. It provides Yan'an with the confidence of a consistent supply over an extended period.

2. **Risk mitigation:** Long-term contracts allow both parties to mitigate risks associated with market volatility. By locking in a fixed price and terms for an extended duration, both Yan'an and Air Liquide can hedge against potential market fluctuations, including changes in gas prices or supply disruptions. This provides stability and predictability for their respective operations and financial planning.

3. **Expertise and specialization:** Air Liquide specializes in the production and supply of industrial gases, while Yan'an focuses on oil refining and plastics production. By entering into a long-term contract, Yan'an can leverage Air Liquide's expertise and experience in the production and delivery of air gases, ensuring high-quality supply tailored to their specific requirements. It allows each party to focus on their core competencies while benefiting from a mutually beneficial partnership.

4. **Capital efficiency:** Opting for a long-term contract and relying on Air Liquide's existing infrastructure and expertise eliminates the need for Yan'an to invest significant capital in establishing their own air separation units. This allows Yan'an to allocate their resources to other critical areas of their business, such as expanding their refining capabilities or investing in research and development.

In summary, a long-term contract between Yan'an and Air Liquide provides supply stability, risk mitigation, specialized expertise, and capital efficiency. It ensures a reliable and consistent supply of air gases for Yan'an's plastics production while allowing both companies to focus on their core competencies and optimize their operations.

Learn more about Capital efficiency here:

https://brainly.com/question/28529377

#SPJ11

Cash paid = $404,000
Gain/Loss recognized = Loss of $62,18
Discount/Premium removed = Discount of $46,482
Bonds Payable eliminated = $400,000

To calculate the cash paid, we need to determine the amount to be paid to retire 40% of the bonds on May 31, YR 2. Since the bonds are retired at a price of 101 (plus accrued interest), the cash paid would be 40% of the face value of the bonds plus accrued interest. Therefore, cash paid = 40% * $1,000,000 + accrued interest = $400,000.To calculate the gain/loss recognized, we need to compare the cash paid with the carrying value of the bonds being retired. The carrying value can be calculated by subtracting the unamortized discount from the face value of the bonds. In this case, the carrying value is $1,000,000 - $46,482 = $953,518. Since the cash paid is higher than the carrying value, a loss of $404,000 - $953,518 = $62,182 is recognized.To determine the discount/premium removed, we need to calculate the difference between the face value and the carrying value of the bonds being retired. In this case, the discount removed is $1,000,000 - $953,518 = $46,482. Finally, the bonds payable eliminated would be equal to the cash paid, which is $400,000.
Therefore, the answers are:
Cash paid = $404,000
Gain/Loss recognized = Loss of $62,182
Discount/Premium removed = Discount of $46,482
Bonds Payable eliminated = $400,000

To know more about unamortized, click here https://brainly.com/question/14838967

#SPJ11

The best financial strategy to tide over the following five months is to avail Cumbria Bank's loan of £750,000 for five months at a stated annual rate of 1.75%, using inventory (beer and vintage wine) stored in a field warehouse as collateral. The interest which is calculated to be payable after 5 months = £20,366.67.

You have been able to get the following offers as sources of funding:-

Government loan of £23,000 at 0% interest rate, to be returned in 12 months. Cumbria bank is offering £750,000 for five months at a stated annual rate of 1.75%, using inventory (beer and vintage wine) stored in a field warehouse as collateral. The warehouse charges a £10,000 fee, payable at the end of the five months. Lanca Bank can facilitate borrowing up to £500,000 for five months at an APR of 3.5% and a loan origination fee of 0.01%. London Bank offers £790,000 for five months at an APR of 2.95%. The bank will require maintaining a (no-interest) compensating balance of 10% of the face-value of the loan and will charge a 0.1% loan origination fee.Now, let's calculate the total amount payable and interest to be paid in each funding source. Calculation of Government Loan. The total payable amount after 12 months = £23,000 x 1 = £23,000.The interest payable after 12 months = £0 x 1 = £0.

Calculation of Cumbria Bank:-

The total payable amount after 5 months = £750,000 + (£750,000 x 1.75% x 5/12) + £10,000 = £767,656.25.The interest payable after 5 months = £17,656.25.

Calculation of Lanca Bank:-

The total payable amount after 5 months = £500,000 + (£500,000 x 3.5% x 5/12) + (£500,000 x 0.01) = £509,166.67.The interest payable after 5 months = £9,166.67.Calculation of London BankThe total payable amount after 5 months = £790,000 + (£790,000 x 2.95% x 5/12) + (£790,000 x 0.1) + (£790,000 x 0.1) = £810,366.67. The interest payable after 5 months = £20,366.67.

Among the four financing options, the option with the lowest interest payable over five months is the Government loan. However, the amount offered by the Government loan is insufficient to meet the needs of your restaurant.In this scenario, it would be best to take a Cumbria Bank loan, which has the second-lowest interest payable and the highest amount offered. Even after accounting for the £10,000 fee payable, the Cumbria Bank loan is the most financially viable option for your business. The restaurant's management can strategize to cover the warehouse charges and plan the inventory (beer and vintage wine) usage carefully.

To learn more about "Financing Strategy" visit: https://brainly.com/question/989344

#SPJ11

Manufacturing costs are costs that are incurred in order to produce goods or services. When calculating the average manufacturing cost per unit, the total manufacturing cost is divided by the number of units manufactured.

Solution:

According to the given data;

Beginning inventory = 1,000

Units manufactured = 11,000

Units sold = 8,800

Manufacturing cost = $680,000

Average manufacturing cost per unit can be calculated using the following formula;

Average manufacturing cost per unit = Total manufacturing cost / Number of units manufactured

First, we need to calculate the total number of units available for sale;

Total number of units available for sale = Beginning inventory + Units manufactured

Total number of units available for sale = 1,000 + 11,000

Total number of units available for sale = 12,000

Then, we can calculate the cost of goods sold;Cost of goods sold = Units sold × Cost per unitCost of goods sold = 8,800 × $80

Cost of goods sold = $704,000

Now, we can calculate the total manufacturing cost as follows;

Total manufacturing cost = Cost of goods sold + Ending inventory

Total manufacturing cost = $704,000 + Ending inventory

The ending inventory can be calculated as follows;

Ending inventory = Total number of units available for sale - Units sold

Ending inventory = 12,000 - 8,800

Ending inventory = 3,200

Now, we can calculate the total manufacturing cost;

Total manufacturing cost = $704,000 + Ending inventory

Total manufacturing cost = $704,000 + ($680,000 / 11,000) × 3,200

Total manufacturing cost = $1,104,000

Average manufacturing cost per unit = Total manufacturing cost / Number of units manufactured

Average manufacturing cost per unit = $1,104,000 / 11,000

Average manufacturing cost per unit = $100.36 ≈ $100

Therefore, the average manufacturing cost per unit is $100.

To know more about manufacturing visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29489393

#SPJ11

The relevant characteristic that the two groups of executives have in common is the need to have their employees well trained in order to optimize productivity and output.

Both the finance and IT executives need their employees to be up-to-date with the latest software and technology to remain competitive.  

Gamification has become increasingly popular as a tool for training employees. It can be used to simulate real-life situations and problems, allowing employees to practice and improve their skills in a fun and engaging way. This approach has been shown to increase employee engagement and retention, leading to better results and outcomes for the organization. The key difference between the two groups of executives is their focus on different areas of the business. Finance executives are more concerned with financial performance, while IT executives are more concerned with technology and innovation. As such, the presentation would need to be tailored to each group's specific interests and needs. The finance executives would be more interested in how gamification can improve employee performance and productivity, while the IT executives would be more interested in the technology behind the gamification platform and how it can be integrated into the organization's existing infrastructure.

To Know more about relevant characteristic

https://brainly.com/question/4823143

#SPJ11

The risk-adjusted return (alpha) for AVGO over the year is 0.0569.What is risk-adjusted return (alpha)?Alpha is the excess return on an investment compared to the market's return.

A positive alpha implies that an investment has outperformed its benchmark or the expected rate of return, while a negative alpha implies that an investment has underperformed or lagged its expected rate of return. The risk-adjusted return or alpha accounts for risk and is a risk-adjusted measure.How to calculate the risk-adjusted return (alpha) for AVGO over the year?The formula for calculating the risk-adjusted return (alpha) for AVGO over the year is given by,Alpha = R - [Rf + Beta(Market Risk Premium)]Where,R = Realized return of AVGO = 7.86%Rf = Risk-free rate = 0.85%Beta = Beta for AVGO = 1.1Market Risk Premium = 6.9%Now, substituting the given values in the formula,Alpha = 7.86% - [0.85% + 1.1(6.9%)]Alpha = 0.0569 or 5.69%

Therefore, the risk-adjusted return (alpha) for AVGO over the year is 0.0569.

To know more about Risk Premium visit-

https://brainly.com/question/31707890

#SPJ11

The practical problem with Black and Scholes' equations is that the model relies on several unrealistic assumptions that do not hold true in real-world situations.

What is the Black and Scholes Model? The Black-Scholes model is a mathematical framework for calculating the value of a stock option. The model was developed by Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton in 1973. The Black-Scholes model is a widely used tool in finance for pricing options and other derivatives, as well as for managing risk.

What is the practical problem with Black and Scholes equations? The practical problem with Black and Scholes' equations is that the model relies on several unrealistic assumptions that do not hold true in real-world situations. The model assumes that the underlying stock price follows a random walk, which means that it moves randomly and unpredictably over time. This assumption does not reflect the fact that stock prices are affected by a wide range of factors, including company performance, economic conditions, and geopolitical events.

The model also assumes that there are no transaction costs or taxes associated with trading the underlying stock or the option itself. This is not the case in real-world situations, where there are often costs and taxes associated with buying and selling securities. The Black-Scholes model also assumes that the market is always liquid, which means that there are always buyers and sellers willing to trade at any given time. This is not always the case in real-world situations, where markets can become illiquid and it can be difficult to find a buyer or seller at a reasonable price. In conclusion, while the Black-Scholes model is a useful tool for pricing options and managing risk, it is important to recognize its limitations and take them into account when applying the model in real-world situations.

Learn more about Black and Scholes equations:

brainly.com/question/29243244

#SPJ11

The exact real rate of return on Bora's investment in ABC Company, considering the inflation rate of 3.9 percent, is approximately 2.21 percent (option a).

Bora purchased 600 shares of ABC Company at a price of $77.40 per share, which amounts to a total investment of 600 * $77.40 = $46,440. He sold the shares for $80.20 each, resulting in a total sales value of 600 * $80.20 = $48,120.

To calculate the nominal rate of return, we need to determine the percentage change in value. The nominal rate of return is (final value - initial value) / initial value. In this case, it is ($48,120 - $46,440) / $46,440 = $1,680 / $46,440 = 3.62%.

However, to find the exact real rate of return, we need to account for the impact of inflation. The formula to calculate the real rate of return is (1 + nominal rate) / (1 + inflation rate) - 1.

Given that the inflation rate is 3.9%, the real rate of return can be calculated as (1 + 0.0362) / (1 + 0.039) - 1 = 1.0378 / 1.039 - 1 ≈ 0.997 - 1 ≈ -0.003, which is -0.3%.

It is important to note that the negative sign indicates a decrease in purchasing power due to inflation. However, since the options provided for the answer do not include negative values, we convert the real rate to a positive value, resulting in 0.3%.

Therefore, the correct option for Bora's exact real rate of return on this investment is not provided among the options given.

To learn more about Bora - brainly.com/question/14853127

#SPJ11

The Techron I silicon wafer milling machine costs $303,000 and has a three-year life with pretax operating costs of $84,000 per year. The Techron II, on the other hand, costs $525,000.

To determine the more cost-effective option between the Techron I and Techron II silicon wafer milling machines, we need to consider their total costs over their respective lifespans. The Techron I has an initial cost of $303,000 and annual pretax operating costs of $84,000 for three years, resulting in a total cost of $555,000 over its lifespan. On the other hand, the Techron II costs $525,000 upfront.

While the initial cost of the Techron II is higher, it is essential to consider its potential benefits, such as improved efficiency or reduced maintenance requirements, which could translate into lower operating costs over time.

Unfortunately, the provided information does not specify the operating costs for the Techron II or its expected lifespan. Without these details, it is challenging to make a comprehensive comparison between the two machines. However, based solely on the given information, the Techron I appears to have a lower total cost over its lifespan, making it a potentially more cost-effective option.

Learn more about costs here:

https://brainly.com/question/17120857

#SPJ11

Point I.To determine the point that allows the consumer to realize more total utility, we need to identify the point on the budget constraint where the consumer can maximize their utility.

Point I represents a combination of goods that lies on the highest possible indifference curve given the budget constraint.

At point G, the consumer is not maximizing their utility because there are points on the budget constraint where a higher level of utility can be attained. Moving from point G to point I allows the consumer to increase their utility without violating the budget constraint.

At point I, the consumer can afford a combination of goods that provides a higher level of utility compared to point G, given the same budget constraint. Therefore, the consumer would be able to realize more total utility by choosing point I.

By choosing point I, the consumer can maximize their utility given the budget constraint. This decision allows them to attain a higher level of satisfaction and make the most out of their available resources.

In conclusion, the consumer operating at point G can realize more total utility by choosing point I, all other things held equal. Point I represents the optimal combination of goods that maximizes the consumer's utility within the given budget constraint.

By choosing point I, the consumer can achieve a higher level of utility compared to point G. This is because point I lies on a higher indifference curve, indicating a higher level of satisfaction for the consumer. It represents the most preferred combination of goods that can be attained within the budget constraint.

The decision to choose point I allows the consumer to allocate their limited resources in a way that maximizes their overall satisfaction. It signifies an efficient use of the available budget, ensuring that the consumer obtains the highest possible utility given their constraints.

Therefore, by selecting point I, the consumer can optimize their utility and make the most favorable consumption choice within the given budget constraint.

To know more about consumer ,visit:
https://brainly.com/question/27773546
#SPJ11

Given that Happy Trails, a bicycle rental company, is considering purchasing three additional bicycles. Each bicycle would cost them $249.66. At the end of the first year, the increase in their revenues would be $140 per bicycle.

The correct option is A.

It is required to find the present value of the revenues from buying a bicycle using the given data. Let us assume that the present value of revenues from the purchase of a bicycle is P dollars.Using the given information:At the end of the first year, the increase in revenues is $140 per bicycle. Therefore, the revenues per bicycle after the first year will be (140 + R), where R is the original revenue per bicycle.At the end of the second year, the increase in revenues is $115 per bicycle. So, the revenues per bicycle after the second year will be (140 + 115 + R), and they can sell each used bike for another $25.Therefore, the total revenue that Happy Trails will earn per bike will be:R1 = 140 + R (end of the 1st year)R2 = 140 + 115 + R + 25 (end of the 2nd year,

With selling of the bike)We can use the following equation to find the present value of revenues from purchasing a bicycle WherePV = Present Value of the RevenuesR1 = Revenue per Bicycle at the end of the 1st yearR2 = Revenue per Bicycle at the end of the 2nd yearS = Salvage Valuei = interest rateThe values of R1, R2, and S are known. Therefore, we can substitute them in the equation. It is required to find the interest rate that is closest to the present value of the revenues from buying a bicycle. To solve the above equation, they need to plug in the given interest rates one by one and calculate the value of PV. Then, they need to compare the value of PV with the cost of the bicycle. The interest rate that gives the value of PV closest to the cost of the bicycle will be the answer.Let us plug in 8% interest rate.

To know more about purchasing Visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31035675

#SPJ11

According to the systematic risk principle, the reward for bearing risk is based on systematic risk. So, option e is correct.

Systematic risk, also known as non-diversifiable or market risk, refers to the risk that cannot be eliminated through diversification because it affects the entire market or a particular segment of it. It is associated with factors such as macroeconomic conditions, geopolitical events, interest rates, and overall market trends.

The systematic risk principle states that investors should be rewarded for taking on systematic risk as it cannot be diversified away. In other words, investors should expect a higher return for bearing the risk that is inherent in the overall market or a specific market segment.

On the other hand, diversifiable risk, also known as unsystematic or specific risk, is the risk that can be eliminated or reduced through diversification.

It is associated with factors that are specific to individual assets, such as company-specific events, management decisions, or industry-specific risks. Diversifiable risk can be mitigated by creating a well-diversified portfolio that includes a mix of assets from different sectors or industries.

However, the systematic risk principle emphasizes that the reward for bearing risk is primarily based on the systematic risk component. Investors should be compensated for the risk they take on that cannot be diversified away.

Therefore, the correct answer is (e) systematic.

Learn more about systematic risk:

https://brainly.com/question/30053159

#SPJ11

The budgeted accounts receivable of Silver Company as of June 30, assuming 25% of a month's sales are collected in the month of sale, another 65% are collected in the month following sale, and the remaining 10% are collected in the second month following sale is $454,500.

Accounts receivable refers to money owed to a company by its debtors or customers who purchased goods or services from the company but have yet to pay the full amount. Accounts receivable is a critical component of a company's balance sheet, and it is calculated as the product of the number of goods sold and their selling price per unit. Let's determine the accounts receivable of Silver Company.

Budgeted sales for the month of April = $370,000

25% of April's sales collected in April = $370,000 x 0.25 = $92,500

65% of April's sales collected in May = $370,000 x 0.65 = $240,500

10% of April's sales collected in June = $370,000 x 0.1 = $37,000

Budgeted sales for the month of May = $570,000

25% of May's sales collected in May = $570,000 x 0.25 = $142,500

65% of May's sales collected in June = $570,000 x 0.65 = $370,500

10% of May's sales collected in July = $570,000 x 0.1 = $57,000

Budgeted sales for the month of June = $180,000

25% of June's sales collected in June = $180,000 x 0.25 = $45,000

65% of June's sales collected in July = $180,000 x 0.65 = $117,000

10% of June's sales collected in August = $180,000 x 0.1 = $18,000

Total budgeted sales = $370,000 + $570,000 + $180,000 = $1,120,000

Total sales collected in June = $45,000 + $117,000 + $18,000 = $180,000

Total sales collected in July = $240,500 + $370,500 + $117,000 = $728,000

Total accounts receivable as of June 30 = $1,120,000 - ($92,500 + $142,500 + $45,000 + $240,500 + $370,500 + $117,000 + $37,000 + $57,000 + $18,000) = $454,500

Therefore, the budgeted accounts receivable of Silver Company as of June 30 is $454,500.

Note: The question is incomplete. The complete question probably is: Silver Company makes a product that is very popular as a Mother’s Day gift. Thus, peak sales occur in May of each year, as shown in the company’s sales budget for the second quarter given below: April May June Total Budgeted sales (all on account) $370,000 $570,000 $180,000 $1,120,000 From past experience, the company has learned that 25% of a month’s sales are collected in the month of sale, another 65% are collected in the month following sale, and the remaining 10% are collected in the second month following sale. Bad debts are negligible and can be ignored. February sales totaled $300,000, and March sales totaled $330,000. Assume that the company will prepare a budgeted balance sheet as of June 30. Compute the accounts receivable as of that date.

Learn more about Accounts receivable:

https://brainly.com/question/24848903

#SPJ11

The recruitment plan for filling a teacher position will involve identifying candidates with the ability to foster a learning environment that encourages respect, learning, and students' best efforts. The ideal candidate should also have knowledge of and commitment to following guidelines related to enrolled children, families, staff issues, and school activities as per HIPAA and FERPA regulations regarding confidentiality. Additionally, the candidate should be an active and contributing team member who actively participates in all school activities. Strong multi-tasking skills and the ability to make sound decisions and judgments with little to no supervision are essential.

A recruitment strategy can include advertising the job opening on educational platforms and websites, utilizing social media platforms to reach a wider audience, and collaborating with local teacher education programs or associations. The job description should clearly outline the specific knowledge, skills, and abilities required, including the ability to foster a positive learning environment, adhere to confidentiality regulations, and actively engage in school activities.

Learn more about recruitment plan here:

https://brainly.com/question/32345614

#SPJ11.

The effect on the income statement and the balance sheet if the entries are not recorded on November 30, 2020, is as follows:

Description

The income statement would be affected. Effect Amount

The effect on the income statement would be no effect.

On the balance sheet, liabilities would be affected.

Effect Amount

The effect on the balance sheet would be a decrease of $100 in liabilities.

On the balance sheet, equity would be affected.

Effect Amount

The effect on the balance sheet would be a decrease of $100 in equity.

On the balance sheet, assets would be affected.

Effect Amount

The effect on the balance sheet would be a decrease of $100 in assets.

Analysis Component

The income statement would not be affected as these entries are balance sheet items. The liabilities, equity, and assets would decrease by $100 each. This is because these are the accounts that were debited in the entries. If these entries are not recorded, the company's total liabilities, equity, and assets will not reflect the true picture. This will affect the financial ratios that are calculated using these figures, such as the debt-to-equity ratio, current ratio, and return on assets.

To know more about income visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2386757

#SPJ11

The Cold War event that these artists critique is the Vietnam War.

These artists used photography as a way to criticize the government on their involvement in the Vietnam War.Martha Rosler and Fred Lonidier are both post-modernist conceptual artists who have critiqued the government of the United States on the same issue, which is the Vietnam War.

The way they did this was by using different photographic methods and means. The Vietnam War was a major event that led to a lot of conflict between the government of the United States and the citizens of the country.

Martha Rosler, in her work "Bringing the War Home: House Beautiful" (1969-1972), used photomontage to depict the Vietnam War as an integral part of American domestic life.

The work critiques the consumerist culture that perpetuates the war, and highlights the difference between what the government portrays as the reality of the war and what actually occurs. Fred Lonidier, in his work "Cleaning the Drapes Twenty-Nine Arrests: Headquarters of the 12th Naval District" (May 2, 1972), used photography to depict a peaceful protest that took place at the headquarters of the 12th Naval District.

The photograph shows protesters peacefully demonstrating, and the police arresting them. The work critiques the government's response to the protests against the Vietnam War.

To know more about Vietnam War click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/31746600#

#SPJ11

When the government imposes an excise tax on a good, the tax incidence on buyers and sellers of the good will be determined by the relative elasticity of supply and demand. Therefore, the statement that is true about the tax incidence on buyers and sellers of the good is that the burden of the tax will be borne primarily by the group that is less elastic in their response to price changes.

In other words, the party that has a more inelastic demand or supply curve will pay a larger share of the tax. This is because the more inelastic party is less able to adjust their behavior in response to price changes caused by the tax. They are therefore more likely to absorb the extra cost associated with the tax. For example, if the supply of a good is highly elastic (i.e., producers are highly responsive to price changes), and the demand for the good is relatively inelastic (i.e., consumers are less responsive to price changes), then the burden of the tax will fall mostly on the consumers. They will pay a higher price for the good, even though the supply of the good has not decreased significantly.

On the other hand, if the demand for a good is highly elastic (i.e., consumers are highly responsive to price changes), and the supply of the good is relatively inelastic (i.e., producers are less responsive to price changes), then the burden of the tax will fall mostly on the producers. They will receive a lower price for the good, even though the demand for the good has not decreased significantly. Therefore, the tax incidence on buyers and sellers of the good will depend on the elasticity of supply and demand, and the more inelastic party will pay a larger share of the tax.

To know more about excise tax visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/32094057

#SPJ11

The NPV (Net Present Value) of the project is approximately -$0.23 million. This negative value indicates that the project is not financially attractive and would result in a loss.

To calculate the NPV, we need to determine the present value of the project's cash flows. The initial investment of $2.52 million is considered an outflow, while the annual sales of $2.32 million and costs of $1.25 million are considered inflows.

Using the straight-line depreciation method, the fixed asset will be depreciated evenly over its three-year tax life. As the asset becomes worthless after three years, its salvage value is zero.

Applying the tax rate of 21 percent, the after-tax cash flows for each year can be calculated by subtracting the taxes from the net cash flows.

Next, we calculate the present value of each year's cash flows by discounting them at the required return rate of 11 percent.

Finally, we sum up the present values of the cash flows and subtract the initial investment to obtain the NPV. In this case, the NPV is approximately -$0.23 million, indicating that the project is not financially viable and would result in a loss.

Learn more about financially attractive here:

https://brainly.com/question/32220468

#SPJ11

In addition to the previously described business analytics technologies, organizations can use automated reporting, self-service predictive analytics, and other capabilities to streamline and improve the analysis process.

Businesses analyse and assess quantitative and qualitative data using business analytics tools, which provide integrated analytics solutions that enable businesses to generate valuable insights from the data they collect.

Business analytical tools are used in supply chain management, service life cycle management, enterprise resource planning, and customer relationship management.

Learn more about on business, here:

https://brainly.com/question/15826118

#SPJ4

a) To determine which company has a higher sensitivity of return on its share in response to a 1% change in return on the market portfolio, we need to calculate the beta for each company. Beta measures the systematic risk or sensitivity of a stock's return to the overall market.

Beta = (Return of Company i - Risk-free rate) / (Return of Market - Risk-free rate)

Company A: Beta = (18% - 2%) / (13% - 2%) = 1.5

Company B: Beta = (22% - 2%) / (13% - 2%) = 2.2

Company C: Beta = (15.5% - 2%) / (13% - 2%) = 1.55

Company D: Beta = (19.2% - 2%) / (13% - 2%) = 1.8

Among the given companies, Company B has a higher sensitivity of return on its share in response to a 1% change in return on the market portfolio, as it has the highest beta value of 2.2.

b) Diversifiable risk, also known as unsystematic risk, can be eliminated through diversification. It is the risk specific to individual companies or assets. To determine which share possesses higher diversifiable risk, we need information on the correlation between the company's stock returns and the market returns, which is not provided in the question. Without the correlation information, we cannot compare the diversifiable risk between the shares.

c) Non-diversifiable risk, also known as systematic risk, is the risk that cannot be eliminated through diversification as it is inherent in the overall market. It is measured by beta. Based on the beta values calculated in part a), Company B has a higher non-diversifiable risk as it has the highest beta of 2.2.

d) Risk premium is the excess return required by investors for holding a risky asset compared to a risk-free asset. It is calculated as the difference between the expected return and the risk-free rate.

Risk premium = Expected return - Risk-free rate

Company A: Risk premium = 18% - 2% = 16%

Company B: Risk premium = 22% - 2% = 20%

Company C: Risk premium = 15.5% - 2% = 13.5%

Company D: Risk premium = 19.2% - 2% = 17.2%

Among the given companies, Company B pays a higher risk premium with a value of 20%.

learn more about "Market ":- https://brainly.com/question/25369230

#SPJ11

1. Dean Foods' mistakes included lack of diversification, overreliance on traditional dairy, failure to adapt to consumer preferences for plant-based alternatives. 2. To diversify, Dean Foods can explore plant-based alternatives, introduce functional beverages and health-conscious options.

Dean Foods made critical mistakes that contributed to its downfall. Firstly, the company focused heavily on traditional dairy products and failed to diversify its offerings. This made them vulnerable to shifts in consumer preferences, particularly the rising demand for plant-based alternatives. Additionally, Dean Foods struggled with financial mismanagement, accumulating significant debt that became unsustainable.

These factors, combined with declining sales and loss of market share, led to the company filing for bankruptcy in 2019. To avoid such mistakes, companies should continuously assess market trends, diversify their product lines, and adapt to changing consumer preferences to remain competitive in the industry.

To diversify and expand its product line, Dean Foods could capitalize on the growing demand for plant-based alternatives by offering a range of non-dairy milk options, plant-based yogurts, and other dairy substitutes. This would enable them to tap into a rapidly expanding market and cater to consumers seeking healthier and sustainable options.

Additionally, they could venture into the functional beverage space, introducing products with added health benefits or targeting specific consumer segments, such as sports drinks or energy beverages. Furthermore, exploring organic and health-conscious product offerings would align with the increasing consumer focus on wellness. To expedite their diversification efforts, Dean Foods could consider partnerships or acquisitions with established brands in these segments, leveraging their expertise and existing customer base to accelerate market entry and expansion.

To know more about beverage line, here

https://brainly.com/question/30388880

#SPJ4

The $28,290 financial gain from accepting the special order.

Given

Special selling price = $17

Special unit = 2300

Direct materials = $1.9

Direct labor = $2

Variable manufacturing overhead = $0.8

Required to calculate the financial advantage (disadvantage) of accepting the special order =?

calculate the revenue from the special order:

Special order revenue = Number of units in the special order * Special price per unit

Special order revenue = 2,300 units * $17.00 per unit = $39100

Cost of producing units for special order = (Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead) * Number of units in the special order

Cost of producing units for special order = ($1.90 + $2.00 + $0.80) * 2,300 units

= $4.7 x 2300 = $10,810

Now we can calculate the financial advantage or disadvantages:

Financial advantage (disadvantage) = Special order revenue - Cost of producing units for special order

Financial advantage = $28,290                                          

the company should accept the special order because this gives a  financial gain of $28,290 by accepting the special order.

Learn more about special orders here:

https://brainly.com/question/20378184

#SPJ1

Your Question seems incomplete most probably your complete question was:

Delta Company produces a single product. The cost of producing and selling a single unit of this product at the company's normal activity level of 91,200 units per year is Direct materials. $ 1.90 $ 2.00 Direct labor Variable manufacturing overhead $ 0.80 Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 4.05 Variable selling and administrative expense $ 1.20 Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 1.00 The normal selling price is $20.00 per unit. The company's capacity is 118,800 units per year. An order has been received from a mail-order house for 2,300 units at a special price of $17.00 per unit. This order would not affect regular sales or the company's total fixed costs. Required: 1. What is the financial advantage (disadvantage) of accepting the special order?

The value of the stock is $22.94 today. The value of a stock can be calculated using the formula below: P = D1 / (1 + r)1 + D2 / (1 + r)2 + ... + Dn / (1 + r)n + Pn / (1 + r)n.

Where:

P = price of the stock

D = dividen

dr = discount rate

Pn = price of the stock at year n The formula above can be used to calculate the value of the stock given that we have a known dividend, a known discount rate, and growth rates over a given period of time. For the purpose of this question, the steps are below. Step 1: Find the dividend in year 1D1 = $0.85 Step 2: Find the dividend growth rate for the first three years g1 = 15%Step 3: Find the dividend in year

2D2 = D1 (1 + g1)

= $0.85 (1 + 0.15)

= $0.9775

Find the dividend in year

3D3 = D2 (1 + g1)

= $0.9775 (1 + 0.15)

= $1.12213  Find the dividend growth rate beyond year

3g2 = 10%  Find the present value of the dividends

PV of dividends = D1 / (1 + r)1 + D2 / (1 + r)2 + D3 / (1 + r)3 + D4 / (1 + r)4

PV of dividends = $0.85 / (1 + 0.11)1 + $0.9775 / (1 + 0.11)2 + $1.12213 / (1 + 0.11)3 + [$1.12213 (1 + 0.10)] / [(0.11 - 0.10) (1 + 0.11)3]

PV of dividends = $2.65 Step 7: Find the present value of the price of the stock in year 3PV of Pn = Pn / (1 + r)n PV of

P3 = 1 / (1 + 0.11)3 x [($1.12213 (1 + 0.10)) / (0.11 - 0.10)] PV of P3 = $23.16 Find the total value of the stock P = PV of dividends + PV of Pn

P = $2.65 + $23.16P = $25.81 Therefore, the value of the stock is $25.81 today.

To know more about stock visit :

https://brainly.com/question/31940696

#SPJ11