the concept that a dollar today is worth more than a dollar a year from now is called the ______ of money. (enter only one word per blank.)

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Answer 1

The concept that a dollar today is worth more than a dollar a year from now is called the time value of money. This is because money has the potential to earn interest or increase in value over time, and therefore, receiving a dollar today is more valuable than receiving the same dollar in the future.

The time value of money is an important concept in finance and is used to calculate the present value of future cash flows, as well as determine the appropriate discount rate for investments and loan repayments.

Essentially, the time value of money recognizes that money has a time-related value and that its worth changes depending on when it is received or paid.

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which drugs can suppress the body's shivering? group of answer choices

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The drugs that can suppress the body's shivering include several categories such as antipyretics, anesthetics, sedatives, and muscle relaxants.

Antipyretics, like acetaminophen and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, work to reduce fever and may subsequently suppress shivering. Anesthetics, including general anesthetics like propofol, and local anesthetics like lidocaine, can suppress shivering by acting on the central nervous system and peripheral nerves. Sedatives, such as benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam and lorazepam) and barbiturates, can also suppress shivering through their calming and relaxing effects on the body.

Muscle relaxants, like baclofen and dantrolene, work directly on the muscles to reduce tension and may alleviate shivering. It is important to note that these medications should be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional, as they may have side effects and potential interactions with other medications. So therefore antipyretics, anesthetics, sedatives, and muscle relaxants are the drugs that can suppress the body's shivering.

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which of the following statements best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?

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Insulin and glucagon are two hormones that have opposite effects on blood sugar levels in the body. Insulin is produced by the pancreas in response to high blood sugar levels, and it acts to lower blood sugar by promoting the uptake and storage of glucose in cells throughout the body. Insulin also inhibits the breakdown of stored glucose in the liver, further reducing blood sugar levels.

In contrast, glucagon is produced by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. Glucagon acts to raise blood sugar levels by stimulating the breakdown of stored glucose in the liver, which is then released into the bloodstream.

Therefore, the relationship between insulin and glucagon can be described as antagonistic, meaning they have opposite effects on blood sugar levels. When insulin levels are high, glucagon levels are low, and vice versa. This delicate balance between the two hormones helps to maintain stable blood sugar levels in the body.

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The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
A) antigen-antibody complexes.
B) found in basophils and mast cells.
C) the proteins of the complement system.
D) antibodies.
E) antigens.

Answers

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are option B: "found in basophils and mast cells."

what is the physical barrier in the root that regulates the flow of water to xylem via cell walls?

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The physical barrier in the root that regulates the flow of water to xylem via cell walls is known as the Casparian strip.

The Casparian strip is a specialized region in the root endodermis, a layer of cells surrounding the central vascular tissue called the xylem. It is a band of suberin, a waxy substance, present in the radial and transverse walls of endodermal cells.

The Casparian strip acts as a selective barrier that prevents the uncontrolled movement of water and solutes between adjacent cells. It forces the water and minerals absorbed by the root to pass through the cytoplasm of the endodermal cells, where they are selectively transported into the xylem vessels.

This regulation ensures that only necessary substances are transported to the xylem and prevents the entry of harmful substances or pathogens.

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DNA Replication occurs during [ Select ] ["S", "G2", "G1", "G0", "M"] Phase of the cell cycle. During this phase the cell will need to make a(n) [ Select ] ["identical", "similar", "homologous", "heterozygous"] copy of each chromosome. In order to keep track of all the genetic material, the two copies are hooked together at their [ Select ] ["centromeres", "telomeres", "start codons", "replication initiators"] - this makes a duplicate chromosome. The two copies of each chromosome are called [ Select ] ["sister chromatids", "sister chromosomes", "daughter cells", "daughter chromosomes"]

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DNA Replication occurs during the S Phase of the cell cycle. During this phase, the cell needs to make an identical copy of each chromosome.

This is necessary because each daughter cell needs a complete set of genetic material. To keep track of all the genetic material, the two copies are hooked together at their centromeres - this makes a duplicate chromosome. The two copies of each chromosome are called sister chromatids.

The replication of DNA is an essential process for the cell to ensure the continuity of genetic information from one generation to another.

DNA Replication occurs during the [S] Phase of the cell cycle. During this phase, the cell will need to make an [identical] copy of each chromosome. In order to keep track of all the genetic material, the two copies are hooked together at their [centromeres] - this makes a duplicate chromosome. The two copies of each chromosome are called [sister chromatids].

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Which of the following genotypes are heterozygous? Check all that apply.1. aa2. tt3. Aa4. Qq5. AA

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The genotypes that are heterozygous are:

3. Aa

4.Qq

Heterozygous refers to having two different alleles for a specific gene. In the given options, the genotypes "Aa" and "Qq" are the ones that have two different alleles.

"aa" represents a homozygous genotype where both alleles are the same (recessive in this case).

"tt" is also a homozygous genotype where both alleles are the same (recessive in this case).

"Aa" is a heterozygous genotype as it has two different alleles, one dominant and one recessive.

"Qq" is another heterozygous genotype with two different alleles, one dominant and one recessive.

"AA" represents a homozygous genotype where both alleles are the same (dominant in this case).

Therefore, options 3 (Aa) and 4 (Qq) are the heterozygous genotypes.

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according to this phylogenetic tree, which statement about common ancestry holds?

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According to the phylogenetic tree, it can be said that creatures that share a branch point have a more recent common ancestor than those on other branches.

A phylogenetic tree illustrates the evolutionary connections and shared ancestry of various creatures. The tree's branching structure serves as an example of how species have diverged over time. According to this tree, it may be concluded that species that share a branch point on the tree had more recent common ancestors than those on other branches.

The nodes, often referred to as branching points, show places in evolutionary history where one lineage split into two or more distinct lineages in the phylogenetic tree.

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.Explain how HATs and HDACs can lead to the formation of cancer.
Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. HATs usually lead to gene ___ and HDACs usually lead to gene ____ In cancer expression cells if HATs are mutated, then genes that are normally ____ to prevent cancer are now _____ which can lead to cancer. In addition, in cancer cells if HDACs are mutated, then genes that are normally _____ to suppress cancer will now be ____ leading to expressed cancer.

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Mutations in HATs and HDACs can disrupt gene regulation by blocking tumor-suppressor genes.

Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.

HATs usually lead to gene activation and HDACs usually lead to gene silencing. In cancer cells, if HATs are mutated, then genes that are normally activated to prevent cancer are now silenced, which can lead to cancer.

In addition, in cancer cells, if HDACs are mutated, then genes that are normally silenced to suppress cancer will now be activated, leading to expressed cancer.

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____ is a hormone that has only one known effect: to stumulate milk prodiuction by the breasts

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Prolactin is a hormone that has only one known effect: to stumulate milk production.

The alveolar cells' ability to secrete milk depends on prolactin. Prolactin stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue in order to prepare it for the production of milk, and its blood levels rise noticeably during pregnancy.  Following delivery, prolactin is no longer inhibited, levels of progesterone and oestrogen drop quickly, and milk secretion starts.

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What serves as a primer for the synthesis of the strong stop DNA (minus) strand?a) Cellular glutamine tRNA with the amino acid (charged)b) Spliced mRNA moleculec) Cellular glutamine tRNA without the amino acid (uncharged)d) Degraded fragments of RNA (+ strand)

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The cellular glutamine tRNA with the amino acid (charged) serves as a primer for the synthesis of the strong stop DNA (minus) strand.

During the process of reverse transcription, the reverse transcriptase enzyme uses a primer to initiate the synthesis of the minus strand of DNA. In the case of retroviruses, including HIV, the primer is usually a cellular tRNA molecule that is bound to the amino acid glutamine.

This tRNA molecule is first charged with glutamine, which means that the amino acid is attached to the tRNA. The charged tRNA then binds to a specific sequence on the viral RNA genome, and the reverse transcriptase uses it to initiate the synthesis of the minus strand of DNA.

This process is crucial for the replication of the virus and its integration into the host genome.

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which of the following is not a chief homeostatic role of the hypothalamus?

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The following is not a chief homeostatic role of the hypothalamus: analyzing nerve signals for voluntary body movements.

What is the hypothalamus?

The hypothalamus is a tiny part of the brain that plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis, which is the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. The hypothalamus is in charge of the following homeostatic functions: regulating body temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep, and wakefulness cycles, and other autonomic functions (such as regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate).

Furthermore, the hypothalamus controls the secretions of pituitary hormones, which affect the activity of other endocrine glands and their secretions. It also evaluates nerve signals for involuntary body movement, among other things.

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the of the heart is the superior border that is a relatively flattened area with several large vessels attached. true or false

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The of the heart is the superior border that is a relatively flattened area with several large vessels attached is true.

The superior border of the heart refers to the uppermost part of the heart, which is located at the level of the second rib.

This area is relatively flattened and serves as a point of attachment for several large vessels that supply blood to and from the heart.

These vessels include the superior vena cava, which carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium of the heart, and the pulmonary trunk, which divides into the left and right pulmonary arteries that carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation.

Understanding the anatomy of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular conditions.

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Weight loss and/or changes in body composition can be monitored with. A) a scale. B) skinfold measurements. C) girth measurements. D) both a and b

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Weight loss and/or changes in body composition can be monitored with both a scale and skinfold measurements.

While a scale provides overall weight loss progress, skinfold measurements are a more accurate way to measure changes in body composition, such as decreases in body fat and increases in muscle mass. Girth measurements can also be helpful in monitoring progress in specific areas of the body. Therefore, the answer is D) both a and b.

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holding a deep breath while contracting the abdominal wall muscles initiates what

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Holding a deep breath while contracting the abdominal wall muscles initiates the Valsalva maneuver.

The Valsalva maneuver is a physiological response characterized by a forced expiration against a closed airway. This maneuver involves contracting the abdominal muscles while simultaneously closing the glottis (the opening between the vocal cords) and holding the breath. This action increases the pressure in the chest and abdominal cavities, creating stability and providing support for various activities such as heavy lifting or pushing.

The Valsalva maneuver is commonly used in weightlifting, powerlifting, and other activities that require exertion of force, as it helps to stabilize the core and enhance overall performance. However, it can also lead to a temporary increase in blood pressure and should be performed with caution, especially for individuals with certain medical conditions.


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zinc is important for taste perception as a component of ____.

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Zinc is an important component of gustin, which is essential for taste perception and the maintenance of taste buds.

Zinc is an essential trace mineral that plays a vital role in various bodily functions. It is involved in the proper functioning of the immune system, wound healing, and DNA synthesis. However, one of the lesser-known roles of zinc is its importance in taste perception. Zinc is a component of Gustin, a protein that is found in saliva and is responsible for the development and maintenance of taste buds.
The taste buds are specialized sensory organs located on the tongue and other parts of the mouth, which are responsible for detecting different flavours such as sweet, sour, bitter, and salty. Zinc is required for the proper functioning and maintenance of these taste buds. Zinc deficiency can lead to a loss of taste perception, which can ultimately affect a person's overall appetite and nutritional status.
Furthermore, research has shown that zinc supplementation can help improve taste perception in people who have lost their sense of taste due to various conditions such as chemotherapy, aging, and neurological disorders. Thus, ensuring an adequate intake of zinc through a balanced diet or supplements is crucial for maintaining optimal taste perception and overall health.

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in all plants, the zygote and earliest stages of the developing embryo are

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In all plants, the zygote and earliest stages of the developing embryo are critical stages in the reproductive process. The zygote is the result of the fusion of two gametes, usually the sperm and egg, and it contains all the genetic material necessary to create a new individual. Once the zygote is formed, it undergoes rapid cell division and differentiation, leading to the formation of an embryo.

In plants, the embryo is typically contained within a seed, which is the reproductive structure produced by the female plant. The embryo is surrounded by protective tissues that provide it with nutrients and support during germination. As the embryo grows, it develops into a young seedling that eventually emerges from the seed and begins to grow into a mature plant.

Overall, the zygote and early stages of the developing embryo are critical for the successful reproduction of all plants. Without these stages, the process of seed formation and germination would not be possible, and the survival of plant species would be in jeopardy.

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The symptoms of Parkinson's disease are temporarily alleviated in some patients by injections of

a. L-dopa.
b. tyrosine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.
e. adrenaline.

Answers

Answer:

a.L-dopa

Explanation:

Levodopa treatment represents the most effective treatment for Parkinson's disease. However, chronic treatment is associated with the development of motor complications (motor fluctuations, dyskinesia) in most patients.

which vessel(s) collect(s) blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries and deliver(s) this blood to the coronary sinus?

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The vessel that collects blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries and delivers it to the coronary sinus is called the cardiac veins.

The vessel that collects blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries and delivers this blood to the coronary sinus is called the cardiac veins. These cardiac veins play an essential role in collecting deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle and returning it to the coronary sinus, which then empties into the right atrium.The cardiac veins are the blood vessels that transport blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries to the coronary sinus. Deoxygenated blood is drawn from the myocardial tissue through the cardiac veins, which include the great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein. Eventually, these veins combine to form the coronary sinus, a bigger vein on the back of the heart. The blood is subsequently discharged from the coronary sinus into the right atrium of the heart.

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What are the three molecular processes that are required to convert a skin cell into an induced pluripotent stem cell after introduction of the four transcription factor genes?

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The three molecular processes that are required to convert a skin cell into an induced pluripotent stem cell after introduction of the four transcription factor genes are reprogramming, epigenetic remodeling, and establishment of pluripotency

The first process is called reprogramming, which refers to the alteration of the cell's gene expression pattern to enable it to acquire pluripotency. The introduction of four transcription factor genes (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc) triggers the second process, which is called epigenetic remodeling. This process involves changes to the structure and function of chromatin, which regulates gene expression. The transcription factors activate or repress specific genes that regulate the cell's fate.

Finally, the third process is the establishment of pluripotency, where the cells undergo further changes that enable them to differentiate into any cell type in the body, this is achieved through the activation of specific signaling pathways and the suppression of genes that prevent differentiation. In summary, the three molecular processes required to convert a skin cell into an iPSC after the introduction of the four transcription factor genes are reprogramming, epigenetic remodeling, and establishment of pluripotency.

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a bursa is a fluid-filled sac that eases friction between bare areas of bone and overlapping muscles. it is found in______joints.

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Bursae are fluid-filled sacs that provide cushioning and reduce friction between bones and muscles. They are found in joints throughout the body.

Bursae are small, fluid-filled sacs that are located in areas of the body where bones and muscles overlap and rub against each other. Their purpose is to reduce friction and provide cushioning between the bones and muscles. Bursae can be found in a variety of joints throughout the body, including the shoulder, elbow, hip, knee, and ankle. When a joint is moved, the bursae in that joint act as shock absorbers, reducing the impact of the movement and protecting the joint from damage. Bursitis is a condition in which the bursae become inflamed and painful, usually as a result of repetitive motion or pressure on the joint. In summary, bursae are important structures that help to reduce friction and protect joints from damage. They can be found in many different joints throughout the body and are essential for smooth, pain-free movement.

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protein denaturation can be brought about by all of the following except:

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Protein denaturation can be brought about by all of the following except cooling the protein.

Protein denaturation is the breakdown or unfolding of a protein's structure, which results in the loss of its functional capabilities.

Denaturation can be triggered by a variety of circumstances, including heating the protein, exposing it to a strong acid, and treating it with disulfide bond-breaking chemicals.

These circumstances have the potential to disturb the non-covalent interactions and disulfide bonds that contribute to the folded structure of the protein.

As a result, chilling the protein is an exception among the mentioned choices because it is not a factor that generally causes protein denaturation.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

Protein denaturation can be brought about by all of the following except: cooling the protein heating the protein placing the protein in a strong acid, which disrupts hydrogen bonding treating the protein with compounds that break disulfide bonds

which of the following structures of the gastrointestinal system absorbs iron and bile salts

Answers

The duodenum is a big site for absorption of iron . The jejunum is a site for absorption of vitamin Folic acid . The end of the ileum is a site for vitamin b12 and bile salts
Final answer:

The absorption of iron and bile salts primarily occurs in the small intestine, specifically the duodenum and ileum respectively. Iron is taken up by the duodenum and stored in the mucosal cells, whereas bile salts, required for fat digestion, are mainly absorbed in the ileum and returned to the liver.

Explanation:

The structures of the gastrointestinal system involved in the absorption of iron and bile salts are primarily the duodenum and the ileum parts of the small intestine. Iron uptake occurs in the duodenum, where it is absorbed into mucosal cells via active transport before being stored in ferritin-iron complexes. As for bile salts, they are crucial in the process of fat digestion and are predominantly absorbed in the ileum, then returned back to the liver for reuse in bile formation.

The detailed mechanism of iron absorption entails that ionic iron needed for the production of hemoglobin is absorbed into mucosal cells. When the body has excess iron, the iron stored in the epithelial cells is lost when these cells wear out. Conversely, if the body needs more iron due to conditions that lead to iron loss, there's an increased uptake from the gut and released into the bloodstream.

Similarly, bile salts play crucial roles in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats. These salts emulsify large fat droplets into smaller ones, a necessary step for fat digestion. They are then absorbed into the bloodstream from the ileum part of the small intestine and returned to the liver through the hepatic portal blood, a process known as enterohepatic circulation.

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Which of the following is false regarding Penfield's motor and somatosensory homunculi? a) The somatotopic representation of the feet lies ventral to the somatotopic representation of the face in the somatosensory homunculus b) Each part of the body in the motor homunculus is represented by the same amount of cortex on the precentral gyrus c) Dr. Penfield found that when he stimulated the postcentral gyrus in the left hemisphere, the patients reported a tingling sensation on the left side of the body d) All of the above e) B & C only

Answers

Option B is the false statement regarding Penfield's motor and somatosensory homunculi.

What are Penfield's motor and somatosensory homunculi?

The representation of the body within the brain is called a homunculus. In the brain, there are two types of homunculi: the motor homunculus and the somatosensory homunculus. They were developed by Wilder Penfield and his colleagues at the Montreal Neurological Institute in the 1950s.

Penfield's motor homunculus: It is a map of the body's primary motor cortex that depicts the amount of cortical tissue dedicated to each body part. The motor homunculus has a distorted appearance because it is based on the number of motor neurons required to control each part of the body. Penfield's somatosensory homunculus: It is a map of the primary somatosensory cortex that depicts the amount of cortical tissue dedicated to each body part.

The somatosensory homunculus has a distorted appearance because it is based on the number of sensory neurons required to detect each part of the body. Option B is the false statement regarding Penfield's motor and somatosensory homunculi. Each part of the body in the motor homunculus is represented by the same amount of cortex on the precentral gyrus. This statement is incorrect because each part of the body is represented by a varying amount of cortical tissue in the primary motor cortex.

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What is the largest recognizable subdivision of a terrestrial ecosystem?

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The largest recognizable subdivision of a terrestrial ecosystem is Biomes

The largest recognizable subdivision of a terrestrial ecosystem is a biome. A biome is a vast geographical area on Earth that is characterized by distinct climate patterns, vegetation types, and animal communities. It represents a major ecological unit that shares similar environmental conditions and supports comparable life forms across different continents.

Biomes are determined by factors such as temperature, precipitation, altitude, and soil type. They can be broadly classified into terrestrial biomes, such as forests, grasslands, deserts, and tundra, as well as aquatic biomes, including freshwater and marine ecosystems.

Each biome exhibits unique characteristics and harbors specific adaptations in its plant and animal species to survive and thrive within its particular environment. For instance, tropical rainforests are characterized by high temperatures, abundant rainfall, and dense vegetation, while deserts experience low precipitation and are inhabited by organisms adapted to extreme aridity.

Understanding biomes is essential for studying global patterns of biodiversity and ecosystem dynamics. They play a crucial role in regulating climate, nutrient cycling, and providing habitats for countless organisms. Conservation efforts often focus on preserving and restoring biomes to maintain the delicate balance of ecosystems and safeguard the biodiversity they harbor.

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one of the ways that suburban residential segregation is reinforced is through

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One of the ways that suburban residential segregation is reinforced is through exclusionary zoning practices.

These practices involve zoning laws and ordinances that restrict the type and density of housing in a particular area, making it difficult or impossible for low-income and minority individuals to afford to live there. This leads to a lack of diversity in suburban neighborhoods, reinforcing segregation and perpetuating inequality. In addition, suburban communities may also use homeowners' associations and other mechanisms to enforce norms and regulations that discourage diversity and promote homogeneity. As a result, suburban neighborhoods often lack the social and economic diversity that is present in urban areas, exacerbating the effects of segregation.

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Which most accurately describes why air moves in and out of the lungs during respiration?
A. Dalton's Law: The partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide determine the inspiration of oxygen and the expiration of carbon dioxide.
B. Boyle's Law: Pressure changes caused by changes in lung volume allow air to enter the lungs during inspiration and air to move out of the lungs during expiration.
C. Henry's Law: Increased lung volume during inspiration allows more air to enter the lungs while decreased lung volume during expiration allows more air to leave the lungs.
D. Murphy's Law: Increased lung volume increases pressure so air enters the lungs; decreased lung volume decreases pressure to air leaves the lungs.

Answers

The most accurate description of why air moves in and out of the lungs during respiration is Boyle's Law: Pressure changes caused by changes in lung volume allow air to enter the lungs during inspiration and air to move out of the lungs during expiration. So, the correct answer is option B.

Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume, assuming constant temperature. During respiration, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, causing the lung volume to increase and pressure inside to decrease. This leads to air being drawn into the lungs during inspiration. Conversely, when these muscles relax, the lung volume decreases, and pressure inside increases, causing air to move out of the lungs during expiration.

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one of the carbohydrates made up of long chains of simple sugars; polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen

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Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates composed of long chains of simple sugars.

Polysaccharides are carbohydrates made up of long chains of simple sugars, which are also known as monosaccharides. These chains are formed through a process called polymerization, in which monosaccharides are linked together by glycosidic bonds.

Some common examples of polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen. Starch is a storage form of energy in plants, cellulose is a structural component in plant cell walls, and glycogen is a storage form of energy in animals.

Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates composed of long chains of simple sugars. They serve various functions in living organisms, such as energy storage (starch and glycogen) and providing structural support (cellulose).

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which of the following is not a function of antibodies? question 13 options: a) opsonization b) agglutination c) phagocytosis d) neutralization

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The answer is (c) phagocytosis. Antibodies do not directly perform phagocytosis, but they can help facilitate the process by marking pathogens for phagocytic cells to recognize and engulf. The other three options are all functions of antibodies: opsonization involves marking pathogens for phagocytosis, agglutination clumps pathogens together to make them easier for phagocytes to engulf, and neutralization blocks the harmful effects of pathogens.

An antibody is a protein produced by the body's immune system when it detects harmful substances, called antigens. Examples of antigens include microorganisms (bacteria, fungi, parasites, and viruses) and chemicals. Antibodies are divided into five groups based on where they are found. IgA, IgG, IgD, IgE, and IgM are the letters that are used to identify each one along with an abbreviation of the word "immunoglobulin" (Ig).

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the main difference between the retina of a human eye and that of a dog's eye is the

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The main difference between the retina of a human eye and that of a dog's eye is the concentration of rod cells and cone cells. Rod cells are responsible for detecting low levels of light and are more concentrated in a dog's retina, which gives them better night vision than humans.

Cone cells, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and visual acuity, and are more concentrated in the human retina, giving us better color vision and sharpness of detail. Dogs also have a reflective layer behind their retina called the tapetum lucidum, which enhances their ability to see in low light conditions. Overall, the differences in retinal structure and cell concentration reflect the different visual needs and adaptations of humans and dogs.
The main difference between the retina of a human eye and that of a dog's eye lies in the composition and distribution of photoreceptor cells. Humans have a higher concentration of cone cells, which are responsible for color vision and sharpness. Dogs, on the other hand, have more rod cells, which are sensitive to light and motion, allowing them to see better in low light conditions. Furthermore, dogs have a reflective layer called the tapetum lucidum, which enhances their night vision by reflecting light back onto the retina. In contrast, humans lack this layer and rely more on cone cells for vision.

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the efficiency of photovoltaic cells in commercial applications is approximately ______.

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The efficiency of photovoltaic cells in commercial applications is approximately 15-20%. Efficiency in this context refers to the percentage of sunlight that is converted into electricity by the photovoltaic cells.

The efficiency of photovoltaic cells in commercial applications can vary depending on several factors, including the type of technology used, the quality of manufacturing, and the operating conditions. The average efficiency of commercially available photovoltaic cells typically ranges from 15% to 20%, with some advanced technologies reaching efficiencies of over 20%.

Traditional silicon-based solar cells, known as crystalline silicon cells, are widely used in commercial applications and have efficiencies in the range of 15% to 20%. Monocrystalline silicon cells tend to have slightly higher efficiencies compared to polycrystalline silicon cells. However, there are also emerging technologies such as thin-film solar cells (e.g., cadmium telluride, copper indium gallium selenide) that offer lower efficiencies in the range of 10% to 15%.

It's worth noting that solar cell efficiency has been improving over the years due to advancements in research and development. Therefore, it's possible that the efficiency of photovoltaic cells in commercial applications may have increased.

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Which term can be used to describe the normal sono. appearance of the splenic parenchyma?A. Heterogeneous with mid to low level echoB. Homogeneous with mid to low level echoC. Homogeneous with echogenicity exceeding that of the liverD. Heterogeneous with mixed echogenicityE. The normal spleen has a varied appearance many password-protected oss and applications store passwords in the form of ____ or sha hash values. which taste receptors offer a survival advantae when tasting something for the first time ______ is a term applied to a contract in which all of the terms have been fully performed. A lorry weighs 3.2 tonnes when empty. It weighed 7.7 tonnes when loaded with 90 kg bags of maize. How many bags of maize were loaded? what does the book of ecclesiastes teach christians about pursuing happiness apart from god? A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple fractures in his left leg notes increasing edema. The nurse should recognize this finding as an early manifestation of which of the following complications?1. Fat embolism syndrome2. Acute compartment syndrome3. Pulmonary embolism4. Osteomyelitis "We hold these truths to be self-evident: that all men and women are created equal; that they are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable rights; that among these are life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness; that to secure these rights governments are instituted, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed. Whenever any form of government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the right of those who suffer from it to refuse allegiance to it, and to insist upon the institution of a new government . . ."". . . Such has been the patient sufferance of the women under this government, and such is now the necessity which constrains them to demand the equal station to which they are entitled. The history of mankind is a history of repeated injuries and usurpations on the part of man toward woman, having in direct object the establishment of an absolute tyranny over her. To prove this, let facts be submitted to a candid world.He has never permitted her to exercise her inalienable right to the elective franchise.He has compelled her to submit to laws, in the formation of which she had no voice.He has withheld from her rights which are given to the most ignorant and degraded men. . . .Having deprived her of this first right of a citizen, the elective franchise, thereby leaving her without representation in the halls of legislation, he has oppressed her on all sides.He has made her, if married, in the eye of the law, civilly dead.He has taken from her all right in property, even to the wages she earns."-Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Seneca Falls Convention, 1848Which of the following amendments to the United States Constitution addresses the grievance that a woman is not permitted "to exercise her inalienable right to the elective franchise"?Fourteenth AmendmentFifteenth AmendmentSeventeenth AmendmentNineteenth Amendment according to the text, where does the united states rank in infant mortality rates when compared to other advanced democracies? laci, a jail guard, is critical of everyone and does not like to travel because of anxiety. she most likely fits into which personality cluster? a nuclear power plant produces an average of 3800 mwmw of power during a year of operation. A client with Ebola was just admitted to the unit. Which actions by the nurse would represent appropriate care of this client? a parent brings an infant to the clinic for a well child visit. during the assessment, the parent asks the nurse why the infant never seems to sweat. what action should the nurse take? player/star/startJaleiyah HemphillWhat is the perimeter of a triangle with side14 inches, 8 inches, and 16 inches in lengtA 30 inchesB 22 inche Credit Cards Another type of personal loan is a credit card. A financial institution allows you to charge a purchase to your account, and you are required to pay the financial institution at a later time. As with other loans, credit cards charge interest. Interest rates can range from 3% - 22%. When you are paying for debt on a credit card, the financial institution will require a minimum balance be paid each month. The higher the interest rate that is charged on the credit card, the larger the minimum payment will be. You can use credit card payoff calculators such as the one in the following link to determine how much to pay each month and how long it will take to pay off a credit card. credit-card-payoff-calculator When using the credit card calculator, be certain that the monthly charges (new spending or borrowing) are set to 0.Assume you have a balance of $1,300 on a credit card. Use the credit card payoff calculator to answer the following questions.1. a. If the credit card has an annual interest rate of 13.6% and only the minimum monthly payment of $35 is made, how many months will it take to pay off the credit card?b. What is the total amount that would be spent to pay off the $1,300 if the monthly payment is $35?2. a. If the credit card has an annual interest rate of 13.6% and a monthly payment of $55 is made, how many months will it take to pay off the credit card?b. What is the total amount that would be spent to pay off the $1,300 if the monthly payment is $55?3. a. If the credit card has an annual interest rate of 22% and only the minimum monthly payment of $45 is made, how many months will it take to pay off the credit card?b. What is the total amount that would be spent to pay off the $1,300 if the monthly payment is $45?4. a. If the credit card has an annual interest rate of 22% and a monthly payment of $80 is made, how many months will it take to pay off the credit card?b. What is the total amount that would be spent to pay off the $1,300 if the monthly payment is $80?5. What are some reasons the interest rates on credit cards vary?6. What are your opinions on having and using credit cards for your purchases? Can someone please solve this I'm stuck this is the system for creating an illusion of depth using three basic components What form of energy is lost in great quantities at every step up the trophic ladder? a. waste b. light c. fog d. water e. heat Allen's Rule only really applies to what kinds of species? a. insects b. warm-blooded c. hibernating reptiles d. cold-blooded e. fishWhich law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be changed from one form to another?a. the first law of thermodynamics b. the first law of general relativity c. the second law of thermodynamics d. the law of gravity e. the law of superposition The box plot represents the scores on quizzes in a history class.A box plot uses a number line from 69 to 87 with tick marks every one-half unit. The box extends from 75 to 82 on the number line. A line in the box is at 79. The lines outside the box end at 70 and 84.What value does 25% of the data lie below? (A) the lower quartile (Q1) and it is 75(B) the lower quartile (Q1) and it is 79(C) the upper quartile (Q3) and it is 82(D) the upper quartile (Q3) ans it is 84 in one of the theories of senescence, antioxidants are thought to act by