TRUE/FALSE. a gene that blocks dna replication in response to dna damage is fused to a regulatory element that activates transcription always, even when dna is not damaged
Yes, this statement is true. A gene that blocks DNA replication in response to DNA damage is fused to a regulatory element that activates transcription always, even when DNA is not damaged.
What do you mean by transcription?Transcription is the process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA. The segments of DNA transcribed into RNA molecules that can encode proteins are said to produce messenger RNA. Other segments of DNA are copied into RNA molecules called non-coding RNAs. mRNA comprises only 1–3% of total RNA samples.
Moreover, transcription is the first step in gene expression. It involves copying a gene's DNA sequence to make an RNA molecule. Transcription is performed by enzymes called RNA polymerases, which link nucleotides to form an RNA strand (using a DNA strand as a template).
Hence, transcription, as related to genomics, is the process of making an RNA copy of a gene's DNA sequence. This copy, called messenger RNA (mRNA), carries the gene's protein information encoded in DNA.
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What was the oxygen revolution a result of?.
A period of time during the Proterozoic era when the atmosphere's molecular oxygen concentration increased and its carbon dioxide concentration fell.
What led to the oxygen revolution?The increase in oxygen is credited to cyanobacteria, which are considered to have first emerged some 3.5 billion years ago and are responsible for photosynthesis.
What effects has the oxygen revolution had?Thus, the oxygen released by cyanobacteria led to modifications in the composition of the earth's atmosphere, the emergence of aerobic metabolism, and ultimately the development of multicellularity. The main component of modern Earth, which is far friendlier and more attractive than the early Earth, is oxygen.
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You need to make sure a number the user types in is non-negative. Which of the following functions would you use?a. inputb. fabsc. posd. int
You need to make sure a number the user types in is non-negative, the following functions would you use fabs.
Header report in C programming is used to get absolutely the price of a floating factor quantity. This feature returns absolutely the price in double. Syntax: double fabs (double a); Parameter: It will take a unmarried parameter that is to be transformed to an absolute price.
fabs → This converts the quantity to a glide (if possible) and returns absolutely the glide price.
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What is oxygen revolution write its effect on the environment?.
a period of time during the Proterozoic era when the atmosphere's molecular oxygen concentration increased and its carbon dioxide concentration fell.
What led to the oxygen revolution and what consequences resulted from it?Description: When cyanobacteria that are found in the oceans began to produce oxygen through photosynthesis, this is known as the Great Oxygenation Event. Anaerobic microorganisms were wiped off when oxygen accumulated in the atmosphere, causing the first mass extinction on Earth.
What prompted the oxygen revolution?The development by living things of "modern," oxygenic photosynthesis by cyanobacteria led to the oxygen revolution, which in particular involves the release of molecular oxygen into aquatic ecosystems and the atmosphere.
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Which hypothesis suggests that ancestral vertebrates may have evolved from urochordate larvae?.
According to Garstang's Auricularia hypothesis, early vertebrates might have descended from urochordate larvae.
By highlighting the significance of alterations in larval forms, Garstang's Auricularia theory aimed to explain how the chordate body plan arose from a deuterostome common ancestor.
According to this theory, the original chordate was a sedentary filter feeder like adult ascidian tunicates. The swimming larva did not mature into an adult, sessile tunicate; instead, it developed gonads and reproduced while still in the larval stage.
This concept can now be evaluated because of new genetic and developmental evidence, although the majority of zoologists still believe that the ancestor chordate was a free-swimming animal.
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What occurs during meiosis 1 that is very unique to this process?.
Chromosomes resegregate in a diploid cell during meiosis I, resulting in the formation of four haploid daughter cells. Genetic variety is created at this meiotic stage. Before meiosis I begin, DNA replication occurs.
Homologous chromosomes link up and create synapses during prophase I, which is a stage exclusive to meiosis. Meiosis works to cut the number of chromosomes in half.
Each daughter cell that is created will have half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. Due to the fact that gametes have half as many chromosomes as diploid (2N) people, meiosis is a necessary step in the sexual process.
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which teeth in both carnivores and herbivores typically have flatter occlusal surfaces used for grinding?
Molar teeth in both carnivores and herbivores typically have flatter ooclusal surfaces used for grinding.
The back of the mouth's molars, often known as molar teeth, are big, flat teeth. Mammals have a higher level of development. They are typically employed to grind food as it is being chewed.
The Latin word molaris dens, which translates to "millstone tooth," gave rise to the English word molar. Across animal taxa, molars exhibit a tremendous degree of variation in size and shape. In humans, the third molar can occasionally be absent.
The molar teeth in humans either have four or five cusps. At the rear of the mouth, adults have 12 molars that are arranged in four groups of three. The wisdom tooth is the third and final molar in each group.
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Which of the following has the greatest potential as a cancer treatment?Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in normal cells, so that the normal cells would soon outnumber the cancer cells.Find a way to turn on the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since they will be unable to divide if their telomeres are too long.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in all cells in embryos, so that they never develop cancer.Find a way to turn off the gene for making telomerase in cancer cells, since the cells would stop dividing when the telomeres were gone.
Surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy are the most often used conventional treatment techniques, while hormone therapy is one of the more recent modalities.
How can telomerase production be boosted?These findings demonstrated that in men, telomerase activation in response to high-intensity cycling exercise is diminished with age [78]. A 30-minute treadmill exercise was sufficient, according to another study, to boost the PBMC telomerase activity in 22 young, healthy subjects—11 men and 11 women—[79].
How is telomerase suppressed?oligonucleotides related to antisense. Antisense DNA oligonucleotides are one of the oldest and most widely utilized families of telomerase inhibiting drugs. Since the 1990s, antisense compounds have frequently been utilized to prevent the translation of mRNA into a useful protein.
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Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in that they both __________; however, they are different in that only chloroplasts, and not mitochondria, __________.
have a double membrane ... carry out photosynthesis
Both have a double membrane but chloroplast carry out photosynthesis.
What are the similarities and differences between mitochondria and chloroplast?They each feature many membranes that divide the innards of each into distinct sections. The innermost membranes, known as cristae or infoldings of the inner membrane, are found in both organelles. Both organelles play a role in energy conversion: chloroplasts participate in photosynthesis and mitochondria in cellular respiration. Both are semi-autonomous, producing tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA from their own DNA. Each one has ribosomes. Both can produce a few proteins on their own. The mitochondria, also referred to as the "powerhouse of the cell," are in charge of cellular respiration and energy metabolism. Chloroplast It is where photosynthesis occurs, and it is bigger and more complex than a mitochondrion. Mitochondria present in every form of aerobic organism's cell, including those of both plants and animals. Green plants and green algae both include chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are Disc-shaped, whereas mitochondria are Bean-shaped. While chloroplasts are green in color, mitochondria are an organelle that lacks color. The two chambers of a mitochondrion are the matrix and cristae, while the two chambers in a chloroplast are the stroma and thylakoid. While chloroplast releases oxygen, mitochondria consume it. Chloroplasts include pigments like chlorophyll, carotenoids, and pigments involved in photosynthetic processes, whereas mitochondria lack any pigment. In contrast to chloroplast, which stores energy and converts it to glucose by using carbon dioxide and water, mitochondria release energy by converting organic food into carbon dioxide and water.
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What is the most effective in controlling the temperature of the body?.
The best method for regulating body temperature is sweating.
The majority of medical professionals concur that chilling the skin is the most efficient way to reduce body temperature, particularly in cases where a person is at risk of heat stroke. Sweat is produced by your sweat glands, and when it evaporates, it cools your skin. Your body's temperature is lowered as a result. Vasodilatation: Widening of the blood vessels under your skin. This causes your inner body, which is heated, to receive more blood flow to your skin, which is cooler. Magnesium - Magnesium aids in controlling body temperature. Magnesium is a crucial mineral for good health and is needed for the body's more than 300 metabolic processes. Potassium levels—An electrolyte known as potassium is essential for cardiovascular health.
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which of the follow nerves innervate the most important abductor of the arm? group of answer choices axillary nerve thoracodorsal nerve lower subscapular nerve suprascapular nerve
Both the motor and sensory nerves halves of the axillary nerve are innervated. It has motor fibers in arm that innervate the teres minor muscle, which enables lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint, as well as the deltoid muscle, which acts as the shoulder joint's abductor, flexor, and extensor.
The axillary nerve, commonly known as the circumflex nerve, is one of five peripheral nerves that cross your shoulder. The brachial plexus, in your neck, is where axillary nerves begin (a network of nerves in your shoulder). Your upper limbs' movement and feeling are made possible by this network of nerves.
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hiv undergoes a mutation that enables the virus to enter another cell type. which processes occur in both the t cell and the phagocyte?
In order to infect white blood cells, the AIDS virus (HIV) also binds to chemokine receptors. T and B cells initially enter the same region.
The genetic material for the HIV virus, a retrovirus, is found in the middle of the virus' capsule. The helper t-cells, which are the body's immunological cells that trigger other lymphocyte cells to fight infection, are killed by the HIV virus.
The majority of the helper T cells are killed by HIV, which has an impact on the immune system of the infected person.
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TRUE/FALSE the inferior border of the teres major is the anatomical border between the axillary and brachial arteries.
It is true that the axillary and brachial arteries anatomically separate at the inferior border of the teres major.
What do the brachial artery's boundaries look like?Your bicep's frontal region contains the brachial artery. Your armpit and shoulder contain a continuation of the axillary artery. At the cubital fossa, it is finished (the indentation between your upper and lower arm, at the front of your elbow). In your forearm, it splits into the ulnar and radial arteries from there.
What is the axillary artery's ring made of?In the axilla, the brachial plexus encircles the axillary artery. The placement of the cords in the brachial plexus are described in relation to the second segment of the axillary artery.
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the electron transport chain (etc), or respiratory chain, is linked to proton movement and atpatp synthesis. select the statements that accurately describe the electron transport chain.
Following Statements Accurately describe the electron transport chain (ETC)
Proton transport from the matrix to the intermembrane space is connected with electron transfer in the electron transport chain (ETC).Prosthetic groups, like iron-sulfur centers, are directly engaged in the transport of electrons. Small molecules and hydrogen ions can easily pass through mitochondria's outer membrane.Four complexes of proteins and prosthetic groups make up electron carriers.Ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) and cytochrome c are electron carriers in the electron transport chain (ETC).The oxidative phosphorylation process, also known as the electron transport chain (ETC), is a collection of four protein complexes that combine redox events to produce an electrochemical gradient that results in the production of ATP. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place in mitochondria.
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diagnosis of paramyxoviruses is aided by viewing a or a multinucleate giant cell with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. multiple choice question.
Diagnosis of paramyxoviruses is aided by viewing a syncytium or a multinucleate giant cell with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies .
A huge, cell-like structure known as a syncytium is created when two or more cells come together.
The order Mononegavirales contains the family of negative-strand RNA viruses known as Paramyxoviridae. Natural hosts are vertebrates. Measles, mumps, and respiratory tract infections are among the illnesses connected to this family.
By isolating the virus from swabs (oropharyngeal and/or cloacal), serology, or PCR testing, paramyxovirus can be identified. There is just supportive care available for paramyxovirus infection. Some viruses may give some persons transient conjunctivitis and flu-like symptoms.
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how does transcription inhibition differ between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? drag the appropriate items to their respective bins.
Prokaryotic repressor proteins:
Bind to operator sequences that overlap promoters.Can block the action of the enhancerInvolve in the formation of DNA loops containing enhancers and their intended promoter targets.Eukaryotic repressor:
Binds to silencer sequences.Prevent enhancer-mediated transcription.Block transcription initiation by RNA polymerase.Eukaryotic insulators:
Block transcription initiation by RNA polymeraseWhat are regulatory gene?Regulatory genes or regulators are genes involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes. Regulatory sequences that encode regulatory genes are often located at her fifth end of the transcription start site of the genes they regulate. Regulatory elements are sequences of DNA that are recognized and bound by specific transcription factors to recruit or exclude RNA polymerase. Promoters regulate gene transcription together with nearby transcription factor binding elements.
Operons are controlled by regulatory genes that produce small protein molecules called repressors. The repressor binds to the operator gene and prevents it from initiating the synthesis of proteins required by the operon.
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What three activities are beneficial for your muscular system?.
Walking, jogging, lifting weights, playing tennis, are all good ways to exercise your muscles.
What is muscular system and example?
The muscular system is an organ system that provides strength, maintains balance, maintains posture, allows movement, and produces heat. It encompasses all muscle tissues, including skeletal muscle tissues, smooth muscle tissues, and cardiac muscle tissues. Walking, jogging, lifting weights, playing tennis, climbing stairs, jumping, and dancing are all good ways to exercise your muscles.
Why muscular system is important?
The muscular system is a group of organs that includes skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle. It allows the body to move, maintains posture, and circulates blood throughout the body. The nervous system controls the muscular systems of vertebrates, though some muscles are completely autonomous.
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hutchinson-gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of 13 years. patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. which of the following sta
There is no "blending" involved because traits are inherited in distinct units.
Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome: What causes it?Causes. HGPS is caused by a single-letter error in a gene on chromosome 1 that codes for the protein lamin A, which is necessary for the membrane encircling the cell nucleus. The abnormal lamin is known by the name "progerin." an HGPS-produced protein. HGPS is not frequently passed down via generations.
Does dementia occur in progeria patients?
Children with progeria are not more prone to cancer, the other major aging illness, or dementia or memory loss. Apart from that, progeria resembles aging accelerated.
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which key property of the bronchi increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases? (hint: it also occurs in the arterial vasculature.)
Total cross-sectional is a key property of the bronchi that increases as the average diameter of the passageways decreases.
The lungs' entryways are called bronchi and are the plural form of bronchus. The right and left major bronchi are the first bronchi that emerge from the trachea. The largest bronchi are those that enter the lung. The bronchi continue to branch after entering the lungs, first becoming tertiary (segmental) bronchi, then into secondary bronchi known as lobar bronchi.
Up until the sixth generation of bronchi, segmental bronchi continue to branch. The cartilage in its wall provides support for every generation, beginning with the primary. The passageways are known as bronchioles after the sixth generation because they are too narrow to be supported by the cartilage.
Hence, cross section area maximized to avail required air volume.
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which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? science philosophy of the vsc
The fact that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect. T cells can stimulate B cells to make antibodies, but they cannot make them by themselves.
What is cell-mediated immunity?
Cell-mediated immunity includes B cells and T helper cells, both of which are important components of the adaptive immune system. Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) first activate helper T cells by showing them the antigen that is carried by them. After T-helper cell activation, it secretes some cytokines that further stimulate the cell differentiation of T cells and activate B cells. The B cell, after activation, makes antibodies that are required to kill the particular pathogen in the body.
Hence, the option that mentions that helper T cells produce antibodies is incorrect.
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The question is incomplete. The complete question is below
1) which one of the following statements is not true of the helper t cell response? (select one)
a) They can stimulate B cells.
b) They are responsible for cell mediated immunity.
c) Helper T cell can secret cytokines.
d) They require an antigen presenting cell.
e) They produce antibodies.
What statements describe the ecological and economic significance of the green algae? (Choose three)
- They are a such of food products such as carrageenan.
- They can cause harmful algal blooms.
- They are potential sources of renewable oil supplies.
- They are a source of food for many aquatic animals.
- They can cause harmful algal blooms.
- They are potential sources of renewable oil supplies.
- They are a source of food for many aquatic animals.
The statements that describe the ecological and economic significance of the green algae are:
- They can cause harmful algal blooms.
- They are potential sources of renewable oil supplies.
- They are a source of food for many aquatic animals.
Green algae are considered to be the largest group of algae that live mostly in water. They are known to have huge ecological as well as economic benefits.
Green algae are known to be one of the potential sources through which oil is renewed. This occurs when green algae under the process of photosynthesis in the aquatic habitat. The sugars produced as a result of photosynthesis can be used for the production of oil.
They can also cause the production of algal blooms.
As green algae can produce their own food, they are the producers of the aquatic habitat. Consumers such as aquatic animals that cannot produce their own food depend on green algae as a food source.
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drag the measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations (bins) to describe what happens during the sliding filament mechanism of sarcomere shortening.
The measurements of different regions of the sarcomere to their respective locations are: length decreased (Length of H zone, Length of I band, Distance between Z discs) and no change in length ( Length of A band, Length of thick filament, Length of thin filament)
Putting the measurements of the various areas linked with the sliding filament process of sarcomere shortening into their appropriate categories, based on whether or not the length of those regions increases, decreases, or stays the same.
When the distance/length decreases
Length of H zoneLength of I bandDistance between Z discsWhen the distance/length remains the same as previous
Length of A bandLength of thick filamentLength of thin filamentThe complete question is attached.
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a completely (100%) lactose intolerant person who takes a lactose tolerance test would have a significant increase in the blood concentration of which monosaccharide(s)?
The lactose tolerance test cannot determine the level of monosaccharides in the blood.
The lactose tolerance test is conducted by giving the patient a drink of lactose solution. After this, the blood sample will be collected and tested for.
The blood taken will be test for how much sugar is present in the blood and its levels. If the patient is lactose intolerant then the blood sugar level or the glucose level will rise slowly or not at all. This is due to the fact that our body is not able to break down lactose into glucose, hence there is not increase in the monosaccharide concentration of the blood.
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all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the following are part of the calvin cycle except all of the above are part of the cycle. regeneration of atp. regeneration of rubp. carbon fixation. synthesis of g3p. note: clicking any button other
During the Calvin cycle, plants fixate CO₂, and use ATP and NADPH to produce sugar molecules G3P, while regenerating RUBP to keep the cycle going. Option A. regeneration of ATP.
What is the Calvin cycle?
The Calvin cycle is the series of chemical reactions that occur during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
During the Calvin cycle, sugars or carbohydrates are synthesized.
Carbón dioxide -CO₂- enters the leaves through stomas, and diffuses to the chloroplast stroma. These molecules are used to produce 3-C sugars.
The whole process is impulsed by ATP and NADPH coming from light-dependent reactions.
1) During the carbon fixation phase, the CO₂ molecule combinates with a ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (5-C molecule) to form 6-C molecules, which will divide into two 3-phosphoglycerate molecules, 3-PGA (3-C molecules).
CO₂ + ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate ⟶ 6-C molecule ⟶ 2 3-PGA
2) During the reduction phase, ATP and NADPH are used to produce the sugar molecule glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) from 3-PGA molecules.
NADPH donates its electrons to turn 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, G3P.
3-PGA + ATP + NADPH ⟶ G3P + ADP + NADP⁺
3) During the regeneration phase,
some glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate molecules leave the cycle and go to the cytosol to form glucose.Other G3P get recycled to regenerate the RuBP acceptor. This last reaction needs ATP and a series of other reactions.When three CO₂ enter the cycle, 6 G3P are produced. One of them leaves the cycle, and the remaining five are recycled and generate three RuBP.
According to this framework, the only option that is not part of the Calvin cycle is regeneration of ATP. Option A.
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one of the first steps in obtaining a karyotype (such as that shown below of a cancer cell) is treating cells with a drug that stalls cells in mitosis. why must cells arrest in mitosis for karyotype analysis?
Mitotic chromosomes are the only ones that are highly condensed and visible under a light microscope.
What is a Mitosis?Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which the nucleus of a cell is divided into two nuclei, each with an equal amount of genetic material. It follows the G2 phase and is followed by cytoplasmic division following nucleus separation. Mitosis is required for cell growth and the replacement of worn-out cells. Abnormalities in mitosis can cause DNA to be altered, resulting in genetic disorders.
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What is the value of the expression m8−(34−n) in simplest form, when m = 6 and n = 18
Answer:
32
Explanation:
(6)8-(34-18)
48-16
32
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the student learns that which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin e (ige)-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells?
The student learns urticaria is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells.
Urticaria in the patient may have been brought on by physical stimulation including pressure, cold, heat, exercise, or sun exposure.
The dermal edema caused by capillary dilatation and fluid leakage into the skin as a result of mast cell-released chemicals underlies the biological process of urticaria. Mast cells primarily produce histamine, which is a key chemical that results in vascular dilatation and fluid migration to the skin, causing urticaria and the signs and symptoms that the patient experiences. Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, cytokines, and chemokines, which are released at different times after mast cell activation, are only a few of the other molecules that may be involved in the symptoms and varying course of this disease, according to the clinical spectrum and pattern of lesions.
The complete question is:
The student learns which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells.
a. Dermatitis
b. Scleroderma
c. Urticaria
d. Cutaneous vasculitis
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the close genetic relatedness of human pubic lice to gorilla body lice has been used to argue that humans share a last common ancestor with gorillas, not chimpanzees. that hominin body hair was lost by the time of australopithecines. that early hominins hunted gorillas. that homo ergaster and gorillas had sexual encounters. that there has been convergent evolution of human and gorilla lice.the close genetic relatedness of human pubic lice to gorilla body lice has been used to argue that humans share a last common ancestor with gorillas, not chimpanzees. that hominin body hair was lost by the time of australopithecines. that early hominins hunted gorillas. that homo ergaster and gorillas had sexual encounters. that there has been convergent evolution of human and gorilla lice.
The close genetic linkage of human pubic lice to gorilla body lice, in that hominid body hair, was lost in the Australopithecine era.
Three types of lice attack humans: head lice, body lice, and pubic lice are the basis of researchers in deepening their evolution.
Pubic lice are in a different genus from body lice and head lice. Pubic lice are the closest living relative to the gorilla louse. Although the common ancestor of humans and gorillas lived about 7 million years ago, pubic lice and gorilla lice have a much younger ancestor - around 3-4 million years ago. The most likely explanation is a shift in a host as gorilla lice adapted to life on human pubic hair. This will happen after we lose our body hair, so our head and pubic hair are in different places and before we start wearing clothes.
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anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
People with this form of SCD (sickle cell disease) inherit two of their genes (one from each parent) that code for hemoglobin 'S'. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal form of hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to harden and sickle. This is commonly known as sickle cell anemia and is usually the most serious form of the disease. By blocking blood flow to organs, sickle cells deprive affected organs of blood and oxygen. During sickle cell anemia, the blood is also chronically depleted of oxygen. This lack of oxygenated blood can damage nerves and organs such as the kidneys, liver, and spleen, which can be fatal.
Stem cell or bone marrow transplantation is the only treatment for sickle cell disease, but it is not done very often because it carries significant risks.Stem cells are spongy tissue found in the center of some bones. It is a special cell produced by the bone marrow that is They can turn into different types of blood cells.
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The complete question is as follows:
Anemia is a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy, normal red blood cells. there are many anemias caused by factors not related to nutrition, but nutrient deficiencies can also be the culprit. the most common nutrient deficiencies that result in anemias are deficiencies of iron, folate, vitamin b12, and vitamin b6.
Identify the types of Anemia given the symptoms below:
1) A form of this anemia, called pernicious anemia, occurs when inadequate intrinsic factor is secreted into the stomach.
2) This type of anemia is caused by a recessive mutation that causes hemoglobin molecules to fold incorrectly.
3) Treatment may involve injections of vitamin B12.
4) Red blood cells may abnormally formed into half-moon shapes.
5) A deficiency of vitamin Bs or iron may cause this type of anemia.
6) Treatment often involves supplementation with iron and vitamin C.
7) This may be caused by a deficiency of folate.
8) Red blood cells are smaller than normal.
oxygen is efficiently transported throughout the body because of a substance called , which is contained in the .
It is due to metalloprotein called haemoglobin found in blood.
Hb has 2 subunits – 2 alpha have 141 amino acid residues and 2 beta subunits with 146 amino acid residues.
They develop in the cells of bone marrow.
It is a tetrameric protein with heme prosthetic group attached which attach to oxygen molecule.
Each haemoglobin molecule has 4 binding sites for oxygen molecules and forms oxyhaemoglobin.
Oxygen with HB is bright red hence stating why oxygenated blood is bright red.
Hb is in 2 states- R and T states and where oxygen has more affinity with the R state.
Types of HB are –
1. Haemoglobin A2
2. Haemoglobin F
3. Haemoglobin A
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