The inner cellular layer of trophoblast that remains intact inside the blastocyst is termed Cytotrophoblast.
Cytotrophoblast is the inner layer of the trophoblast.
It is found on the outer side of the Blastocyst and inner side of the Syncytiotrophoblast.
Cytotrophoblast remains intact inside the blastocyst and is present as a inner cellular layer of trophoblast.
Cytotrophoblast produces several hormones like:
GnRHProgesteroneHCGEstrogenCytotrophoblast attaches the fetus that is growing to the uterine wall of the mother's body.
It plays an important role in embyro's transplantation.
Cytotrophoblast releases Proteinaceous enzymes between the endometrial cells allowing many finger-like projections.
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Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone: cortisol. calcitonin. aldosterone. parathyroid hormone. adh
Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone parathyroid hormone.
What is parathyroid hormone?The parathyroid glands emit a peptide hormone known as parathyroid hormone, sometimes known as parathormone or parathyrin, which regulates the serum calcium content through acting on the gut, kidney, and bone.One or more of the parathyroid glands are hyperactive in primary hyperparathyroidism. The gland thus produces an excess of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Too much PTH raises calcium levels in the blood, which can result in health issues like kidney stones and bone weakening.The following processes are stimulated by the parathyroid hormone: bones' release of calcium into the blood. The intestines' absorption of calcium from meals. kidneys' preservation of calcium.Hypoparathyroidism is a condition in which parathyroid hormone secretion or activity is low. This lack of PTH causes blood phosphorus and calcium levels to rise and fall, respectively.
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What technology involves the examination of embryonic dna for the presence of disease-causing alleles?
The Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is the technology that is used for the examination of embryonic DNA for the presence of disease causing alleles.
What is embryonic DNA?As the embryonic DNA came half from paternal and half from maternal side so there are chances that during the fertilization there may be some extra allele that may cause dysfunction or diseases in the embryonic DNA.
The examination of the embryo is necessary to check its allele before the implantation to avoid any further problems. This may also help to know if there are any genetic disorders in the embryonic DNA.
It uses a DNA probe to screen a cell removed from an embryo for disease-causing alleles.
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is used to check if there is a genetic disorder in embryonic DNA by checking alleles.
This is checked before the embryo has entered the uterus before implantation or before pregnancy has begun.
The Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) use two methodologies :-
FISH ( Fluorescent in situ hybridization)
PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
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Which secondary brain vesicle ultimately becomes the brain structure that contains the lateral ventricles?
The telencephalon is a secondary brain vesicle that ultimately becomes the brain structure that contains the lateral ventricles
The telencephalon is the anterior section of the brain, often known as the cerebrum, while the diencephalon is the part of the brain located between the telencephalon and the midbrain. The cerebrum, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata make up the brain.
The telencephalon, often known as the cerebrum, is the biggest region of the brain (it makes up about 85 percent of the total weight of the brain).
The term telencephalon is derived from two Greek roots: telos, which means "end," and enkephalos, which means "brain." So, telencephalon literally means "endbrain," and it is in two ways. First, in the human embryo, the telencephalon is the final compartment of the brain to develop.
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The ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for grinding, crushing, and mashing.
The molars are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for grinding, crushing, and mashing.
Your largest teeth are called molars. Their role in grinding, mashing, and crushing food is comparable to that of the premolars. Molars are ideal for this task since they have a broad, flat biting surface.
The other three primary categories of teeth are :
Eight teeth in the front center of your mouth are called incisors. When a youngster is between the ages of six and eight, they normally obtain their first set of adult teeth. The teeth you use to bite into food are called incisors.
Canines: The following teeth to erupt in your mouth are your canines. They are your four sharpest teeth and are used to rip apart food. You have four of them.
Premolars - Food is torn and crushed by premolars. Premolars, in contrast to your incisors and canines, have a flat biting surface. You have a total of eight premolars.
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If a protein loses the er srp signal and has a stop signal but nothing else it goes where?
The protein that does not exhibit a signal recognition peptide SRP will travel to the cell membrane (plasma membrane).
What is the signal recognition peptide?The signal recognition peptide (SRP) is a sequence of aminoacids in the proteins that allow to address them to the endoplasmic reticulum to suffer chemical modifications.
This signal (signal recognition peptide) is fundamental for achieving suitable protein processing in order to perform cellular functions.
In conclusion, the protein that does not exhibit a signal recognition peptide SRP will travel to the cell membrane (plasma membrane).
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If a protein loses the er srp signal and has a stop signal but nothing else it goes to the cytosol
What are proteins?Proteins simply refers to nitrogenous organic substances which are present in living organisms.
The signal recognition particle (SRP) is a ribonucleoprotein particle essential for the targeting of signal peptide-bearing proteins to the prokaryotic plasma membrane or the eukaryotic endoplasmic reticulum membrane for secretion or membrane insertion
So therefore, if a protein loses the er srp signal and has a stop signal but nothing else it goes to the cytosol
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The surface of the tongue is covered with __________ stratified squamous epithelium, and has bumps called __________, where many taste buds can be found
The surface of the tongue is covered with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has bumps called lingual papillae, where many taste buds can be found.
What is a squamous epithelium?Squamous epithelium is a layer of specialized cells that have a prolonged area of the surface that interacts with the basement membrane.
Stratified squamous epithelium interacts with this membrane and also maintains its integrity by its interaction with another layer.
In conclusion, the surface of the tongue is covered with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has bumps called lingual papillae, where many taste buds can be found.
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Nimodipine is a lipid-insoluble ca2 channel antagonist that can recognize dihydropyridine receptors. what effect might it have on cardiac contractile cells?
The impact of Nimodipine on cardiac contractile cells is that Ca[tex]2^{+}[/tex] would enter into the cell independent of electrical stimulation and would stimulate Ca[tex]2^{+}[/tex] release to produce more frequent cardiac muscle contractions.
The voltage-gated L-type calcium channels located on the smooth muscle cells of arterial blood arteries are what dihydropyridines bind to and block to function. Voltage-gated L-type calcium channels are ones that typically open in response to an electrical signal, often known as an action potential.
A calcium channel blocker, nimodipine. Calcium ions, which enter smooth muscle cells as slow ionic transmembrane currents after depolarization, are necessary for the contractile actions of these cells. It's likely that Nimodipine will improve the cardiovascular effects of other calcium channel blockers.
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When a warm front is approaching, what happens?
Select one:
a.
Advancing cold air pushes up and over retreating warm air causing warm temperatures and mild rain.
b.
Advancing warm air pushes up and over retreating cold air causing warm temperatures and mild rain .
How can you identify the cancer cells?
Answer:
In most situations, a biopsy is the only way to definitively diagnose cancer. In the laboratory, doctors look at cell samples under the microscope. Normal cells look uniform, with similar sizes and orderly organization. Cancer cells look less orderly, with varying sizes and without apparent organization
Explanation:
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What are characteristics associated with the two types of nephrons? check all that apply
Cortical nephrons occupy 85% of all nephrons where as Juxtamedullary nephrons make up about 15% of all nephrons. Thus, option B and C are correct.
What is Nephron?It is the functional unit of kidneys. Human kidneys contains around 1 to 1.5 million nephrons.
Nephrons are have two main regions, one is glomerular called as Bowman's capsule and second one is the tubular portion.
The main function are removal of waste material like solid wastes, excess water from the blood. It convert blood into the urine, reabsorb, secrete, and excrete of number of nonessential substances.
Hence option B and C are correct.
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Your question was incomplete. The probable question was
What are characteristics associated with the two types of nephrons? check all that apply
A. Cortical nephrons make up about 15% of all nephrons.
B. Cortical nephrons make up about 85% of all nephrons.
C. Juxtamedullary nephrons make up about 15% of all nephrons.
D. Juxtamedullary nephrons make up about 85% of all nephrons.
Given the parents aabbcc × aabbcc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?.
Every individual of the progeny is expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent.
What is a phenotype?
The set of observable characteristics of an individual resulting from the interaction of its genotype with the environment.What is Law of dominance?
Mendel proposed that in a pair of dissimilar factors, one dominates the other and hence is called the dominant factor while the other factor is recessive.What is law of independent assortment?
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that, "the alleles of two (or more) different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another. In other words, Though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors. A homozygous parent produces all gametes that are similar while a heterozygous one produces two kinds of gametes each having one allele with equal proportion.To learn more about Law of dominance: https://brainly.com/question/2931799
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In most cases, the relationship between roots and fungi in mycorrhizae can best be described as:_____.
Answer:
The associations between roots and fungi are called mycorrhizae.
These symbiotic arrangements have been found in about 90% of
all land plants, and have been around for approximately 400
million years. ,
Describe the structure and function of mirna, snrna, and lncrna, which represent the three major types of noncoding rnas; what are four mechanisms by which lncrna molecules are thought to regulate cellular processes?.
Non-coding RNAs are a large family of RNAs that are not coding for known proteins.
microRNAs(miRNA):
MicroRNAs are 18–24 nucleotide short RNA transcripts that control translational gene expression. The majority of miRNAs are synthesized from DNA sequences into precursor miRNAs (pre-miRNAs), main miRNAs (pri-miRNAs), and mature miRNAs. miRNAs interact with the 3′ UTR of target mRNAs to suppress expression.Small nuclear RNAs(snRNA):
The typical length of a snRNA is 150 nucleotides. snRNAs are found in eukaryotic cells in the Cajal bodies and splicing speckles of the cell nucleus. Either RNA polymerase II or RNA polymerase III transcribes them.Long noncoding RNAs(lncRNA):
The three domains of the lncRNA are structured into a modular structure with 12 helices, 8 terminal loops, 5 sizable internal loops, and a five-way junction. lncRNA are epigenetic regulators by modulating histone or DNA modification, primarily methylation and acetylation, and control epigenetic modification primarily in the nucleus, which controls gene transcription at the transcriptional level.They regulate cellular processes by (i)chromatin remodeling, (ii) preventing the activity of particular transcription factors, (iii), blocking the promoter area of particular genes, (iv), building double-stranded RNA complexes with mRNA or miRNAs, and finally causing gene expression.Learn more about the Types of RNA with the help of the given link:
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A special group of chemical substances that are used to treat diseases caused by microbes are called?
A special group of chemical substances that are used to treat diseases caused by microbes are called antibiotics.
An antibiotic is a chemical compound that is toxic to other bacteria and is produced by a living thing, usually a bacterium. In a complex environment like soil, organisms undoubtedly use antibiotics to regulate the growth of competing microbes. Soil microorganisms frequently produce antibiotics.
Bacteria and fungi are microorganisms that produce antibiotics that help prevent or treat disease. With the invention of penicillin in 1941, antibiotics gained widespread recognition. Since then, they have fundamentally changed how bacterial infections in humans and other animals are treated.
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The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves is called the:________
The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves is called the submucosa.
The four tissue layers make up the alimentary tract. These layers are the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa, which is continuous with the mesentery, working outward from the lumen.
The submucosa, which is comprised of connective tissue and a variety of different cell types such as fibroblasts, lymphocytes, eosinophils, macrophages, plasma cells, and mast cells, is situated between the outermost layer of the mucosa and the muscularis externa. Due to its near closeness to the mucosa, the submucosa aids the absorption of electrolytes, fluids, and nutrients by the mucosa.
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Extrapyramidal side effects are characterized by a triad of symptoms, including what?
Extrapyramidal side effects are characterized by a triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, muscle rigidity and tremor.
Extrapyramidal side effects are a group of symptoms that occur in people taking antipsychotic medication extrapyramidal symptoms are also called drug-induced movement disorder. The three signs of Extrapyramidal symptoms are inability to sit still , involuntary muscle contraction, tremors, stiff muscles , and involuntary facial movements.The side effects includes involuntary or uncontrollable movement , tremors , muscle contraction.
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Pheromones used in reproduction are not likely to be found in organisms that only reproduce?
Pheromones used in reproduction are not likely to be found in organisms that only reproduce asexually.
The chemicals called pheromones are used to communicate between members of the same species and cause the recipient to react physically or behaviorally. Pheromones are a subset of organisms' larger class of chemicals to communicate, known as semiochemicals, from the Greek semeon, meaning signal or mark.
Animals communicate chemically constantly, with pheromones mediating more interactions than any other type of signal. The majority of pheromone research has been conducted on insects, particularly species that are considered pests.
For these, using pheromones that alter their behaviour in various ways might be employed for population control, pest management, or monitoring.
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What would happen if the operator sequence of the trp operon contained a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding to the operator?
In the absence of tryptophan, the genes trpA-E will not be transcribed.
If there were a mutation in the operator region of the trp operon, there would be a nucleotide change in the sequence of the operator. Mutations in the repressor that prevent its binding to the operator will lead to constitutive expression Mutations that prevent binding of the inducer without affecting the ability to bind to the operator lead to a non‑inducible phenotype.
The tryptophan binds to the trp repressor and causes it to change shape, converting into its active form. The trp repressor with the bound tryptophan attaches to the operator, blocking RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and preventing transcription of the operon.
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please help me! Quick!
Answer:
b, i think
During mitosis, the nucleus of a eukaryote cell splits into two. The parent cell goes through other stages of division before forming two genetically identical daughter cells, which are also able to duplicate. There are five stages in the process of mitosis: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase and cytokinesis.
Answer:
D. Formation of two diploid daughter cells
Explanation:
Meiosis forms 4 haploid daughter cells, not 2 diploid. It's mitosis that creates 2 diploid. Crossing over, formation of 2 haploid nuclei, and pairing of homologous chromosomes all occur.
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During translation initiation in bacteria, the amino acid on the initiator trna is ________
During translation initiation in bacteria, the amino acid on the initiator trna is N-formyl methionine (fMet)
What is amino acid?Amino acids are chemical molecules containing side chains unique to each amino acid as well as amino and carboxylic acid functional groups.Proteins are made up of substances called amino acids. Proteins and amino acids are the components of life. Amino acids are the byproducts of the digestion or breakdown of proteins. The substances known as amino acids, or the "building blocks of proteins," play a variety of vital functions in your body. It require them for essential functions like producing hormones, neurotransmitters, and proteins. In meals high in protein like meat, fish, and soybeans, amino acids are concentrated.A carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group, and a variable group are the main structural components of amino acids.
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Two venomous snakes, originated on different islands, having never intersected with each other. how would you best describe the trait of venom?
Represents a mutation and venoms are enzymes or proteins that started would best describe the trait of venom.
What about trait of venom?For a property like venom, the phenotype is mostly the result of extremely specialised interactions between gene products and a target organism.Advanced snakes have homologous but varied venom glands, especially those of non-front-fanged species.At least four major toxin groups, including necrotoxins and cytotoxins, which kill cells, neurotoxins, which impact neurological systems, myotoxins, which harm muscles, and hemotoxins, which interfere with blood coagulation, work in venoms to cause death. Each year, tens of thousands of people die as a result of venomous animals.Fire and sound are the Venom symbiote's two main vulnerabilities. The symbiote writhes in agony in response to loud stimuli. In the beginning, Peter Parker did it to rid himself of the symbiote.
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If there is an excess of reactive oxygen species (ross) in a system, where would the problem least likely be found?
This condition is known as a super oxide in which mutated enzyme extremely functional because it helps in production of cells .
when unstable molecules that contains oxygen and that easily react with other molecules in the cells. a build up of reactive oxygen species and cells causes damage of DNA ,RNA & protein ,which cause cell death.
super oxide refers various toxic oxygen containing free radicals such as monovalant anion O2 (negative) or that compound containing potassium super oxide KO2. reactive oxygen can cause damage to the basic building block of the cell. DNA damage can occur in the form of double stranded breaks as a result of reactive oxygen induced conversion of guanine to 8-oxo guanine.
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What position should the foot/ankle be in when observing for structural deformities?
The position that the foot/ankle should be in when observing for structural deformities is the Subtalar joint neutral position.
What is the Subtalar joint neutral position?One of the most intricate joints for supporting weight is the subtalar joint (STJ). Small biomechanical or anatomical factors can frequently have a big therapeutic impact.
The midtarsal joints and the forefoot's movements are controlled by the STJ, which converts the rotatory forces of the lower extremities.
Before creating a biomechanical functional orthosis, doctors frequently take a cast impression of a patient's foot in the subtalar neutral position.
However, numerous tests have demonstrated that no single approach for determining STJ neutrality is accurate and repeatable.
The position where the concave and convex surfaces are perfectly congruous is known as the joint's neutral position.
Therefore, the position that the foot/ankle should be in when observing for structural deformities is the Subtalar joint neutral position.
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As you go deeper underground, rock sediments become more compact. this causes a(n) _______ in the permeability of most aquifer soils as you go deeper in the aquifer
As you go deeper underground, rock sediments become more compact. this causes a(n) decrease in the permeability of most aquifer soils as you go deeper in the aquifer.
Pore connectivity is gauged by a material's permeability. The passage of groundwater through the sediment or rock is made possible by the interconnection of pore spaces. An effective aquifer is a rock unit or sediment that holds useable groundwater. A good aquifer combines water storage (porosity) and flow (permeability). The main factor governing fluid flow in the Earth's crust is permeability, which typically decreases with depth. Sandstone, conglomerate, fractured limestone, and unconsolidated sand and gravel are examples of the types of rock that make up aquifers and must be both permeable and porous. In groundwater, permeability is the most crucial factor. How easily water can pass through rock or loose silt is referred to as permeability.learn more about aquifer here: https://brainly.com/question/15921008
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Most of the species that are yet undiscovered are probably birds and fish. mammals and reptiles. fungi. invertebrates. multicellular plants.
Invertebrates , Many species are found in remoter environments smaller species receive less attention than large organism and cataloging these species is a huge task.Most of the world's species remain undiscovered by science.
Biologist classified that 1.7 million plants and animals as 2010 , less than one quarter of total species estimated in the world by the help of new techniques in molecular biology. They figure out that still over five million species are yet not be found.
The new species like amphibians and reptiles are most undiscovered animals having limited ranges that may inaccessible. Creatures which are smaller and inhabit limited area are more likely to have been overlooked.
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Which of the following would maximize secondary productivity?
A. Selective breeding allows farmers to produce livestock with faster growing rates and increased production of milk, eggs, etc.
B. Removing factors that inhibit plant growth, such as predators and disease.
C. Adding drought-resistant genes to another species to make them tolerant of drier conditions.
D. Improving the conditions for photosynthesis.
Selective breeding allows farmers to produce livestock with increased production of milk, eggs, etc. would maximize secondary productivity (Option A).
What is Selective breeding?Selective breeding is a strategy used to obtain plants and animals having desired phenotypic features by crossing suitable parental lines.
Selective breeding is very useful to produce crops having higher seed yields and also resistant to different types of biotic and abiotic stresses.
In conclusion, selective breeding that allows farmers to produce livestock with faster growth rates and increased production of milk, eggs, etc., can be used to maximize secondary productivity (Option A).
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Before tbp is loaded, which taf blocks the dna binding cleft of tbp and the n-terminal stirrup?
TAND-1 and TAND-2 of TAF-1 blocks the DNA binding cleft of TPB and the n-terminal stirrup.
Explain function of TAF(I).Part of a protein known as transcription factor IID can be made using instructions from the TAF1 gene (TFIID). The body's cells and tissues all have this protein, which connects to and binds to DNA there. The majority of genes' activity is controlled by transcription factor IID.A preinitiation complex made up of a number of initiation components must be assembled before RNA polymerase II can begin transcription of a gene from its core promoter region. It is believed that the TFIID transcription factor complex, which is made up of the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and TBP-associated factors (TAF(II)s), binds to the various promoters in a sequence-specific manner to initiate the assembly of this complex. Here, we identify and characterize a novel multiprotein complex made up of a number of TAF(II)s and other proteins but lacking either TBP or a TBP-like factor. In in vitro transcription experiments, this complex can take the place of TFIID on both TATA-containing and TATA-lacking promoters.Learn more about function of TAF(I) here:
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How do poriferans and earthworms differ in their mobility? how might mobility have influenced their modes of reproduction?
Poriferians can't move for the most part. Earthworms area ble to move by wiggling and pulling their body forward and utilizing the soil int he mobvement.
Porifera are the pore bearing multicellular organisms. Earthworms belong to annelida. Earthworm crawling movement is caused by the action of muscles in the body wall. Its lengthen and shorten the body in wavelike motions. They are capable of creeping along substrata via organizational plasticity.
Earthworms are monoecious or hermaphrodites which contain both male and female reproductive organs, they reproduce cross -fertilization. Poriferans reproduce asexually and sexually ,by hermaphroditic and produce eggs and sperm at different times.
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A preterm infant has an umbilical vessel catheter inserted so that blood can be drawn readily. Which would be most important to implement during this procedure?
Make sure the baby is kept warm. Preterm newborns must be kept warm at all times because keeping them warm is a key concern due to their immaturity.
Preterm newborns must be kept warm at all times because keeping them warm is a key concern due to their immaturity. Infants that were born very late in the pregnancy could need extra warmth. This additional support may take the form of a hat and additional garments for certain infants. For several hours, days, or even weeks after birth, some infants may need assistance from warming lamps, a radiant warmer, or an incubator.They can lose heat quickly if the temperature is too low. Babies can overheat in a heated environment, which raises the chance of SIDS (see below). Your infant will be able to tolerate lower temperatures even though the baby unit is very warm.learn more about preterm newborns here: https://brainly.com/question/11940905
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The whiplash often accompanying car accidents poses a special danger to the sacral spine.
a. true
b. false
The sacral spine is particularly at risk due to the whiplash that frequently follows vehicle accidents. The following claim is false.
Whiplash injury:
Injuries to the brainstem that do not directly affect the head or neck are also classified as whiplash injuries and are not just limited to neck injuries. The most frequent complaints related to whiplash injuries include cervical discomfort, headaches, and scapulodynia. Dizziness and vertigo are also noted in 27% -52% of the patients. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) is utilized in otoneurologic examinations to assess vertebrobasilar hemodynamics in patients who report dizziness and vertigo. According to reports, cervical manipulation causes cerebral and cerebellum ischemia and infarction due to vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency (VBI). Using MRA, doctors investigated the relationship between vertigo or dizziness and the difference between the vertebral arteries on the right and left sides following whiplash injury.Therefore the questioned statement is false.
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