the manager can invest in an additional project that would require $50,000 investment in additional assets and would generate $9,000 of additional income. the company's minimum rate of return is 15%. what is the residual income for the stock division without the additional investment?

Answers

Answer 1

The residual income for the stock division without the additional investment is the amount of income that is left over after all expenses (including the cost of the assets) are subtracted from the revenues. In this case, the residual income would be calculated as follows:

Revenues - Expenses (including cost of assets) = Residual Income

Revenues: $9,000

Expenses (including cost of assets): $50,000

Residual Income: -$41,000

Since the company's minimum rate of return is 15%, the residual income is not sufficient to justify the additional investment.

Residual income refers to the money you have after you've taken care of ongoing expenses like your mortgage, credit card bills, utilities, groceries and car payments. This extra money can go toward things like investments, debt payoffs, savings or even a vacation fund.

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Related Questions

in the process of implementing the balanced scorecard approach at his company, operations manager seth howard wonders whether internal activities and processes add value for customers and shareholders. this involves which dimension of the balanced scorecard?

Answers

This involves Internal business processes dimension of the balanced scorecard.

What is a Balanced Scorecard (BSC)?

A strategic management performance indicator known as the balanced scorecard (BSC) is used to identify and enhance various internal business activities and the results they have on the outside world. Balanced scorecards are a widespread tool used by businesses in the United States, the United Kingdom, Japan, and Europe to measure and provide feedback to organizations. In order to provide quantitative results, data collecting is essential because managers and executives must acquire and analyze the data. The decision-making of company personnel for the future of their organizations can be improved with the help of this knowledge.

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poka-yoke)* is not an example of poka-yoke. (*discuss briefly why not.) a. processing of returned items b. tray-return stands and trash bins at the exit of a fast-food restaurant c. entering a customer's eye color at the start of transaction d. height bars at amusement rides

Answers

Poka-Yoke is not an example of height bars at amusement rides.

What is Poka-Yoke?

Poka-Yoke was initially utilized in the 1960s by Shigeo Shingo, an industrial engineer of Toyota (poh-kah yoh-keh). Shingo also created and codified Zero Quality Control, which combines source inspection for defect avoidance with Poka-Yoke methods for prospective problem rectification.

Actually, the name was baka-yoke, which means "fool-proofing," but it was changed because of the term's demeaning and disparaging connotation. Poka-Yoke means "mistake-proofing" or "avoiding (yokeru) unintended mishaps" in the literal sense (poka).

By ensuring the right conditions are in place before a process step is carried out, Poka-Yoke prevents mistakes from ever occurring. When this isn't possible, Poka-Yoke assumes the role of a detective, tracking down issues and solving them right away.

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QUESTION 15 Reynold's Furnishers is experiencing a period when their sales are increasing at a slower rate. The company realizes that new users cannot be added indefinitely and that, sooner or later, its market will approach saturation. Which stage is the company now entering?
O End of the decline stage
O End of the introductory stage
O Beginning of the growth stage
O Beginning of the maturity stage

QUESTION 16 A new range of organic confectionary was introduced by Bounty Foods. The company is forced to give its dealer high margins and also needs to invest heavily in advertising. Bounty's production costs are also high. In which PLC stage is Bounty Foods most likely to be?
O Introductory stage
O Growth stage
O Maturity stage
O Decline stage

QUESTION 17 Francisco, an affluent college graduate, buys gadgets on the day of their launch in the market. He reads expert reviews on the internet and is not influenced by the opinions of his family and friends while choosing products. Francisco is most likely to belong to the category of ___ in the context of diffusion of innovation.
O the late majority
O innovators
O the early majority
O early adopters

QUESTION 18 Which of the following is characteristic of both early adopters and the early majority? Both groups tend to be opinion leaders. Both rely on group norms and values. Both desire to earn the respect of others. Both are influenced by social media websites and digital promotions. Identify a similarity between laggards and innovators. Neither relies on group norms. Neither is rooted in tradition. Both are eager to try new products. Both exhibit short adoption time.

Answers

Reynold's Furnishers is at the beginning of the maturity stage. Bounty Foods is in the introductory stage, and Francisco is in the category of Innovators; the characteristics of both early adopters and the majority both rely on group norms and values.

What is the introductory stage of a product?

The product or brand life cycle consists of four stages, and the introductory stage is the first one. The introduction is considered to be a risky phase that can bring either very significant gains or losses in the following product stages.

The Challenge of this stage is to have enough money to launch the product on the market.

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consider the demand curve illustrated in the figure to the right. is demand elastic or inelastic?

Answers

Demand is elastic if the formula yields an absolute value greater than 1. To put it another way, quantity varies more quickly than price. The demand is inelastic if the value is less than 1. So, quantity changes more slowly than price.

The quantity requested or supplied responds to price changes in a way that is larger than proportionate, according to elastic demand or supply curves. A demand or supply curve that is inelastic will result in a lesser percentage change in quantity sought or supplied for a given change in price. More elastic is D1. It is true that if two demand curves cross, the one with the smaller slope (in absolute value), the flatter demand curve, is more elastic, even if elasticity and slope are not the same. As a result of being flatter, Upper D 1 is more elastic than Upper D 2.

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the bond between adjacent amino acids is a(n)?

a. amino bond
b. peptide bond
c. covalent bond
d. ionic bond
e. peptide and covalent bond

Answers

A covalent bond forms between adjacent amino acids.

A covalent bond is an electron exchange that causes the production of electron pairs between atoms. These electron couples are referred to as bonding pairs or sharing pairs. When atoms share electrons, the attractive and repulsive forces between them come to a stable equilibrium, known as covalent bonding. Because electrons are shared among several molecules, each atom can reach the equivalent of a full valence shell, resulting in a stable electronic state. In organic chemistry, covalent bonds are much more common than ionic bonds. Covalent bonding encompasses a wide range of other forms of interactions, including bent bonds, three-center two-electron bonds, agnostic interactions, metal-to-metal links, and three-center four-electron bonds, among others. In 1939, covalent bonds were first described.

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otel cortez is an all-equity firm that has 7,300 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $22 per share. the firm's management has decided to issue $42,000 worth of debt and use the funds to repurchase shares of the outstanding stock. the interest rate on the debt will be 8 percent. what is the break-even ebit?

Answers

The break-even EBIT of hotel Cortez which is an all-equity firm will be $8,686.

By using the formula,  [tex]\frac{(EBIT - I) X (1.0 - TR)}{Equity number of shares}[/tex]

repurchased shares = [tex]\frac{42000}{22}[/tex] = 1,909.09 shares

outstanding shares = 7,300 − 1,909.09 = 5,390.91 shares

EBIT/7,300 = [tex]\frac{(EBIT - 42,000)(.08)}{5,390.91}[/tex]

EBIT = $8,686

EBIT, or earnings before interest and taxes, is a metric for determining a company's profit that subtracts interest and income tax expenses from all revenues and expenses. A common metric for assessing an organization's operating profitability is EBIT. Net income before taxes and loan interest is referred to as EBIT.

Both of these costs are actual financial outlays, although they were not generated by the business's main commercial operations. The fact that many organizations track both operational profit and gross profit is crucial. The break-even point is the quantity of units that must be sold for profits before interest and taxes (EBIT) to equal zero. This threshold is also known as the operating breakeven point.

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1) employer-provided health insurance benefits arose in the mid-20th century as a result of: a. a supreme court ruling that health insurance could be included in the collective bargaining process. b. legislation which legalized this process c. an executive order requiring employers to provide health insurance to employees d. none of the above

Answers

A decision by the Supreme Court allowing health insurance to be discussed during collective bargaining

Why was a quizlet about health insurance created?

to give an employee financial security in the event that they needed medical attention. The majority of insurance contracts demand for the insured person to make a financial contribution known as a co-payment, deductible, or co-insurance.

Why did health insurance first become popular?

The primary goal of the original health insurance plans was to make up for lost wages incurred by sick employees. Long absences were a major issue for businesses that relied on hard labor, therefore they frequently engaged doctors to take care of their employees.

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you find two properties that have sold twice within the last two years. property a sold 22 months ago for $98,500; it sold last week for $108,000. property b sold 20 months ago for $105,000; it sold two weeks ago for $113,500. assuming no compounding, what is the average monthly rate of change in sale prices?

Answers

The monthly average rate of change in sale prices is 0.42%.

Building A: $108,000 / $98.500 = 1.096447

: $113,500/$105,000 = 1.08095 for property B

Briefing:-

Average month-to-month growth without compounding

Property A: 0.00438 (0.096447) / 22

Property B: 0.08095/20 = 0.00405 and 0.00843/2 =.004215, respectively, or 0.42%

compounding monthly average growth:

Property A: 1.004194 or 0.004194 is equal to 1.096447(1/22)

Property B: 0.008094/2 =.004047 or 0.40% 1.08095(1/20) = 1.00390 or 0.00390

What is a functionally obsolete item?

Another instance of functional obsolescence in the technology sector is the parade of continually changing cellphones and the advancement of smartphone technology. The capabilities and functionalities of new cellphones have rendered their predecessors practically useless.

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Which of the following acts by a CPA would not necessarily be considered an act discreditable to the profession under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?
A. Prohibiting a client's new CPA firm from reviewing the audit working papers after the client has requested the CPA to do so.
B. Engaging in discriminatory employment practices.
C. Robbing a convenience store.
D. Knowingly signing a false tax return.

Answers

Under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, the following behaviors by a CPA would not necessarily be regarded as activities that reflect poorly on the profession.

Briefing:-

preventing a client from requesting the new CPA firm to study the audit working papers after the client has already done so.

Which of the following behaviors would not be regarded as damaging to the field?

Answer and justification (a) A significant number of moving traffic offenses would probably NOT be regarded as a "act discreditable to the profession." Traffic infractions won't harm the accountant's reputation for conducting professional business.

What conduct is improper for a CPA?

Insider trading, bigotry, and sexual harassment are all prohibited behaviors that reflect poorly on the industry.

Which of the following actions when auditing an SEC customer is not regarded as being dishonorable to the profession?

carrying out audits and other SEC-prohibited services.

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in the presence of asymmetric information part 2 a. efficiency in risk bearing cannot be achieved. b. no contracting will take place. c. all contracts are efficient. d. a tradeoff exists between risk bearing efficiency and production efficiency.

Answers

Certain transactions on involving a seller and a buyer have asymmetric information, which allows one party to exploit the other. This frequently occurs when an item is sold.

Which bearing is the most effective?

Bearings, roller

The races support the weight of the load while enabling the rolling parts to roll smoothly. Even more so than ball bearings, roller bearings excel at supporting significant radial stresses.

Do ball bearings boost productivity?

Low-friction ball bearings help drive systems operate more quietly and with greater energy efficiency. This kind of bearing's reduced heat generation also contributes to a longer service life.

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which type of event would be planned two to five years in advance with the destination being a determining factor in the planning process?

Answers

Association events would be planned two to five years in advance with the destination being a determining factor in the planning process.

Give a brief account on event management.

A small- or large-scale personal or business event, such as a festival, conference, ceremony, wedding, formal party, concert, or convention, can be created and developed using project management techniques.Prior to the event's launch, it is necessary to do brand research, identify the target audience, develop the event concept, and coordinate the technical aspects. The events industry today includes a variety of events, from the Olympics to business breakfast meetings. Numerous companies, famous people, nonprofit organizations, and interest groups host events to market their products, strengthen business relationships, raise funds, or celebrate achievements.

Event planning is the term used to describe the process of organizing the event. It can involve planning a budget, scheduling the event, choosing a location, obtaining the required permits, organizing parking and transportation, booking speakers or performers, arranging decor, arranging event security, arranging catering, coordinating with outside vendors, and developing emergency plans. Each event has a unique nature, so depending on the kind of event, the planning and execution processes vary.

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norris has a deductible of $1,000. he damages his car in an accident and it will cost $3,300 to repair.

Answers

Norris has a deductible of $1,000. he damages his car in an accident and it will cost $3,300 to repair. $2,300 he has to pay.

Calculating the problem:

Using this formula:

Insurance coverage=Cost of repair- Deductible

Cost of repair=$3,300

Deductible=$1,000

Let plug in the formula

Insurance coverage=$3,300-$1,000

Insurance coverage= $2,300

What is the deductible?

The amount of damage that the insurer pays when it makes a claim before it pays the claim. In an insurance contract, a deductible is the amount the policyholder pays out of pocket before the insurer pays the cost. In common usage, the term deductible can be used to describe any of several types of clauses used by insurance companies as thresholds for payment of claims.

Is it good to have deductions?

In most cases, the higher the deductible on your plan, the lower your premium. If you are willing to pay more upfront when you need care, you can save money on your monthly payments. The lower the deductible for your plan, the higher your premium.

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the price level rises in the short run ifa. aggregate demand shifts left or aggregate supply shifts right.b. aggregate demand or aggregate supply shifts left.c. aggregate demand shifts right or aggregate supply shifts left.

Answers

If aggregate demand or supply changes to the right or left, respectively, the price level increases in the short run.

The aggregate supply/demand model illustrates the macroeconomic interactions between total supply and total demand as well as the factors that influence either total supply or total demand for the economy.

A change in the aggregate supply or demand curve will affect the equilibrium production and price level in an AD/AS diagram.

The aggregate supply curve moves to the right when productivity increases or the cost of necessary inputs lowers, allowing for a combination of lower inflation, increased production, and less unemployment..

The aggregate supply curve shifts to the left as the price of necessary inputs rises, potentially resulting in lower output, higher unemployment, and higher inflation.

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according to the signaling theory of education, better-educated workers a. are in scarce supply in less-developed countries. b. can only find low-skilled jobs due to technology. c. are likely to be high-ability workers. d. improve their marginal productivity through education.

Answers

According to the signaling theory of education, better-educated workers are likely to be high-ability workers.

What does Signaling theory of Education suggest?

The signaling theory of education suggests that education can improve earnings (wages) merely because education levels are an indication of a worker's capability. It implies that productivity of a worker is unrelated to education, but education serves as a certification for the worker's ability.

In brief, the signaling theory asserts that businesses don't really pay higher wages for graduates because they believe graduates have good knowledge and abilities. Rather, academic completion provides employers with trustworthy and dependable information about a worker's basic attitudes and skills. As stated by the economist , Kenneth Arrow (1973), higher education has little effect on greater economic performance; it improves neither intelligence nor socialization. Instead, higher education works as a screening instrument, for selecting individuals of varying capacities.

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cash flow from financing activities represents cash received or paid back to those that provide cash to finance the business. financing can be provided through debt or equity true false

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It is false that cash flow from financing activities represents cash received or paid back to those that provide cash to finance the business. financing can be provided through debt or equity.

Cash flow from financing activities (CFF) is a component of a firm’s cash flow statement, which indicates the net flows of cash that are used to fund the company. Financing activities include transactions involving debt, stock, and dividends.

Investors can learn about the financial health and management of a company's capital structure by looking at the cash flow from financing operations.

The formula and computation below are used by analysts and investors to assess a company's financial stability.

(CD + RP) = CFF CED

where:

CED stands for cash inflows from issuing debt or equity.

CD = Cash paid as dividends

RP = Repurchase of debt and equity

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full serve has the capacity to make 960,000 zippers per year, but due to a soft market, it only plans to produce and sell 630,000 zippers next year. delta currently buys zippers from an outside supplier for $4.00 each (the same price that gamma receives). assume that full serve allows negotiated transfer pricing. what is the ceiling of the bargaining range and which division sets it?

Answers

Assuming that full serve allows negotiated transfer pricing. the ceiling of the bargaining range and the division which it sets is 1.44; gamma.

A sort of negotiation known as bargaining or haggling in the social sciences occurs when a buyer and a vendor of an item or service argue about the cost or particulars of a transaction. The deal is finalised if the negotiations result in an agreement on the terms.

Although the most obvious use of bargaining in markets is as a pricing strategy alternative to set prices, it may also be used to negotiate bulk or credit purchases and as a crucial clienteling tool. In regions of the world where retail establishments with set pricing are the most popular place to buy things, haggling has all but vanished.

Hence the correct option is D.

The above question is incomplete, the complete question is-

Full Serve Inc. has a number of divisions. One division, Gamma, makes zippers that are used in the manufacture of boots. Another division, Delta, makes boots that use the zippers and needs 95,000 zippers per year. Gamma incurs the following costs for one zipper:

Direct materials $0.25

Direct labor 0.22

Variable overhead 0.97

Fixed overhead 1.40

Total $2.84

Full Serve has the capacity to make 960,000 zippers per year, but due to a soft market, it only plans to produce and sell 630,000 zippers next year. Delta currently buys zippers from an outside supplier for $4.00 each (the same price that Gamma receives).Assume that Full Serve allows negotiated transfer pricing. What is the floor of the bargaining range and which division sets it?

a.$2.70; Delta

b.$3.50; Gamma

c.$2.70; Gamma

d.$1.44; Gamma

e.$1.75; Delta

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then, select one example of a major wildfire that has taken place in the last 20 years. discuss the source and remediation efforts made when it occurred. discuss whether you think that the wildfire could have been prevented or whether its impacts could have been reduced through management practices.

Answers

Of the 1.5 million wildfires which have happened in view that 2000, 237 handed 100,000 acres burned, and 15 surpassed 500,000 acres burned. simplest a small fraction of wildfires come to be catastrophic, and a small percentage of fires bills for the significant majority of acres burned.

Mosquito hearth, California's biggest wildfire of 2022, grows to one hundred square miles and hundreds evacuated. California crews endured struggling with the kingdom's largest wildfire of 2022 on Thursday in spite of a setback in containment levels. The Mosquito fire ignited on Sept.

The 2022 California wildfire season is an ongoing series of wildfires burning in the U.S. country of California. As of 14 November 2022, a complete of seven,329 fires were recorded, totaling approximately 362,403 acres (146,659 hectares) across the nation.

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you are appraising a home that was built in 1973. you are performing a retrospective appraisal, with an effective date of october 2011. what is the chronological age of the home?

Answers

The powerful date is the redline the appraiser used to analyze and examine the market pastime. In theory, the appraiser sits in judgment at the powerful date.

performance appraisal has three simple capabilities: (1) to offer ok comments to all of us on his or her performance; (2) to function a foundation for modifying or converting behavior toward more powerful working behavior; and (three) to offer statistics to managers with which they will decide destiny job .

Similar assets statistics income, listings, offerings, vacancies, fee and depreciation, income and costs, capitalization fees, and so forth. step one inside the valuation process is to pick out the hassle. This sets the parameters of the project and eliminates any ambiguity about the character of the venture.

A retroactive appraisal involves appraising a domestic based totally on a previous date, that's typically the date of demise. In some instances, these actual estate appraisals are often known as 'date of loss of life' value determinations. inside the occasion a 'date of loss of life' appraisal

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which of the following items plays the central role in attracting and motivating employees? a. vacation benefits b. flexible work duties c. compensation d. job sharing arrangements

Answers

Compensation plays a central role in attracting and motivating employees.

How can compensation motivate employees?

Employees are paid a salary in exchange for doing all tasks assigned to them and are given a steady income. They are encouraged to reach and surpass their goals by the incentive, which can be a commission for salespeople or a bonus for others, and it also gives them the chance to make more money.

This is one of the most important elements affecting employee remuneration. Typically, a profitable and successful business may afford to pay more than the going rate. It can recruit employees of a higher grade in this way. High pay makes workers feel satisfied with their work and motivates them to work more.

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accountants argue that it may not be appropriate to evaluate managers of subsidiaries based solely on indicators of profitability because they do not operate in a uniform environment.

Answers

This statement is True, accountants argue that it may not be appropriate to evaluate managers of subsidiaries based solely on indicators of profitability because they do not operate in a uniform environment.

Accountants who've validated competency thru their expert institutions' certification exams are certified to apply titles together with Chartered Accountant, chartered certified Accountant or licensed Public Accountant, or Registered Public Accountant. Such specialists are granted positive duties by means of the statute, which include the ability to certify a company's economic statements, and may be held responsible for expert misconduct. Non-certified accountants can be employed with the aid of a qualified accountant or may go independently without statutory privileges and obligations.

Cahan & solar (2015) used an archival take look to discover that accountants’ private traits may additionally exert a totally massive effect during the audit technique and similarly have an impact on audit fees and audit excellence. Practitioners were portrayed in a famous way of life by the stereotype of the humorless, introspective bean-counter. it's been suggested that the stereotype has an influence on those interested in the career with many new entrants underestimating the importance of communication abilities and overestimating the importance of numeracy in the position.

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consider the following purchases: customer a: 4k television, indoor antenna, surge suppressor customer b: 4k television, hdmi cable customer c: 4k television, hdmi cable, extended warranty customer d: hdmi cable, indoor antenna what is the lift value for the rule that an hdmi cable purchase implies a television purchase? express your answer as a fraction.

Answers

The following purchases are Customer D: HDMI cable, indoor antenna what is the lift value for the rule that an HDMI cable purchase implies a television purchase

Items                                    Support

4K Television                               3/4

Indoor antenna                       2/4

Sugar suppressor                       1/4

HDMI cable                               3/4

Extended warranty               1/4

Customers that keep often base buying selections on the whole on markdowns. need-based customers: clients with the intention of buying a specific product. Wandering clients: customers that are not positive about what they want to shop for.

They want on the way to configure it and trade it on the fly to fulfill their wishes. these are the varieties of folks that derive manner more delight from locating the answer to their query themselves and spot it as a non-public failure if they want to name a person for assistance.

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based on the analysis completed above, what further testing, if any, needs to be performed over the identified risks and the remaining population? stated differently, do any further tests need to be performed or does the three-way match visualization, combined with your tests of 9 controls and additional visualizations, provide you with sufficient appropriate evidence to conclude about the occurrence of revenue at urgent?

Answers

In order to find the order in a location that had previously only experienced moderate sales but has just undergone a substantial transition, they must conduct additional testing, identify the dangers, and consult the remaining population.

When someone or something is in evidence, it means that they are present and easily visible. There were few soldiers in sight. Poor living conditions and poverty are still very much evident.

Evidence is often used interchangeably with the words demonstrate, evince, manifest, and show. The evidence argues that these phrases serve as evidence of something's reality or existence, even if they all mean "to reveal openly or make obvious."

They must find the order in a region that had previously had only modest sales but has just undergone a significant transformation. To determine whether the sale order was legitimate and completed, they must check for shipping records and, if possible, confirmation.

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The MR curve of a perfectly competitive firm is horizontal. The MR curve of a monopoly firm is:

multiple choice

upward sloping.

downward sloping.

horizontal, too.

it depends.

Answers

The MR curve of a monopoly firm is downward sloping.

While a monopolist's marginal revenue curve slopes downward, that of a competitive firm is horizontal and straight. A completely competitive firm has a marginal revenue that is equal to its price. One way to represent this is as a horizontal straight line. Whereas, monopolists, have a marginal revenue curve that slopes downward.

The MR curve of a monopoly is downward-sloping as a monopolist is typically the only seller in the market. As the monopolist increases the quantity of goods sold, the price of the goods must be reduced to find buyers for the additional units. This means that the revenue earned from each additional unit sold is less than the revenue earned from the previous unit, resulting in a downward-sloping MR curve.

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outsourcing: part 2 a. transfers traditional internal activities to outside vendors. b. allows the outsourcing firm to focus on its key success factors. c. utilizes the efficiency that comes with specialization. d. all of the above are true of outsourcing. e. none of the above is true of outsourcing.

Answers

Outsourcing utilizes efficiency that comes with the specialization.

What is outsourcing?

It is possible to transfer assets and people from one company to another through practice of outsourcing, which is when one company contracts another company to handle planned or ongoing task that is currently being performed internally or may be. The notion, which The Economist claims has "made its presence felt since time of the Second World War," frequently entails contracting of business process, operational, and/or non-core tasks, such as manufacturing, facility management, and call centers and call center assistance. Outsourcing is the process of transferring management of public services to private businesses, even if it is done temporarily. Contracting from abroad and domestically is referred to as outsourcing. Offshoring and nearshoring are both occasionally used terms (transferring a business process to nearby country).

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with respect to anchorage points employers must

Answers

Employers must adhere to anchorage points. the entire list (correct answer)

What two criteria does OSHA have for anchor points?

The anchorages must support 5,000 pounds per employee, or as an option (d), in accordance with 29 CFR 1926.502(d)(15) (15)

The personal fall arrest system's maximum fall arresting force must be maintained with a factor of safety of at least two according to I

What kind of attachment point in a fall protection system is acceptable?

Personal fall protection devices must be worn with the body harness attachment point situated in the middle of the worker's back, close to the shoulder. If the free fall distance is kept to 2 feet (0.6 m) or less, the attachment point may be situated in the pre-sternal position.

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if a manufacturer has upfront (fixed) cost to produce one of their products of $2,300,000 and a variable cost of $0.17 each. what would be the total cost to produce 650,000 of the items?

Answers

Does generate include fruit if a manufacturer spends $2,300,000 on upfront (fixed) production costs for one of their products and $14,

in variable absorption costs?

Produce is any fruit or vegetable, including combinations of undamaged fruits and vegetables, and includes herbs, sprouts (regardless of the source of the seed), peanuts, tree nuts, and herbs.

Briefing

Sales   3,850,000.00

Variable  3,325,000.00 (175,000 x 19)

Gross Profit   525,000.00

S&A   525,000.00

Net Income   -  

Under aborption cost, the company will include the fixed cost as part of the unit cost.

3850000 / 22 = 175,000 sold units

Variable cost 2,450,000 / 175,000 = 14

650,000 fixed will be distribute among the 130,000 units produced

650,000/130,000 = 5

Absorption cost

14 + 5 = 19

Selling and administrative will be placed as expenses.

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Intermediate Good or Service

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An intermediate good or service is an entity used to produce a final good or finished product.

An intermediate good or service is defined as a product that is used to make a final good or finished product i.e. usable for end users. Intermediate goods, such as salt, can also be finished products since it is consumed directly by users as well as used by producers to manufacture other food products.

Intermediate goods or services are sold between industries for the production of other goods and for resale purposes. These goods or services are also referred to as semi-finished products because they are used as inputs to become part of the finished products.

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What is meant by intermediate Good or Service?

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What is a key business benefit of SAFe?

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By enabling high-performing teams and teams of teams to cut out wasteful tasks, spot and fix delays, constantly improve, and make sure they are creating the correct things, SAFe offers quantifiable increases in productivity.

SAFe enables alignment, cooperation, and delivery across large numbers of agile teams. It was built on the principles of three main bodies of knowledge: systems thinking, lean product development, and agile software development. SAFe offers an organized method for scaling agile as enterprises expand. Alignment, built-in quality, transparency, and program execution are the four Core Values that stand in for the underlying ideals that are essential to the success of SAFe. These guiding principles aid in setting the tone for everyone involved in a SAFe portfolio's behavior and actions. Although your roof shields you from the elements, it's not the only thing that keeps you secure.

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resources tend to be allocated inefficiently when goods a. are rival in consumption and excludable. b. are available only at very high prices. c. are available free of charge. d. are private goods.

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Resources tend to be allocated inefficiently when goods are available free of charge.

Option C is correct .

Resource allocation is inefficient when goods are available for free, because market forces are absent or non-existent because resources are free.

What is Resource Allocation?

Resource allocation is the process of allocating and managing resources in a manner that supports the goals of an organization's strategic plan. Allocation of resources involves managing tangible assets such as hardware to maximize the use of softer assets such as human capital.

Why Resource Allocation Matters ?

Resource allocation is very important in project management as it enables planning and preparation for project implementation or goal achievement. In addition, it helps you plan your resources in advance and keep track of your project team's progress.

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[Video] The Executive Director of Operations has assigned Joe Tanney the role of Team Leader for a high priority project. The task is to generate a proposal for streamlining the antiquated blueprint generation process. Each office is at different stages of computerization, with different teams preferring different technologies for particular tasks. This makes everything more complex – from collaboration to revisions to cost and time management, and is having a serious impact on the company’s bottom line. The team includes Rosa Denson, Cheng Jing, and Simon Mahoney. Based on the video, what stage of group development is Joe’s team in?Multiple Choicenormingperformingaligningstormingadjourning

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The type of conflict exhibited by members of Joe’s team is known as c. dysfunctional conflict.

Dysfunctional conflict is a particular kind of dispute that happens when two or more parties reach a compromise that is not advantageous to either of them individually. Conflict of this nature can lead to a power struggle, emotional suffering, distress, and relationship harm.

Dysfunctional conflict is when two parties to a dispute utilize or attempt to use one another in order to further their own interests. Dysfunctional disputes frequently cause harm and can cause tension, rage, and resentment.

Functional conflict is constructive and aids in resolving the current problem. On the other side, dysfunctional conflict is detrimental and frequently results in additional conflict.

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Correct question:

The Executive Director of Operations has assigned Joe Tanney the role of Team Leader for a high priority project. The task is to generate a proposal for streamlining the antiquated blueprint generation process. Each office is at different stages of computerization, with different teams preferring different technologies for particular tasks. This makes everything more complex – from collaboration to revisions to cost and time management, and is having a serious impact on the company’s bottom line. The team includes Rosa Denson, Cheng Jing, and Simon Mahoney. The type of conflict exhibited by members of Joe’s team is known as ______ conflict. a.multicultural b. functional c. dysfunctional d. gender e. intergroup

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