the nasal mucosa performs all of the following functions except __________.

Answers

Answer 1

Other than resisting abrasion, the nasal mucosa filters, humidifies, and warms the air that is breathed.

The nasal cavity is lined by nasal mucosa. It is a component of the mucous membrane that lines the respiratory tract, the respiratory mucosa. The periosteum or perichondrium of the nasal conchae is closely attached to the nasal mucosa. It is connected to the skin through the nostrils and to the nasal section of the pharynx's mucous membrane through the choanae. Respiratory mucosa, also known as nasal mucosa, lines the surfaces of the turbinate bones (also known as nasal conchae) and meatuses inside the nasal cavity. Epistaxis, or bleeding from the nose, is brought on by injury to the nasal mucosa's blood vessels. The majority of times, epistaxis is self-limiting; yet, there.

Complete question:

The nasal mucosa performs all of the following functions EXCEPT __________.

a) filter the air

b) humidify the inhaled air

c) warm the inhaled air

d) resist abrasion

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Related Questions

Which of the following is regulated by the gland indicated by the red arrow? O blood glucose concentration Oblood calcium concentration body's reaction to stress Oblood pressure Submit Previous Answers Request Answer

Answers

The gland indicated by red arrow is parathyroid galnd and is responsible for blood calcium concentration .

Two pairs of tiny, oval-shaped glands make up the parathyroid glands. They are situated in the neck close to the two lobes of the thyroid gland. Typically, each gland is roughly the size of a pea.

The production and release of PTH by the parathyroid glands maintains the homeostasis of serum calcium. PTH suppresses osteoblast activity and enhances osteoclast activity in the bone, which causes bone to break down and release calcium.

Four parathyroid glands, which are tiny glands in the neck beneath the thyroid, secrete the hormone parathyroid.

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select the highlighted phrases that accurately represent english naturalist a. r. wallace’s experience in papua new guinea.

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They employ their own labor as well as that of family members or other group members to cultivate the land. In hunter-gatherer cultures, food is obtained through hunting, fishing, and foraging for wild plants and other nutrients like honey

Malinowski established the benchmark for ethnographic fieldwork in sociocultural anthropology with his research in a local setting, conducted in the local tongue, data collection through participant observation, and inductive rather than deductive analysis. Up until around 12,000 years ago, all humans engaged in hunting and gathering.

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Describe the function of the middle ear.

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Answer:-There are three tiny bones in this area — the malleus, incus and stapes. (Healthcare providers refer to these three bones as the ossicles.) They transfer sound vibrations from your eardrum to your inner ear. Your middle ears also house the eustachian tubes, which help equalize the air pressure in your ears.                                                                                                       The main function of the middle ear is to carry sound waves from the outer ear to the inner ear, which contains the cochlea and where sound input can be communicated to the brain. Sound waves are funneled into the outer ear and strike the tympanic membrane, causing it to vibrate.                                      The middle ear is an air-filled cavity that sits between the tympanic membrane [3] and the inner ear. The middle ear also consists of three tiny bones called ossicles [4], the round window [5], the oval window [6], and the Eustachian tube [7].

one of the traits studied by mendel was plant height with two variations tall pea plants (dominants), and dwarf plants (recessive). if a true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf pea plant what will the offspring look like?

Answers

The offspring will look like  "tt"  if a true breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding dwarf pea plant.

Tall plants are predominant regarding bantam or dwarf plants. Tall plants formed due to breeding of only tall attributes. Assuming the quality for this characteristic is meant by the letter "T"

i.e Let the predominant qualities for Tall pea plants be T

Let the attributes for the dwarf pea plants be t

To decide the genotype of the bantam pea plant, where the dwarf attributes will be communicated:

We need to cross the Tt × Tt

T

T  Tt

t   tt

We got offsprings  as ( TT, Tt, Tt, tt )

TT = Predominant tall pea plant

2 Tt = Two heterozygous tall pea plant.

tt = dwarf pea plant.

Hence, offspring will look like "tt".

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there are 24 species of hornbills that live in africa, all descended from a common ancestor. there are differences in nesting behavior, feeding morphology, and the habitats in which they are found, which include forests, woodlands, and savannahs. which statement best reflects how ecology and competition could have played a role in diversification of the hornbill lineages? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices resource partitioning may have occurred between different groups, resulting in competitive exclusion and speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. resource partitioning could have provided a selective force resulting in multiple speciation events over the evolutionary history of hornbills. competitive exclusion due to interspecific competition may have occurred between different groups, resulting in speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. competitive exclusion could have provided a selective force resulting in multiple speciation events over the evolutionary history of hornbills.

Answers

Resource partitioning may have occurred between different groups, resulting in competitive exclusion and speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. thus correct option (A)

Several species of birds have huge, horn-like bills, and these birds are known as hornbills. There are 54 species of hornbill, with 31 species found in Asia and 23 in Africa, predominantly in tropical rain forests and savannahs. East of the Wallace Line, just four species are present.

About 15 million years ago, hornbills first emerged in the fossil record. They appear in several tribes' mythologies from Southeast Asia and Indonesia. The hill tribes of Borneo believe that rhinoceros hornbills carry souls to the afterlife. Every five to seven years, hornbills are celebrated in western Borneo. They serve as faithfulness symbols on Sumba.

Hornbills are found only in the Old World. Toucans are regarded as their New World equivalent. The largest hornbill are the size of turkeys. The smallest is the size of doves. Many large ones have horn-like casques on their bill. Some bird live as long as 45 years.

As a result of deforestation, habitat loss, and poaching for their bills, feathers, and flesh, several hornbill species are endangered or threatened. Some people have died after ingesting poisons placed out for animals. Others are kidnapped by poachers, who may fetch up to $1,000 per chick for the eggs of certain species.

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Which among the following statements best describes DNA replication?A. DNA replication is not valuable to human being.B. DNA replication creates a "Y" shape called replication fork.C. DNA replication set as a template for making the new strand of DNA.D. DNA replication is the process by which DNA makes a copy of itself

Answers

B. DNA replication creates a "Y" shape called replication fork best describes DNA replication

How exactly does DNA replicate?

When a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied, it creates two identical DNA molecules. This process is known as DNA replication. Replication is a crucial process because anytime a cell splits, the two daughter cells must have the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell.

Before they can divide, cells must duplicate their DNA. Due to effective inheritance of genetic characteristics, this guarantees that each daughter cell receives a copy of the genome. All species have the same fundamental mechanism for DNA replication, which is a crucial activity.

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How are human mitochondria inherited?

Answers

Mitochondrial genes are inherited only from the mother.

What is human mitochondria?

Human Mitochondrial Genetics is the study of the genetics of human mitochondrial DNA (the DNA contained in human mitochondria). The human mitochondrial genome is the entirety of the genetic information contained in human mitochondria. Mitochondria are called the cell's "power plants" because they are the tiny structures within the cell that generate energy that the cell can use.

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is not transferred through nuclear DNA (nDNA). In humans, as in most multicellular organisms, mitochondrial DNA is inherited only from the mother's egg cell. However, there is a theory that, under certain circumstances, paternal mtDNA transfer can occur in humans.

Therefore, mitochondrial inheritance is non-Mendelian inheritance. This is because Mendelian inheritance assumes that half of the genetic material of the fertilized egg cell (zygote) comes from each parent.

Therefore, Mitochondrial genes are inherited only from the mother.

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Examine the image below.

Which of the following is true about brown eyes?

There is always a 25% chance offspring will have brown eyes.
A parent or offspring can be heterozygous for brown eyes.
If one parent has brown eyes, all offspring will have brown eyes.
The brown eye allele is recessive to any other color eye allele.

Answers

By examining the image below, we can see that the statement A parent or offspring can be heterozygous for brown eyes is true about brown eyes (Option b).

What is a heterozygous individual for a genetic trait?

A heterozygous individual for a genetic trait is one who carries two different alleles or gene variants for a given gen locus, which may be controlled by complete dominance as in this case.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that a heterozygous individual for a genetic trait carries two alleles for the same gene locus.

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urine formed in the pyramids must flow within the kidney to the ureter. which structure is not part of the transport path within the kidney that carries urine to the ureter? group of answer choices minor calyx major calyx arcuate artery renal papilla renal pelvis

Answers

The kidney's ureter must receive the urine produced in the pyramids. Which organ in the kidney does not function as a part of a transport system for urine.

Urine is formed in three key steps: Glomerular filtration, secretion following absorption. Every nephron contains a glomerulus, which is where blood is filtered. Urine is produced in a huge cavity called the renal pelvis, where it is collected. Calyces, or cup-like projections, obstruct the renal pelvis' perimeter. Each pyramid's renal papillae are surrounded by a little calyx that collects urine from such a particular pyramid. The renal pelvis receives urine that continually drains from the pyramidal tips into the calyces. The ureter then takes the urine into the bladder for short-term storage once it flows from of the pelvis into it. The bladder is drained by the urethra.

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Reasons for conducting peer review include all of the following except
A) identifying an illogical conclusion
B) analyzing the experimental design
C) pointing out possible bias
D) changing data to support the hypothesis

Answers

The Reasons for conducting peer review include all of the following exceptD) changing data to support the hypothesis.

What justifies the use of peer review?

Peer review is intended to evaluate the reliability, excellence, and frequently the originality of papers before they are published. By eliminating publications that are inaccurate or of low quality, its principal goal is to preserve the integrity of science.

Students can provide constructive criticism and feedback on each other's work through peer evaluation, also known as peer review. It gives students the tools they need to self-evaluate, improve their own work, and develop lifelong abilities in evaluating and giving feedback to others.

Therefore, option D is correct.

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two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic. group of answer choices true false

Answers

The two distinguishing factors of the epsilon proteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic is a true statement.

Epsilon proteobacteria are significant chemo lithotrophic primary producers in deep-sea hydrothermal vent systems, where they are frequently the predominant bacterial lineage in vent plumes and deposits as well as nearby microbial mats.

One hundred or more different types of bacteria make up the class Epsilon proteobacteria, which is known as the most common bacterial cause of human gastroenteritis globally. This group includes Campylobacter jejuna.

Proteobacteria are linked to extraintestinal and gastrointestinal diseases. Furthermore, studies also point to a role in lung conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, but there is little evidence to support this.

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DDT is an insecticide that was first used in 1940s to kill mosquitoes and stop the spread of malaria. At first, it was effective. However , over a period of years, people began to notice that it was becoming less and less effective. A possible explanation for this was that the insects were becoming resistant to the DDT. Explain how the resistance may have evolved.

Answers

DDT is an well known insecticide used in agriculture.

What is DDT?

Researchers classify DDT as an endocrine-disrupting chemical, or an EDC, since there is evidence that it alters and disrupts hormones crucial for healthy health, including reproductive health, as well as neurological and immunological processes.

The insects that lacked these adaptations eventually went extinct, and when the adaptations grew more sophisticated and developed into a resistance, the DDT-rejecting mosquitoes obtained them.Given the situation, it would seem that mosquitoes have become resistant to DDT over time. This may be the result of natural selection-driven evolution within the mosquito population.DDT-resistant mosquitoes do better in the wild than non-resistant ones. Consequently, the resistance characteristic is handed along to next generations, creating a population of resistant individuals.

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An experimenter discovers a new type of subatomic particle in the nucleus and calls it a trion. If she is convinced that a trion is in all nuclei, the scientific community would MOST LIKELY
Responses


A) change the previous ideas of subatomic particles and state that only trions are part of the nucleus.change the previous ideas of subatomic particles and state that only trions are part of the nucleus.


B) verify the knowledge through extensive observations and then have a discussion to analyze the findings.verify the knowledge through extensive observations and then have a discussion to analyze the findings.


C) accept the idea because the scientist has an excellent track record and significant scientific knowledge. accept the idea because the scientist has an excellent track record and significant scientific knowledge.


D) reject the idea because the current literature dictates that there are only two subatomic particles in the nucleus.

Answers

Answer:

The scientific community would most likely choose option B: verify the knowledge through extensive observations and then have a discussion to analyze the findings. In science, it is important to subject new ideas to rigorous testing and scrutiny before they are accepted as true. This process helps to ensure that scientific knowledge is based on reliable evidence and is not influenced by personal biases or preconceived notions. Therefore, if a scientist claims to have discovered a new subatomic particle, the scientific community would typically want to see strong evidence to support this claim before accepting it as true.

Explanation:

which of the following occurs during inhalation? multiple choice pressure in the thoracic cavity decreases and the diaphragm contracts. the heart beat slows down. the volume in the thoracic cavity decreases. pressure in the thoracic cavity increases and the diaphragm relaxes.

Answers

Both the diaphragm and the rib muscles contract. As a result, your thoracic cavity expands during inhalation, pulling your ribs both upward and outward. Option A is the appropriate response, so.

The main muscle used for breathing is the diaphragm, which is situated underneath the lungs. It is a large, dome-shaped muscle that frequently contracts unconsciously and regularly. The diaphragm flattens and tightens during inhalation, and the chest cavity widens. A vacuum is produced by the contraction, drawing air into the lungs. The diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome-like form during exhalation, forcing air from the lungs. The diaphragm, a delicate skeletal muscle that separates the chest from the belly, is located at the base of the chest.

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what process generates many b cells and t cells that are activated against specific antigens?

Answers

Antigen-specific T cells and B cells are encouraged to proliferate by the process of clonal selection.

Absence of any memory population leads to a full-fledged spontaneous proliferation in which T cells with higher affinity to MHC-self-antigens (and commensal antigens) are triggered for proliferation.In humoral immunity, antigens bind to antibodies, activating B cells to produce plasma cells and memory B cells. Antigens then recognise them so they can be eliminated. The antigen is swallowed by macrophages during cell-mediated immunity, which then exposes it on their surface. Helper T cells cling to macrophages and stimulate them.

For example, cytotoxic T cells can kill infected cells, and macrophages can eliminate intracellular infections as part of cell-mediated immune responses.

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starting with the cecum and ending with the anus, name all parts of the large intestine in order. how does the large intestine convert liquid waste from the small intestine into solid waste to be stored then eliminated from the body?

Answers

Large intestine starts with cecum, then ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum. Large intestine convert liquid waste into solid waste by absorbing water from it.

Large intestine continues with the small intestine through an ileocecal valve, then it moves upwards in abdomen which is called ascending colon, then it moves transversely in the abdomen which is called transverse colon then it moves downward which is called descending colon then it connects to rectum . Waste that reaches ascending colon will be in liquid form then waste will be converted to solid form as it moves through the Large intestine. Feces will be stored in rectum until it gets defecated.

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Human blood types are, in part, determined by the ABO system. the allele frequency for blood type IA is 0.3, and IB is 0.1. What is the frequency of B-type individuals in a population?

Answers

This indicates that although each person can only have two different alleles, there are three different alleles present in the population: IA, IB, and i. the frequency is 0.6.

What percentage of the population carries the IA allele?

There are three alleles of the human gene that determines the ABO blood group. The frequency of the IA allele in a population of 1000 persons is.3, whereas the number of those with type O blood in the population is .36.

What name is given to the shifts in population allele frequencies over generations?

Genetic drift is the generational shift in allele frequencies in a population that results from random events. Genetic drift is actually a change brought on by "sampling error" while choosing the alleles for the following generation from the gene pool of the current generation.

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mary hanson, a 2-year-old, was brought to the doctor's office by her mother after she discovered two swollen and painful lumps in mary's groin. staphylococcus aureus was cultured from phagocytic cells obtained from the affected lesions and granulomas were noted. additional tests revealed that neutrophils from mary do not activate respiratory bursts after phagocytosis. the most likely protein defect causing the inability to generate reactive oxygen intermediates during the respiratory burst in mary's neutrophils would be

Answers

The most plausible protein flaw responsible for Mary's neutrophils' failure to produce reactive oxygen intermediates during the respiratory burst would be granulomatous.

Two-year-old Mary Hanson was taken to the doctor by her mother after she saw two uncomfortable and swelling lumps in Mary's groin. Granulomas were discovered after staphylococcus aureus was cultivated from phagocytic cells taken from the afflicted lesions. Additional research showed that after phagocytosis, Mary's neutrophils do not initiate respiratory bursts.

Biopsies of a 67-year-old man with several skin lesions that developed over a 2-year period revealed granulomatous dermatitis with accompanying tiny yeasts. The findings of the urine antigen test were negative for Histoplasma infection, and no fungi or other possible pathogens grew in the cultures made from the biopsies. The results of the chest roentgenogram were normal. An analysis of the morphology indicated characteristics of a Malassezia species.

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Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by
O having fur.
O the young developing in a pouch.
O laying eggs.
O having a placenta.
O longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas. o

Answers

Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by: having fur, having placenta, longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas.

A grouping of mammals could be made based on placentation. A single maternal layer (endometrium), an exterior embryonic layer (chorion), and an inner embryonic layer make up the placenta that surrounds the foetus.

The inner embryonic layer of eutherian mammals is an allantoic membrane, while that of metatherian mammals is a vitelline membrane.

Those mammals that don't have a placenta are known as prototherian mammals.

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HELP pls will mark you the brainliest

Answers

Answer:

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

Explanation:

Here's a shortcut to remember: PMAT

which of the following best describes a telomere? a. a region of intensely staining proteins dispersed throughout chromosomes that are actively being transcribed b. a protein-based structure found in the cytoplasm associated with controlling cell division c. a single stretch of dna that codes for nucleic acid polymerases d. a repetitive sequence found on the ends of chromosomes e. a dna sequence that codes for cytoskeletal proteins associated with intracellular communications

Answers

A chromosome's end contains a stretch of repeating DNA sequences known as a telomere. Chromosome ends are shielded from fraying or tangling by telomeres. The telomeres get a little bit shorter every time a cell divides.

Our somatic cells only contain very little amounts of telomerase. These cells age and lose their ability to operate normally because they do not use telomerase on a regular basis. Does the germline contain high quantities of telomerase? cells, including stem cells and egg and sperm. After DNA replication, the telomere length in these cells is preserved, and the cells do not age. Does cancer also have high quantities of telomerase? cells. Cancer cells can become immortal and keep growing as a result. If the telomerase activity changed.

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A muscle strain is a sustained contraction of the muscle.

Answers

A muscle strain is not a sustained contraction of the muscle. Therefore, the given statement is false.

A muscle strain refers to the equivalent of a sprain to ligaments. A muscle strain can occur when muscle fibers cannot cope with the demands placed on them by exercise overload which leads to the tearing of the fibers. It is a contraction-induced injury where by muscle fibers tear due to extensive mechanical stress. This mostly happens as a result of an over-stretching or powerful eccentric contraction of the muscle. Thus, it is typical for non-contact sports with dynamic traits such as sprinting and jumping.

"

Complete question:

A muscle strain is a sustained contraction of the muscle.

True

False

"

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what did charles linnaeus think that they ate when he gave the green anaconda its binomial nomenclature?

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Charles Linnaeus, the father of modern taxonomy, gave the green anaconda (Eunectes murinus) its binomial name in 1758. When he gave the green anaconda its binomial nomenclature, he did not make any assumptions about what the species ate.

Linnaeus' binomial system of nomenclature assigns two Latinized words to each species. The first word is the genus name, which is a larger grouping of similar organisms, and the second word is the species name, which is specific to that particular organism. In the case of the green anaconda, the genus name is Eunectes, which means “good swimmer” in Latin, and the species name is murinus, which means “of the mouse” in Latin.

Linnaeus used the binomial system of nomenclature to group and categorize organisms based on their physical characteristics, not their diet. He was primarily interested in identifying and classifying species based on their physical characteristics, and did not make any assumptions about what they ate. In fact, Linnaeus did not even mention the diet of any species in his system of nomenclature.

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match each of the following characteristics to the lytic cycle, lysogenic cycle, or both.: Lytic Lysogenic Both the phage genome replicates with the host DNA the host DNA is degraded the phage genome enters the host cell the bacterial cell wall is broken open the bacterial genome contains the integrated phage genome

Answers

In the lytic cycle, viruses produce new copies of themselves inside a host cell before bursting outside the cell.

The viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's DNA during the lysogenic cycle, causing internal infection. In the lytic cycle, viruses produce new copies of themselves inside a host cell before bursting outside the cell.Bacteriophages insert their DNA, or genetic material, into bacterial cells both the lysogenic and lytic cycles, and then exploit the machinery of the cells to duplicate and spread. The viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's DNA during the lysogenic cycle, causing internal infection.The viral genome integrates into the host genome during the lysogenic cycle and continues there during replication till the lytic cycle is initiated.

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You have rock A with a volume of 15cm3 and a mass of 45 g. You have rock B with a volume of 30cm3 and a mass of 60g.

Answer the following questions:

Which of the two rocks is the heaviest?

Which of the two rocks is the lightest?

Which of the two rocks is most dense?

Which of the two rocks is the least dense?

Answers

According to the given question, rock B of mass 60g is heaviest and rock A  of mass 45g is lightest. Rock A is most dense and rock B is least dense.

What is the relation between density, mass and volume?

It is easy to determine a body's mass from its volume or vice versa using density; mass is equal to volume multiplied by density, while volume is equal to mass divided by density. This relation can be written as-

[tex]Density = \frac{Mass}{Volume}[/tex]

Now, it is given that-

Volume of rock A = 15 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex], Mass of rock A = 45 g

Volume of rock B = 30 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex], Mass of rock B = 60 g

So,

Density of rock A = 45 / 15 = 3 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Density of rock B = 60 / 30 = 2 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Therefore, rock A is denser than rock B. Rock B is heaviest and rock A is lightest.

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The heaviest rock is rock B, which weighs 60g, while the lightest rock is rock A, which weighs 45g. Rock B is the least dense, whereas Rock A is the densest.

What connection exists between mass, volume, and density?

Using density, it is simple to calculate a body's mass from its volume or vice versa. Mass is equal to volume times density, whereas volume is equal to mass divided by density. This connection can be expressed as:

[tex]Density = Mass/Volume[/tex]

Now that this is known,

Rock A has a volume of 15 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex] and a mass of 45 g.

Rock B has a volume of 30 [tex]cm^{3}[/tex]  and a mass of 60 g.

So,

Rock density A = 45/15 = 3 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Rock density B = 60/30 = 2 [tex]gm/cm^{3}[/tex]

Rock A is therefore denser than Rock B. A is the lightest rock, whereas B is the heaviest.

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Label each diagram with the appropriate model of DNA replication: 10 Label each dlagram with the appropriate model of DNA repllcatlon. 0,24 points Semniconsetvative Conservalvve Disparsive Ruerecces 88%

Answers

By labeling the 1 diagram is semiconservative, 2 diagram is conservative and third is dispersive as they shows various types of DNA replication.

Semi-conservative replication is the mechanism with the aid of using which DNA replicates in cells. The double stranded DNA unwinds, hydrogen bonds are damaged among the 2 strands with the aid of using the enzyme DNA helicase. One of the strands is used as a template to shape a 2d complementary strand. Semi conservative actually means "Half conserved".

In case of DNA , it's miles used for DNA replication wherein one strand of DNA is conserved whilst different is not. DNA replication is stated to be semi-conservative due to the method of replication, in which the ensuing double helix consists of each an antique strand and a brand new strand. Each strand of the double helix DNA might function a template for synthesis of a brand new strand.

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Tumor mutational load predicts survival after immunotherapy across multiple cancer types

a. True
b. False

Answers

Despite the fact that TMB is linked to better survival in patients receiving ICI across a wide range of cancer types, there might not be a single accepted definition of high TMB. The statement is true.

What is Tumor?When cells become damaged or old, they die and are replaced by new cells. Erroneous or damaged cells start to multiply and mature when they shouldn't when this regular process fails. These cells can expand into tumor tissue growths. Tumors may or may not be malignant (benign).Tumors that are both benign and malignant are possible (cancer). Benign tumors can grow significantly, but they do not invade or spread to nearby tissues or to other parts of the body. A cancerous tumor may encroach on nearby tissues or spread there. They can also spread to various parts of the body through the lymphatic and circulatory systems.

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Planning and Writing a Research Paper
In this activity, you’ll prepare a two- to three-page research paper that makes an argument about the future of the English bulldog breed using current scientific evidence.

Follow the steps provided to research, plan, and write your paper. Use this information about the research process and other links throughout the activity as a guide.

Part C: Take Notes
In a separate location, take notes from the sources you have identified. The notes will provide details for your paper. While taking notes from texts and websites, use these reading strategies. In the space provided, write four pieces of information that you intend to use in your paper.

Part D: Organize Your Information
After you’ve gathered your research and answered all your questions, create an outline for your research paper in the answer space. Following these guidelines for writing a five-paragraph essay may help you structure your outline. Be sure to account for the claim you’re making in your introduction, and include a works cited page at the end with the authors and websites you consulted.

Part E: Write Your Paper
Write your research using your outline and the research you’ve collected. Be sure to proofread and revise your writing to catch any errors in grammar, spelling, logic, or cohesion. Remember that you must add a works cited page at the end of your paper to give credit to your sources.

When you have completed your paper, submit it to your teacher along with this activity.

Answers

The future of the English bulldog breed using current scientific evidence illustrates that there'll be lesser bulldogs on the future.

Why will there be lesser bulldogs in the future?

Bulldogs originated hundreds of years ago in England, where they were bred for bull baiting antagonizing a bull for sport and theater due to their powerful and often vicious nature.

The English bulldog is well-known for its distinctive characteristics, which include an exaggerated stout snout, stocky body shape, deep facial folds, and a protruding lower jaw. While these characteristics are undeniably adorable and cuddly, researchers in the United Kingdom have linked them to serious health and welfare issues such as skin and ear diseases, eye disorders, and breathing difficulties. The dogs are 30 times more likely than other breeds to develop health problems.

The study compared 2,662 randomly selected English bulldogs to 22,039 dogs of other breeds. Researchers discovered that bulldogs were twice as likely as other breeds to have one or more health disorders in a single year. Bulldogs, for example, were 38 times more likely than other breeds to develop skin fold dermatitis.

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Answer:

PART B Moving to a new neighborhood right before the beginning of sixth grade was hard, but it brought me closer to my family and pushed me to try new things.

Explanation:

a lab technician uses a coombs test to determine whether a mother and fetus are incompatible for the rhesus (rh) blood antigen, and determines that there is no agglutination. which of the following is true? group of answer choices the fetus is not at risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. there is rhesus incompatibility between the mother and the fetus, and therefore risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. the mother's red blood cells are rh- and the fetus's red blood cells are rh . the mother's red blood cells express rh and type a blood antigen.

Answers

Hemolytic illness in the infant is not a concern for the fetus. Due to the mother's rhesus incompatibility with the fetus, the baby is at risk for hemolytic illness.

If the test is normal (negative), it suggests the mother really hasn't produced antibodies to the fetus' blood. Anti-D antibodies are discovered in the mother's serum using the indirect Coombs test. These would hemolyze fetal RBCs if they came into touch with them, which would result in HDN. Treatment for HDN can be administered by detecting maternal anti-D before fetal RBCs have been attacked. When a Rh negative woman gives birth to a child with a Rh positive father, HDN results. The mother's immune system will produce antibodies to fight her unborn child if she has been exposed to Rh positive blood and has been sensitized.

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At what point did the two groups of anthropods split, and why?

Answers

Hexapoda (insects and springtails), Chelicerata (arachnids), Crustacea (crustaceans), and Myriapoda (myriapods) are the four subphyla of extant forms that make up the phylum Arthropoda.

What is meant by Arthropods?

Any member of the invertebrate animal group (Arthropoda), which includes insects, arachnids, and crustaceans, that has a segmented body, jointed limbs, a typically chitinous exoskeleton that sheds at regular intervals, and a ventral chain of ganglia connecting to the dorsal anterior brain.

Animals with joined legs are known as arthropods. Arthropoda, the name of the phylum, refers to invertebrates with jointed legs and an exoskeleton.

The existence of numerous joints, a chitinous exoskeleton, segmentation, and an open circulatory system define an arthropod as a living invertebrate. The internal organs of the organisms are shielded by the chitinous exoskeleton.

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