The negative feedback loop for glucagon can be described with the following points:
a. The stimulus is: low glucose levels in the blood.
b. The receptor is: pancreatic alpha cells.
c. The control center is: the pancreas.
d. The effector and response is:
i. the liver.
ii. glycogenolysis, which releases glucose from glycogen stores in the liver.
iii. gluconeogenesis, which is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources such as amino acids.
Type I diabetes:It is a type of diabetes where the immune system attacks and destroys the insulin-producing beta cells of the pancreas. As a result, the pancreas is unable to produce insulin, which is essential for regulating blood sugar levels. It occurs more commonly in children and young adults, and its symptoms may include frequent urination, excessive thirst, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, and blurred vision.
Type II diabetes:Type II diabetes is a chronic condition that occurs when the body becomes resistant to insulin or is unable to produce enough insulin to meet the body's needs. It typically develops in adults over the age of 45 and is associated with obesity, physical inactivity, and family history of the disease. Symptoms may include frequent urination, increased thirst, blurry vision, fatigue, and slow healing of wounds.
Differences between Type I and Type II diabetes:Type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder, whereas Type II diabetes is often associated with lifestyle factors such as diet and exercise.Type I diabetes usually appears in children and young adults, while Type II diabetes typically develops in adults over the age of 45.Type I diabetes requires insulin therapy, while Type II diabetes may be managed with lifestyle modifications and/or medications.
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A depolarising graded potential:
a. makes the membrane more polarised.
b. is the last part of an action potential.
c. is seen when the cell approaches threshold.
d. is considered to be a type of action potential.
A depolarising graded potential is seen when the cell approaches threshold. The correct option is C.
Whenever depolarizing graded potential is created, the voltage across the membrane becomes lesser, i.e. from negative to positive, to some extent. The depolarizing graded potential happens when there is a rapid change in potential difference across the cell membrane. As the membrane becomes more positive, the cell's membrane becomes more prone to the stimulus, which means that it is more likely to create an action potential.Based on the given options, option c is the correct answer.
A graded potential or local potential is a signal that occurs in response to stimulus. Graded potential is a deviation from the resting electrical potential across the cell membrane that causes a slight change in the potential difference. The graded potentials that occur in the dendrites or cell body are referred to as postsynaptic potentials and those that occur in the axon are referred to as presynaptic potentials.
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Let's follow a meal from the time you eat it through the digestive system from start to finish.
List, in sequence, each of the components or segments of the alimentary canal from mouth to anus.
Make sure to also identify the accessory organs of digestion located within the gastrointestinal tract or that open into it.
Next, let's talk about what that meal should consist of.
There are various arguments for and against different diet choices. There are vegan diets, vegetarian diets, traditional diets, protein/fat heavy diets, and so many more.
Think about what would be the best choice for human body development and sustainable health. Which diets are best for our digestive health?
Can we draw a straight line and suggest only one specific choice or should we look into combined diet solutions?
Use research to defend your position.
The following is the sequence of the components or segments of the alimentary canal from mouth to anus:Oral cavity or mouth Pharynx Esophagus Stomach Small intestine Large intestine or colon Rectum Anus The accessory organs of digestion located within the gastrointestinal tract or that open into it.
Salivary glands Liver Pancreas Gallbladder The human body development and sustainable health require diets that are balanced and nutrient-dense, including all the essential vitamins, minerals, and other essential nutrients. As a result, diets that are more nutrient-dense can enhance digestion and sustain human health. A nutrient-dense diet will consist of whole foods and lean proteins, and it should also be high in vitamins, minerals, and fiber.
A vegan diet is one of the best diets for digestive health because it promotes the growth of good bacteria in the digestive system and reduces inflammation. Vegan diets are also a great source of fiber, which helps to maintain digestive regularity.Vegetarian diets can also be beneficial to digestive health, but they may not provide enough vitamin B12, which is critical for healthy digestion.Protein/fat-heavy diets can be detrimental to digestive health since consuming too much protein and fat can cause inflammation, which can cause digestive issues and may lead to chronic conditions like heart disease, cancer, and type 2 diabetes.In conclusion, there is no one-size-fits-all diet solution for digestive health. Nutrient-dense, whole foods, and a well-balanced diet are beneficial for digestive health and sustainable human health. It is suggested to have a varied diet that is rich in fruits and vegetables, lean protein, and whole grains.
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An 83-year-old anemic male, Jose was admitted to a local hospital for recurrent urinary tract bleeding and infection associated with prostatitis.
- CBC upon admission
RBC: 4.15 × 1012/L
Hb: 81 g/L (8.1g/dL)
Hct: 0.26 L/L (26%)
Platelet: 174 × 109/L
WBC: 2.8 × 109/L
- Reflex tests:
Reticulocyte count: 2.6%
Serum iron: 18 mcg/dL
TIBC: 425 4)
Question
How do the patient's iron study results help in differentiating the diagnosis of iron deficiency from ACD? What additional test that was not done would be most helpful in this case?
5) Do the iron studies in Jose (serum iron 18 mcg/dL, TIBC 425 mcg/dL) suggest sideroblastic anemia? Do Jose's laboratory test results and clinical history indicate that a bone marrow examination is necessary, explain?
6) Does Jose need any type of treatment(s)? Justify. If you want to treat him, how would you go about doing it? Be as specific as possible.
The patient's iron study results suggest iron deficiency anemia. A bone marrow examination is necessary to diagnose the cause of anemia. Treatment should focus on addressing the underlying condition and may involve oral or IV iron supplementation, as well as treating associated issues like urinary tract bleeding and infection.
1) The patient's iron study results help in differentiating the diagnosis of iron deficiency from ACD by observing the following parameters: Serum iron levels: low in iron deficiency but normal or elevated in ACDTIBC (Total iron binding capacity): increased in iron deficiency but is normal or decreased in ACD% Transferrin saturation: low in iron deficiency and normal or high in ACD.
In this case, the patient's serum iron levels are low, and TIBC levels are high, which suggests that the patient is suffering from iron deficiency anemia. To confirm the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia, a ferritin test would be most helpful.
2) No, Jose's iron studies do not suggest sideroblastic anemia. 3) Yes, Jose's laboratory test results and clinical history indicate that a bone marrow examination is necessary. It is necessary because the patient has a low WBC count and RBC count, and he has recurring urinary tract bleeding and infection associated with prostatitis. The bone marrow examination is also important to diagnose the cause of anemia.
4) Yes, Jose needs treatment. The treatment should be directed towards his underlying condition, i.e., iron deficiency anemia. The following interventions can be taken to treat him: a) Oral iron supplementation: This would involve taking iron tablets orally.
Patients should take iron supplements for at least 3 to 6 months to restore iron levels. b) IV iron supplementation: This is recommended if the patient is unable to tolerate or absorb oral iron or has severe iron deficiency anemia. c) Treatment of the underlying cause: The underlying cause of anemia should also be treated. For example, in the case of Jose, recurrent urinary tract bleeding and infection associated with prostatitis should be treated.
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In this example the components are: Atmospheric CO₂ Dissolved CO₂ Mineralized CO₂ Temperature plings: these are the processes or mechanisms within the system. Couplings are mmonly verbs that explain the relationship between the components and are represented ch arrows. In this example the couplings are: Dissolution Rock Weathering Volcanism Subduction Sedimentation se the components and couplings to draw a model in the space below. You can add Omponents or couplings to make your model more complete. onus: In some cases you can indicate if a coupling is positive (+) or negative (-) by thinking bout how one component affects another component or coupling. In a positive coupling a hange in one component causes a change in a coupling or component in the same directi na negative coupling, the change is in the opposite direction. Atmosphere Ocean Lithosphere
The components in this example are Atmospheric CO₂, Dissolved CO₂, Mineralized CO₂, and Temperature, while the couplings are Dissolution, Rock Weathering, Volcanism, Subduction, and Sedimentation.
Atmospheric CO₂ refers to the carbon dioxide present in the Earth's atmosphere, which plays a crucial role in the planet's climate system. Dissolved CO₂ represents the carbon dioxide that has dissolved into the oceans, affecting their chemistry and acidification. Mineralized CO₂ refers to the process of carbon dioxide becoming incorporated into solid minerals, effectively storing carbon over long periods.
Temperature is another component that influences the system, as it affects the rates of chemical reactions and physical processes. Couplings such as Dissolution, Rock Weathering, Volcanism, Subduction, and Sedimentation highlight the interplay between components. Dissolution involves the process of gases dissolving into liquid solutions, including the dissolution of CO₂ into the oceans. Rock Weathering occurs when rocks break down and release chemical components, including CO₂.
Volcanism refers to volcanic activity that releases CO₂ and other gases into the atmosphere. Subduction involves the movement of tectonic plates, which can lead to the release or burial of carbon-rich materials. Sedimentation refers to the accumulation of sediments, which can store carbon over long periods, affecting the carbon cycle.
By understanding these components and couplings, we can develop a comprehensive model that represents the complex interactions between the Atmosphere, Ocean, and Lithosphere, shedding light on the processes that shape Earth's climate and geology.
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Which is TRUE regarding Skeletal Muscle fibers? Slow-twitch (Type I, or "red" muscle) fatigue quickly and rely exclusively on glucose as a metabolic fuel. Muscle fibers increase power output by switching from phosphocreatine to oxidative fuels. Groups of individual cells, each containing a mixture of fiber types, are activated by one neuron. Groups of individual cells, each containing similar fiber types, are activated by one neuron. Fast-twitch (Type IIB or Type IIx, or "white" muscle) resist fatigue and rely primarily on lipid as a metabolic fuel.
Regarding Skeletal Muscle fibers, it is true that groups of individual cells, each containing similar fiber types, are activated by one neuron.
A skeletal muscle is a type of muscle that is attached to the bones by tendons (connective tissues) and can be controlled by voluntary nerve signals. They are striped in appearance, and their fibers have more than one nucleus.
Slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscle fibers are the two major muscle fiber types. The variation in muscle fiber type is due to the presence of different enzymes and metabolic reactions that regulate energy production within muscle fibers. Each person's muscle contains both types of fibers, and the proportion of each fiber type varies depending on the muscle.
Above all, when it comes to Skeletal Muscle fibers, it is true that groups of individual cells, each containing similar fiber types, are activated by one neuron.
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How is the action of catecholamines terminated
A. Absorbed by the postsynaptic membrane
B. Broken down without any enzymatic action over time
C. Reuptaken by a transport protein
Catecholamines are hormones that are produced by the adrenal medulla. The hormones produced by the adrenal gland are dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. The answer is (C).
They are responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response to stress. To know how the action of catecholamines is terminated, let's understand how catecholamines work in the body. Catecholamines are released in the body in response to stress or other stimuli. Once they are released, they bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and cause a cascade of effects in the body. These effects include increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and increased metabolic rate.
Once the catecholamines have done their job, they need to be removed from the body to prevent overstimulation. The action of catecholamines is terminated through a process called reuptake. Catecholamines are reuptake by a transport protein located on the presynaptic membrane. This transport protein removes the catecholamines from the synaptic cleft and returns them to the presynaptic neuron for storage and reuse. So, the correct answer is option C - Reuptaken by a transport protein.
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Please answer all:
Beta oxidation of fatty acids yields
Question 13 options:
a) glucose.
b) acetyl CoA
c) pyruvic acid
d) citric acid
Which of the following statements about the oxygen in the air we breathe is true?
Question 15 options:
a) It combines with carbon to form carbon dioxide.
b) It combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water.
c) It only combines with hydrogen to form water.
d) None of the above are true.
13. Beta oxidation of fatty acids yields b) acetyl CoA.
15. The correct statement about the oxygen in the air we breathe is b) It combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water.
Beta oxidation is a metabolic process that occurs in the mitochondria and involves the breakdown of fatty acids into acetyl CoA molecules. Acetyl CoA can then enter the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) to generate energy through the production of ATP. Oxygen serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during cellular respiration.
It combines with hydrogen ions (H+) and electrons (e-) derived from the breakdown of fuel molecules like glucose to form water (H2O). This process occurs in the mitochondria and is an essential part of the energy production process, specifically oxidative phosphorylation. Oxygen's role in this process helps generate ATP, the energy currency of cells, and water is produced as a byproduct.
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Humphrey, J. D., 2013, Cardiovascular Solid Mechanics: Cells, Tissues, and Organs, Springer Science
The book "Cardiovascular Solid Mechanics: Cells, Tissues, and Organs" by Humphrey, J.D. (2013) is a valuable resource that delves into the mechanics of the cardiovascular system at various levels, from cells to organs. It covers important topics such as how mechanical forces affect the behavior of cardiovascular tissues and how they contribute to the overall function of the system.
One key concept explored in this book is the role of mechanical forces in maintaining the structure and function of the cardiovascular system. For example, it explains how blood flow generates forces on blood vessels, influencing their shape, elasticity, and functionality. The book also discusses the behavior of cardiovascular cells under mechanical stress, such as how they respond to changes in pressure and stretch.
Another aspect covered in the book is the mechanical properties of cardiovascular tissues and organs. It explores how these materials are characterized and how their mechanical behavior can be modeled mathematically. This understanding is crucial for studying diseases and disorders related to the cardiovascular system, as well as for developing medical interventions and devices.
In summary, "Cardiovascular Solid Mechanics: Cells, Tissues, and Organs" provides a comprehensive exploration of the mechanics of the cardiovascular system. It offers valuable insights into how mechanical forces influence the structure and function of cardiovascular tissues and organs. This knowledge is crucial for understanding cardiovascular health and developing effective treatments.
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Osmolarity Part 2: Calculate the osmolarity of SOLUTION B. Show your work and include appropriate units to get full credit 25 millimolar sodium chloride (NaCl) 50 millimolar magnesium chloride (MgCl2) 50 millimolar glucose
Previous question
The osmolarity of Solution B is 0.25 M (molar).
To calculate the osmolarity of Solution B accurately, we need to consider the dissociation of NaCl and MgCl₂ into their respective ions.
- Sodium chloride (NaCl): Since NaCl dissociates into one sodium ion (Na⁺) and one chloride ion (Cl⁻), the effective molar concentration of NaCl is equal to its actual molar concentration.
Sodium ion (Na⁺): 25 millimolar (mM) = 25 mM / 1000 = 0.025 M
Chloride ion (Cl⁻): 25 millimolar (mM) = 25 mM / 1000 = 0.025 M
- Magnesium chloride (MgCl₂): Since MgCl₂ dissociates into one magnesium ion (Mg²⁺) and two chloride ions (Cl⁻), the effective molar concentration of MgCl₂ is twice its actual molar concentration.
Magnesium ion (Mg²⁺): 50 millimolar (mM) = 50 mM / 1000 = 0.05 M
Chloride ion (Cl⁻): 50 millimolar (mM) × 2 = 100 mM / 1000 = 0.1 M
- Glucose: The glucose does not dissociate, so its molar concentration remains the same.
Glucose: 50 millimolar (mM) = 50 mM / 1000 = 0.05 M
Now, we add up the molarities of all the components to get the total osmolarity:
Total osmolarity = Sodium ion (Na⁺) + Chloride ion (Cl⁻) + Magnesium ion (Mg²⁺) + Chloride ion (Cl⁻) + Glucose
= 0.025 M + 0.025 M + 0.05 M + 0.1 M + 0.05 M
= 0.25 M
Therefore, the osmolarity of Solution B is 0.25 M (molar).
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Decide whether the following statement is true or false, and explain why you chose true or false. Secondary follicles contain secondary oocytes." For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac).
The given statement "Secondary follicles contain secondary oocytes" is false.
Follicles are the sac-like structures in the ovary that contains immature eggs. These immature eggs are known as oocytes.
1) Follicles and Oocytes: Primary follicles are the beginning phase of ovarian follicles. These contain a primary oocyte which is immature.
2) As the follicle grows it becomes a secondary follicle, which still contains a primary oocyte but now has multiple layers of cells, known as granulosa cells.
3) Tertiary follicles, also called Graafian follicles, are the final stages of follicular development before ovulation. They have a fluid-filled cavity known as the antrum. They contain a secondary oocyte which has the ability to undergo fertilization.
An oocyte is the female gamete (reproductive cell) present in the ovary. They are produced and surrounded by granulosa cells inside the follicles. The oocyte undergoes meiosis to form haploid ovum, which is essential for sexual reproduction. Primary oocytes are the primary stage of oocytes. They are formed during the development of a female fetus
Secondary oocytes are formed when the primary oocyte is triggered to complete the first meiotic division before ovulation. They complete the second meiotic division only after fertilization, forming the ovum.True or False:The given statement "Secondary follicles contain secondary oocytes" is false.
Because, primary follicles contain primary oocytes whereas secondary follicles contain a primary oocyte which is immature. Tertiary follicles contain a secondary oocyte which has the ability to undergo fertilization.
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8. How would blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to the following?
A) changes in PCO2 B) changes in PO2 C) changes in pH due to carbon dioxide levels D) changes in blood pressure E) all of the above
The correct option is E. Changes in PCO2, PO2, pH due to carbon dioxide levels and blood pressure are detected by the chemoreceptors present in the carotid and aortic bodies.
Blocking afferent action potentials from these chemoreceptors would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to all of the above mentioned. Afferent action potentials are responsible for transporting sensory information from the sensory receptor organs to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord). The sensory information received is then processed and an appropriate response is generated by the body.
The chemoreceptors present in the carotid and aortic bodies are responsible for monitoring the levels of CO2, O2, and pH in the blood. When the levels of CO2 and H+ ions in the blood increase or the levels of O2 in the blood decrease, the chemoreceptors are stimulated and send action potentials through the afferent neurons to the respiratory center in the brainstem, which in turn increases the rate and depth of breathing.
So, blocking the afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to changes in PCO2, PO2, pH due to carbon dioxide levels, and blood pressure.
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Sexual traits that are disadvantageous to male survival may be attractive to a female because they suggest the male possesses a superior genotype to counteract the disadvantageous trait. This is known as the:
Sexual traits that are disadvantageous to male survival may be attractive to a female because they suggest the male possesses a superior genotype to counteract the disadvantageous trait. This is known as the handicap principle.
The handicap principle refers to the idea that sexually selected traits that decrease survival rates (or increase energetic or physiological costs) will be more attractive to the opposite sex since they signal the male’s greater genetic quality and their ability to overcome the trait's disadvantages. Adaptive logic of the handicap principle, which was first introduced by Zahavi, is that a large or extravagant sexually selected trait demonstrates a male's genetic quality because such a male can survive even with such a trait that hinders its overall survival. Therefore, when females observe such traits in males, they conclude that those males are of higher genetic quality and, hence, the handicap principle is enforced. The sexual traits that are disadvantageous to male survival are attractive to females because they signal the male's superior genotype to compensate for the disadvantage. The handicap principle refers to the idea that sexually selected traits that decrease survival rates (or increase energetic or physiological costs) will be more attractive to the opposite sex. Therefore, when females observe such traits in males, they conclude that those males are of higher genetic quality and, hence, the handicap principle is enforced. The handicap principle suggests that sexually selected traits that decrease survival rates (or increase energetic or physiological costs) will be more attractive to the opposite sex since they signal the male's greater genetic quality and their ability to overcome the trait's disadvantages.
Zahavi's adaptive logic is that large or extravagant sexually selected traits demonstrate a male's genetic quality because such a male can survive even with such a trait that hinders its overall survival. Females conclude that such males are of higher genetic quality and, hence, the handicap principle is enforced.
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Hormone release from the posterior pituitary is controlled by the hypothalamus through the use of O hypothalamic releasing hormones O hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system O hypothalamo-hypophysial tract neurosecretory cells O all of the above QUESTION 91 The Hormone ______ will cause maturation and normal development of T lymphocytes O epinephrine O glucagon O thyroid hormone O thymosin QUESTION 92 : Reduced secretion of this hormone causes type 1 diabetes mellitus O epinephrine O glucagon O thyroid hormone O insulin QUESTION 93 The hormone cortisol is released from the____ due to ___ O adrenal medulla / low blood pressure O adrenal cortex /high blood pressure O adrenal cortex / stress O adrenal medulla / stress QUESTION 94 The hormone _____ is released from the_______ when blood calcium concentration is ___
O PTH/parathyroid glands/low O EPO/kidneys / low O ADH/ kidneys / high O ADH/ lungs / low QUESTION 95 This area of the adrenal cortex releases glucocorticoids O zona fasciculata O zona glomerulosa O zona reticularis O zona medullaris QUESTION 96 Aldosterone is released from the____ and acts on____ O adrenal cortex / skeletal muscle O adrenal medulla / testes O adrenal cortex / kidney tubules O adrenal medulla / liver
QUESTION 97 Glucagon is released from the____ when blood sugar levels are__ O liver / high O thyroid gland / low O pancreas/low O pancreas/high QUESTION 98 All hormone release in the human body is regulated by negative feedback system O True O False QUESTION 99 The thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are produced within the_____ of the thyroid gland
O parafollicular cells O follicular cells O thyroid follicles O all of the above QUESTION 100 Parathyroid hormone is released from the_____ and causes increased activity of_____ O parathyroid glands / osteoblasts O thyroid gland / osteoclasts O parathyroid glands / osteoclasts O thyroid gland / osteoblasts
Hormone release from the posterior pituitary is controlled by the hypothalamus through the use of hypothalamo-hypophysial tract neurosecretory cells. Reduced secretion of insulin causes type 1 diabetes mellitus. The hormone cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex due to stress. The hormone PTH is released from the parathyroid glands when blood calcium concentration is low. Zona fasciculata releases glucocorticoids.
Aldosterone is released from the adrenal cortex and acts on kidney tubules. Glucagon is released from the pancreas when blood sugar levels are low. All hormone release in the human body is regulated by a negative feedback system. The thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are produced within the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Parathyroid hormone is released from the parathyroid glands and causes increased activity of osteoclasts. Hypothalamus is responsible for hormone release from the posterior pituitary through the use of hypothalamo-hypophysial tract neurosecretory cells. The posterior pituitary secretes two hormones - oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) - directly into the bloodstream. The hypothalamus produces both oxytocin and ADH and controls their release.
The hormone thymosin will cause maturation and normal development of T lymphocytes. Reduced secretion of insulin causes type 1 diabetes mellitus. The hormone cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex due to stress. The hormone PTH is released from the parathyroid glands when blood calcium concentration is low. Zona fasciculata releases glucocorticoids. Aldosterone is released from the adrenal cortex and acts on kidney tubules.
Glucagon is released from the pancreas when blood sugar levels are low.All hormone release in the human body is regulated by a negative feedback system.The thyroid hormones T3 and T4 are produced within the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Parathyroid hormone is released from the parathyroid glands and causes increased activity of osteoclasts.
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27. Select all ions below that are reabsorbed by the renal system. (Hint* they are moved from the nephron into the blood system)
- NA (sodium)
- K (Potassium)
- CI (chloride)
- H (hydrogen/hydronium)
- HCO3 (bicarbonate)
- Glucose
33. choose your favorite mode of inheritance and give a specific example that demonstrates it (preferably real, but you can make up a gene), include the results you'd see from the progeny (kids)
27. The following ions are reabsorbed by the renal system are: NA (sodium)K (Potassium)CI (chloride)HCO3 (bicarbonate)The ions that are reabsorbed by the renal system include sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate. They are reabsorbed from the nephron and into the bloodstream. Hydrogen ions are secreted into the tubular fluid while glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule and can be observed in the blood.
33. Mode of inheritance: Autosomal dominant inheritance is the most common mode of inheritance. An example that demonstrates it: Huntington’s disease is an inherited condition that is caused by a single gene which is autosomal dominant. It is a neurological disorder characterized by degeneration of nerve cells in the brain and results in involuntary movement, cognitive decline, and dementia.
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Cardiac output is not the same as stroke volume. "Why not? They sound the same."
A.
stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per minute
B.
cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected from both ventricles per minute
C.
cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per beat
D.
stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per beat
Cardiac output is not the same as stroke volume because B. cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected from both ventricles per minute and D. stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per beat.
Stroke volume (SV) refers to the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per beat. It is the volume of blood that the heart pumps out per beat, and it is determined by the difference between end-diastolic volume and end-systolic volume. Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood ejected from both ventricles per minute. It is calculated as the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV), as follows:
CO = HR x SVTherefore, CO and SV are related but distinct measures of the volume of blood pumped by the heart.
Therefore, correct options are B. cardiac output is the amount of blood ejected from both ventricles per minute and D. stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle per beat.
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Damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses or function. Take a look at the pictures below. Which lobe is affected by the stroke? Next, Name the typical signs and symptoms of a stroke?
The lobe that is affected by the stroke is the temporal lobe. The typical signs and symptoms of a stroke are numbness, weakness, or paralysis of the face, arm, or leg, particularly on one side of the body.
What is a stroke?A stroke is a disease that occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted. When this happens, brain cells do not receive enough oxygen or nutrients and begin to die. Stroke is a leading cause of death and disability worldwide. There are two types of strokes: Ischemic stroke- It is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain. Hemorrhagic stroke- It occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures or leaks.
The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain. It is responsible for a variety of functions, including movement, sensation, perception, and cognition. It is divided into four main lobes: the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, and occipital lobe. The damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses of function.
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The diameter of the efferent arteriole is reduced by parasympathetic stimulation while the diameter is: A. Bp in the glomerulus is reduced. O B. Bp in the glomerulus is increased. C. Filtration rate is reduced. D. GBHP is low. 27 3 points Filtration of albumin... A. Is abnormal. B. Is normal with an increase in glomerular permeability. C. Is damaging to nephrons. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. 28 3 points Glomerular filtrate contains: A. Everything in the blood. O B. Everything in the blood except cells and proteins. © C. Water and electrolytes. D. Water and waste. Weiter
a. Option B is correct.
b. Option C is correct.
c. Option B is correct.
Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the diameter of the efferent arteriole while increasing the diameter of: B. Bp in the glomerulus. The efferent arteriole narrows as a result of parasympathetic activation, raising the blood pressure (Bp) in the glomerulus.
Albumin filtration C. is harmful to nephrons. Albumin, a protein, is thought to harm nephrons when it is filtered. Large proteins like albumin cannot get through the glomerular filtration barrier when things are normal.
Everything in the blood, excluding cells and proteins, is present in glomerular filtrate. Water, electrolytes, and minute blood plasma molecule fragments make up the glomerular filtrate, which is produced in the renal corpuscle.
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Complete question
a. The diameter of the efferent arteriole is reduced by parasympathetic stimulation while the diameter is:
A. Bp in the glomerulus is reduced.
B. Bp in the glomerulus is increased.
C. Filtration rate is reduced.
D. GBHP is low.
b. Filtration of albumin...
A. Is abnormal.
B. Is normal with an increase in glomerular permeability.
C. Is damaging to nephrons.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
c. Glomerular filtrate contains:
A. Everything in the blood.
B. Everything in the blood except cells and proteins.
C. Water and electrolytes.
D. Water and waste.
The chemical called EDTA chelates calcium ions? Explain at which
level in the pathway, and why EDTA would affect blood
clotting!
EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is a chelating agent that can form stable complexes with metal ions such as calcium, which is required for blood clotting. EDTA would therefore affect blood clotting by chelating calcium ions and rendering them unavailable for the coagulation cascade.
EDTA affects blood clotting at the level of coagulation cascade. Calcium ions play an important role in blood coagulation by acting as a cofactor in the activation of several clotting factors, including Factor X, prothrombin, and Factor VII. Therefore, if calcium is chelated by EDTA, it is unable to act as a cofactor, resulting in decreased blood clotting.
EDTA would affect blood clotting because it can chelate calcium ions. Calcium is an essential cofactor in blood clotting; it is required for the activation of several clotting factors. When calcium is chelated by EDTA, it is no longer available to act as a cofactor, which can lead to decreased clotting activity. Therefore, EDTA may be used as an anticoagulant by removing calcium ions from the clotting reaction.
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Which is true of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide? ◯ It is released in response to increasing blood pressure and stretching of the atrial wall ◯ It causes the release of angiotensin II ◯ It causes aquaporins to be inserted into the tubule and collecting duct ◯ It causes water to be reabsorbed, increasing blood volume and pressure
The true statement regarding Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is:
◯ It is released in response to increasing blood pressure and stretching of the atrial wall.
ANP is a hormone that is released from the atria of the heart in response to increased blood volume and stretching of the atrial walls. It acts as a natural antagonist to the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which regulates blood pressure and fluid balance. ANP helps to counteract the effects of angiotensin II, a hormone that promotes vasoconstriction and sodium reabsorption.
The other statements are false:
- ANP does not cause the release of angiotensin II. In fact, it opposes the actions of angiotensin II.
- ANP does not directly cause the insertion of aquaporins into the tubule and collecting duct. However, it does promote diuresis (increased urine production) by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
- ANP does not cause water to be reabsorbed. It actually promotes the excretion of water by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, thereby increasing urine output and reducing blood volume and pressure.
Therefore, the correct statement is that ANP is released in response to increasing blood pressure and stretching of the atrial wall.
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The Ryanodine Receptor is a ________ release channel found in the ________ of the ________
Group of answer choices
a) Na+, t-tubule, myofibril
b) Ca+, t-tubule, myofibril
c) Ca+, sarcoplasmic reticulum, triad
d) Na+, Sarcoplasmic reticulum, triad
The correct option is c) Ca+, sarcoplasmic reticulum, triad. The Ryanodine Receptor is a Ca+ release channel found in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the triad .
The Ryanodine Receptors is a Ca+, sarcoplasmic reticulum, triad release channel. The Ryanodine receptor is an intracellular calcium channel found in skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. It is present in the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and it allows calcium ions to diffuse into the sarcoplasm of the muscle cell, thus activating the muscle contraction process. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells is a calcium store. It is known as the calcium store since it has a high concentration of calcium ions.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a network of membrane tubules found in muscle cells that are continuous with the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. The calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells is important for the regulation of muscle contraction. The Ryanodine receptor is a calcium ion channel located in the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. When the Ryanodine receptor opens, calcium ions are released into the sarcoplasm, thus initiating muscle contraction.
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Timer 17. Which of the following structures of the brain is NOT connected to the reticular formation? Medulla Hypothalamus Substantia niagra Cerebellum Red nucleus Unaved save > O
The structure of the brain that is NOT connected to the reticular formation is the cerebellum. The cerebellum is located at the back of the brain and is responsible for coordination and balance. It helps to maintain posture and balance and is involved in the coordination of voluntary movements.
The medulla, hypothalamus, substantia niagra, and red nucleus are all connected to the reticular formation. The medulla oblongata is a part of the brainstem that controls many vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The hypothalamus is involved in regulating many bodily functions including body temperature, hunger, thirst, and sleep. The substantia niagra is a part of the midbrain that is involved in the production of dopamine, a neurotransmitter that is involved in the control of movement. The red nucleus is another part of the midbrain that is involved in the control of movement.
Therefore, the cerebellum is the only structure of the brain among the given options that is NOT connected to the reticular formation.
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The Superior Vena Cava (SVC) is formed by the union of the left and right brachiocephalic veins True or False
Veins carry blood away from the heart True or False
The Superior Vena Cava (SVC) is formed by the union of the left and right brachiocephalic veins. This statement is True.
False, Veins carry blood toward the heart whereas Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
The Superior Vena Cava (SVC) is formed by the union of the left and right brachiocephalic veins. These two large veins collect deoxygenated blood from the upper body and deliver it to the right atrium of the heart. The SVC plays a crucial role in the venous return of blood to the heart.
Veins carry blood toward the heart. They transport deoxygenated blood from the body tissues back to the heart for oxygenation. Arteries, on the other hand, carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body tissues. The circulatory system relies on the coordinated action of both veins and arteries to ensure proper blood flow throughout the body.
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Two equal volumes of liquid are added to a chamber, separated by a semipermeable membrane. Water molecules (and only water molecules) can pass easily through the membrane. On one side (Side A) the liquid is pure water. On the other (Side B) the solution contains a high concentration of salt (NaCl) in water. After two hours, you observe that the water level on Side B is higher than on Side A. Which of the following best explains this result? O Water molecules repel each other, and diffuse away from areas of high concentration of water O Solute particles bound to water molecules, move away from a membrane impermeable to the solute, pulling water molecules across the membrane permeable to water. O Water molecules attract each other, and form bonds between water molecules that are stronger than those between water and the solute particles, drawing water toward areas of high solute concentration where water-solute bonds break and water-water bonds form. O Water molecules form stronger bonds with solute particles, than with neighboring water molecules, pulling water molecules across the membrane toward high concentrations of solute particles.
After two hours, you observe that the water level on Side B is higher than on Side A. The statement (c) is the best explains this result.
This observation can be best explained as follows: Water molecules attract each other, and form bonds between water molecules that are stronger than those between water and the solute particles, drawing water toward areas of high solute concentration (The substance that dissolves in a solution is called the solute, and the substance that does the dissolving is called the solvent. The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute in a given amount of solution) where water-solute bonds break and water-water bonds form. In this scenario, water molecules attract each other and form hydrogen bonds. This hydrogen bonding is why the water level in side B is higher than side A.
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The full question is
Two equal volumes of liquid are added to a chamber, separated by a semipermeable membrane. Water molecules (and only water molecules) can pass easily through the membrane. On one side (Side A) the liquid is pure water. On the other (Side B) the solution contains a high concentration of salt (NaCl) in water. After two hours, you observe that the water level on Side B is higher than on Side A. Which of the following best explains this result?
(A) Water molecules repel each other, and diffuse away from areas of high concentration of water
(b) Solute particles bound to water molecules, move away from a membrane impermeable to the solute, pulling water molecules across the membrane permeable to water.
(c) Water molecules attract each other, and form bonds between water molecules that are stronger than those between water and the solute particles, drawing water toward areas of high solute concentration where water-solute bonds break and water-water bonds form.
(D) Water molecules form stronger bonds with solute particles, than with neighboring water molecules, pulling water molecules across the membrane toward high concentrations of solute particles.
Q.1. Discuss the four major ways edema can develop within the body. Provide a specific example of a disease previously discussed in the course related to each of the four causes of edema. Make sure you explain how the etiology/pathogenesis of the example disease contributed to the edema.
Q.2. What are gallstones and how do they develop? Describe a person who would be at high risk for developing gallstones. What are common treatments for gallstones?
Four Major Ways Edema can Develop Edema is characterized by the buildup of fluids in tissues and organs outside the circulatory system.
The exact causes of gallstones are not clear, but the following factors may contribute to their development:Excess cholesterol in the bile Bile that is not properly emptied from the gallbladder Rapid weight loss or fastingGeneticsThere are a few factors that can increase a person's risk of developing gallstones:
Age: people over 60 years old
Gender: women are more likely to develop gallstones than men
Obesity or overweight: excess weight increases the risk of gallstones
Pregnancy: women are more likely to develop gallstones during pregnancy than at any other time
Family history of gallstones
Diabetes Ethnicity: Native Americans and Hispanics are at higher risk than other ethnic groups.
Common Treatments for GallstonesHere are a few common treatments for gallstones:Observation: if gallstones are asymptomatic, sometimes no treatment is required. Pain Management: pain medication may be prescribed to help relieve symptoms if the patient is experiencing pain. Dietary modifications: a low-fat diet may be recommended to reduce gallbladder contraction and relieve symptoms. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP): This procedure involves a small tube being inserted through the mouth and into the digestive tract to extract stones.
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A patient takes a blood pressure medication called an ""ARB"" which stands for an angiotensin receptor blocker. If angiotensin is blocked, what happens to fluid?
Blocking angiotensin receptors with an ARB can result in vasodilation, decreased fluid retention, and increased urine output, leading to a more balanced fluid state.
When angiotensin is blocked by an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), the effects on fluid balance depend on the specific mechanisms involved. Generally, blocking angiotensin receptors can lead to the following effects on fluid regulation:
Vasodilation: Angiotensin receptor blockers relax and widen the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation. This dilation reduces the resistance to blood flow, allowing for increased blood circulation. As a result, blood pressure decreases, and fluid redistribution may occur.Decreased fluid retention: Angiotensin is involved in regulating fluid balance by stimulating the release of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys. Blocking angiotensin receptors can inhibit this process, leading to decreased fluid retention. As a result, the excretion of sodium and water may increase, leading to a decrease in overall fluid volume.Improved urine output: By blocking angiotensin receptors, ARBs can increase urine production and improve renal function. This effect can help remove excess fluid from the body and maintain a proper fluid balance.Learn more about angiotensin at
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Which of the following is the characteristic pathology of osteoarthritis?
a) Eburnation
b) Panus
c) Infection
d) Tophy
The characteristic pathology of osteoarthritis is eburnation.
Eburnation refers to the smooth, polished appearance of the surface of bone that is in direct contact with another bone at a joint that is affected by osteoarthritis.Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common degenerative joint disorder that affects millions of people globally, especially older adults.
The disorder is characterized by the progressive loss of articular cartilage, subchondral bone remodeling, and alterations in joint tissues, resulting in joint dysfunction and chronic pain. The signs and symptoms of OA are joint pain, stiffness, swelling, crepitus, and restricted joint range of motion.
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2. What are the major signaling molecules that originate away
from the brain that stimulate hunger and satiety (feeling full),
respectively? (b) What part of the brain responds to these
hormones?
- The major signaling molecules that originate away from the brain and stimulate hunger are ghrelin and neuropeptide Y (NPY), while the major signaling molecules that stimulate satiety are leptin and peptide YY (PYY).
- The part of the brain that responds to these hormones is the hypothalamus.
The major signaling molecules that originate away from the brain and stimulate hunger are ghrelin and neuropeptide Y (NPY). Ghrelin is produced in the stomach and acts on the hypothalamus to increase appetite. NPY is a neurotransmitter that is released in various parts of the brain to stimulate hunger.
On the other hand, the major signaling molecules that stimulate satiety (feeling full) are leptin and peptide YY (PYY). Leptin is produced by adipose tissue and acts on the hypothalamus to suppress appetite and increase energy expenditure. PYY is released by cells in the gastrointestinal tract in response to food intake and helps reduce appetite.
The hypothalamus is the part of the brain that responds to these hormones. It plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and energy balance by receiving and integrating signals from these hormones and other factors such as glucose levels and adiposity. The hypothalamus then coordinates the appropriate responses to regulate hunger and satiety.
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Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons can be found in a. None of these b. Cervical spinal segments c. Autonomic ganglion d. Cranial nerve nuclei
Option c autonomic ganglion is correct. Autonomic ganglion is a cluster of nerve cell bodies that innervates the smooth muscle and glands of the body.
The autonomic ganglion is a cluster of nerve cells controlling muscles and glands in the body with its cell bodies. Autonomic ganglia control smooth muscle and gland function in the body through clusters of nerve cell bodies.
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Select the various types of sensors used for the homeostatic regulation of respiration
O Baroreceptors O Thermoreceptors O Mechanoreceptors O Chemoreceptors
The sensors that are used for the homeostatic regulation of respiration include baroreceptors, thermoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, and chemoreceptors.
Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They respond to changes in blood pressure by sending signals to the medulla oblongata in the brain, which in turn sends signals to the heart and blood vessels to adjust blood pressure.
Thermoreceptors are specialized nerve endings that respond to changes in temperature. They are located in the skin, organs, and hypothalamus. When they sense a change in temperature, they send signals to the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature.
Mechanoreceptors are specialized cells that respond to mechanical stimuli such as pressure, tension, or vibration. They are found in the skin, muscles, joints, and internal organs. When they are stimulated, they send signals to the brain to provide information about the body's position and movement.
Chemoreceptors are specialized cells that respond to changes in chemical composition. They are found in the carotid and aortic bodies, which are located near the carotid and aortic arteries. They respond to changes in the levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH in the blood and send signals to the brain to adjust respiration to maintain homeostasis.
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4- When we carry a load in a DC system to a distance of 100 meters with a cable with a resistivity of R=0.1 Ohm/meter, the power loss is [P-4,000W. Since the supply voltage of this load is V=1.000 Volt, find the power of the load?
The power of the load is 4,900 watts.
The power of the load is 4,900 watts.
Let us use the formula P = V² / R to find the power of the load, where:
P = power of the load in watts
V = supply voltage in volts
R = resistivity of cable in ohms/meter
L = length of cable in meters
According to the problem, the resistivity of the cable is R = 0.1 ohm/meter and the length of the cable is L = 100 meters. Therefore, the resistance of the cable is R_total = R × L = 0.1 × 100 = 10 ohms.The power loss is given as P_loss = 4,000 watts. Therefore, the power of the load can be found as:P = V² / R_total + P_lossP = (1,000)² / 10 + 4,000P = 4,900 watts
Therefore, the power of the load is 4,900 watts.
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