the patient diagnosed with anemia had laboratory tests done. which results indicate a lack of nutrients needed to produce new red blood cells (rbcs)? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Answer 1

Lower than normal hemoglobin levels indicate anemia. The normal hemoglobin range is generally defined as 13.2 to 16.6 grams (g) of hemoglobin per deciliter (dL) of blood for men and 11.6 to 15 g/dL for women

What is Anemia ?

Your body receives insufficient amounts of oxygen-rich blood if you have anemia. You may experience fatigue or weakness due to a lack of oxygen. Additionally, you might experience headaches, lightheadedness, or breathing difficulties.

Blood-related conditions, such as iron deficiency anemia, can be diagnosed using the results of an RBC count. A vitamin B6, B12, or folate deficiency could also be indicated by a low RBC count.

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fill in the blank. carlos has always functioned well but shows symptoms of schizophrenia for one to six months without the restricted affect. his prognosis is good, but he will most likely be diagnosed as having __ disorder.

Answers

Carlos has always functioned well but shows symptoms of schizophrenia for 1-6 months without the restricted affect. His prognosis is good but he will most likely be diagnosed as having schizophreniform disorder.

What is schizophreniform disorder?

Schizophreniform disorder is one in which the person will present symptoms of schizophrenia for a limited time between 1-6 months. It does not always precede schizophrenia. Among the symptoms we find delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech and inappropriate motor behaviors.

This can occur as a consequence of some substance abuse or correlated with a medical condition. There is also a prevalence in people with a family history of schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.

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which statement by a client would alert the nurse that the client is experiencing complicated grief?

Answers

"I just can't seem to let go of my loved one. I feel like I'm stuck in my grief and it won't ever end."

What do you mean by the term "Grief"?

Grief is an emotional response to loss, which can be caused by death, separation, or loss of something of great value. It is a natural, normal reaction to a significant loss, and can be experienced both physically and emotionally. Grief can be short-term or long-term, and is often accompanied by feelings of sadness, guilt, and anger.

The above underlined statement would alert the nurse that the client is experiencing complicated grief.

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researchers wanted to evaluate if the consumption of eggs increased cholesterol levels in older adults. 200 participants were randomly assigned to two groups: group a included one egg per day in their breakfast and no oatmeal consumption during 5 weeks of the trial, and group b included 40 g of oatmeal in their breakfast and no egg consumption during the same time. when those 5 weeks ended, the participants were asked to not consume any eggs or oatmeal for the next 3 weeks. after the 3 weeks passed, the participants in group a were switched to a breakfast with oatmeal but no eggs and the participants in group b were switched to a breakfast with eggs but no oatmeal for an additional 5 weeks. the cholesterol levels of the participants were measured at the beginning and end of each of the two 5-week dietary trials. participants were asked to maintain their physical activity levels and dietary patterns consistent throughout the duration of the study so that the only difference in the two trials was the consumption of oatmeal and/or eggs

Answers

The type of epidemiological study that was performed in this case was an observational analytic study. 

What is an epidemiological study?

The scientific, methodical, and data-driven study of the distribution and causes of health-related conditions and occurrences in specific populations is known as an epidemiology study. Epidemiologic work is classified into two types:

Descriptive studyAnalytic study

Each type of epidemiology study involves different types of methods. Descriptive studies look at disease occurrence patterns in terms of person, time, and place. There are three of the most basic types of this study, as follows:

A case seriesA case reportAn incidence study

In this method, there is no comparison group. In contrast, analytical studies are often larger and more complicated than descriptive studies. This method is often used to assess disease determinants, concentrate on risk factors and causes, and characterize the spread of exposures and diseases. The use of comparison groups is an important aspect of analytic studies.

The analytical studies have two main types, namely:

Experimental. A randomized selection procedure is used in experimental study. The random method is implemented to allocate study subjects to various exposure groups.Observational. Non-randomized studies are conducted as observational study. The investigator in this method does not allocate exposures to the study subjects but instead merely monitors exposure patterns as they occur.

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the nurse working with pediatric clients knows the importance of checking for developmental delays, which not only slow the child's progress but also are often associated with what?

Answers

Developmental delays might hinder a child's ability to acquire positive self-esteem in addition to slowing down their progress.

What age range is deemed pediatric?

Pediatric patients are those who are under the age of 21 at the time of their diagnosis or treatment, according to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act). Subgroups of children are further divided into the following categories: newborns and their first 28 days of life are referred to as neonates.

pediatric really just mean kids?

Pediatrics is the area of medicine that deals with the wellbeing and medical treatment of newborns, young children, and teenagers from the age of birth to the age of 18. The Greek words "pais" (meaning "child") and "iatros" (meaning "doctor or healer") are combined to form the word "pediatrics," which means "healer of children."

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a nurse is completing an abdominal assessment on a client suspected to have appendicitis. when the nurse applies and then releases pressure in the client's right lower quadrant, the client experiences tenderness. the nurse is documenting the presence of:

Answers

The nurse is jotting down any rebound discomfort that she notices.

Which side effect could a client with malabsorption syndrome experience?

Complications. Depending on how serious the underlying illness is, malabsorption-related consequences can arise. Malnutrition, weight loss, and even failure to flourish are all consequences of malabsorption in many people. In addition, a person may suffer from poor immune function, sluggish energy levels, and reduced wound healing.

Which medication should a client who is constipated receive from the nurse?

Docusate is a popular over-the-counter stool softener that is commonly used in medical settings. Docusate stimulates the flow of water and lipids into the stool, softening it and promoting regular bowel motions.

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a client is chronically short of breath and yet has normal lung ventilation, clear lungs, and an arterial oxygen saturation sao2 of 96% or better. the client most likely has

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The client most likely has a possible hematologic problem.

What is hematologic problem ?

Hematologic disorders affect the blood and affect the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, white blood cells, platelets, and lymph nodes. There are many disorders that children can develop, some are inherited, while others are acquired.

Hematologic diseases, in addition to blood cell cancers, include anemia, HIV-related conditions, sickle cell disease, rare genetic disorders, complications from chemotherapy, and transfusion-related illnesses.

The complete blood count, or CBC, is among the most popular haematology tests. Anemia, clotting issues, blood cancers, immune system disorders, and infections can all be found during this test, which is frequently performed as part of a routine examination.

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During preshock, the compensatory stage of shock, the body, through sympathetic nervous system stimulation, will release catecholamines to shunt blood from one organ to another. Which of the following organs will always be protected?
Brain

Answers

During preshock, the body will release catecholamines to shunt blood from one organ to another through sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The organ that will always be protected is the brain.

Preshock is an isolated hypotension or hypoperfusion. During preshock, the body experiences low blood volume but is still able to maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion. It's done by increasing the heart rate and constricting the blood vessels. Some signs of preshock include anxiety, clammy skin, nausea, thirst, and narrowing pulse pressure.

Generally, the first organ that's affected is the skin, followed by visceral organs. The noble organs of the brain and heart would be the last organ to get affected by a shock.

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TRUE/FALSE/ in the american heart association journal hypertension, researchers report that individuals who practice transcendental meditation (tm) lower their blood pres- sure significantly.

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

flush the injection port with 10 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride solution. b. administer the intermittent iv bolus medication through the injection port. c. clamp the intravenous tubing proximal to the injection port. d. stop the continuous iv infusion.

Answers

An IV piggyback delivers medication to the body through a small bag which can later be removed without changing the main IV. Thus, option C is correct.

What is IV infusion?

The process of delivering medicines in the body through vein is referred as Intravenous (IV) infusion. It is a special way of injecting the medicines directly into the blood stream.

There are different ports through which the IV can be administered. It can be given by inserting a catheter in a vein, in the muscle or under the subcutaneous layer.

Thus, IV infusion delivers medication at a faster rate in the body.An IV piggyback delivers medication to the body through a small bag which can later be removed without changing the main IV. Thus, option C is correct.

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the nurse is conducting a health screening clinic and is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client using a snellen chart. the nurse educates the client about the procedure. which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Answers

The client indicates that the teaching has been effective "I will stand 20 feet away from the chart and read the letters aloud."

What is teaching?
The terms "teaching" and "teacher" are frequently associated with education and schools in modern usage. One method of answering the question "What is teaching?" is to observe what those who go by the title of "teachers" do, then identify the distinctive traits or behaviours that make them unique. The issue is that a variety of things—some of which may not even have much to do with what we can logically refer to as teaching—are bundled together and in job descriptions or roles. Another option is to consult dictionaries and look up the term's historical as well as common usage definitions.

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the nurse is assessing a 12-hour-old infant with a maternal history of frequent alcohol consumption during pregnancy. which finding should the nurse report that is most suggestive of fetal alcohol syndrome (fas)?

Answers

The nurse should report that is most suggestive of fetal alcohol syndrome is the Flat nasal bridge.

The FASD spectrum's most complex end is represented by FAS. FAS patients experience issues with their central nervous systems (CNS), minor facial traits, and growth. Learning, memory, attention span, communication, vision, and hearing issues can all occur in FAS patients.

A series of illnesses known as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders can affect a person whose mother drank alcohol while she was pregnant.

There are three distinct facial anomalies: slender upper lip, smooth philtrum (the region between the nose and the upper lip), and tiny palpebral fissures (the horizontal eye openings) Growth shortfall (lower than average height, weight, or both).

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the ancient greeks believed that the balance of four humors was what caused sickness or health in a person. explain what they thought was wrong with (a) a melancholic person and (b) one with too much phlegm.

Answers

It was once believed that depressed people had too much melancholy, which is described as "black bile" released from the spleen.

Phlegmatic individuals were deemed to have an excessive amount of phlegm,

People who were high in phlegm lacked enthusiasm and were indifferent, dull, and sluggish. Phlegmatic personalities were treated by avoiding foods like cucumber, lettuce, and fish that were considered insipid or flavourless in favour of choleric foods like capers, olives, garlic, onions, parsley, and other salty and bitter foods. Black bile was thought to indicate a sad disposition. It was said to be connected to the fall and to be created in the brain. People who were considered melancholic were supposed to be overly depressed and grumpy, which may have been a description of what is today known as depression. Lemons and vinegar were among the sour foods that were thought to bring on melancholy. People who were melancholic were advised to stay away from these items and consume sanguine foods instead, such as lamb, butter, sugar, basil, and other sweet things. Another method of treating melancholy was purging, which typically required taking laxatives.

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a client diagnosed with aids develops pneumocystis pneumonia (pcp). when planning the care for the client, which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed?

Answers

Typically, doctors use TMP/SMX, also known as trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, to treat pneumocystis pneumonia (Bactrim, Cotrim, Septra).

What is pneumocystis pneumonia ?

The fungus Pneumocystis jirovecii is the source of the dangerous infection known as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). The majority of PCP users have a medical condition like HIV/AIDS or take medications like corticosteroids that make it harder for their bodies to fight infection and disease.

The most typical signs of PCP include chest pain, a rapid onset of fever, coughing, wheezing that frequently gets worse with exertion, a dry cough with little to no mucus, and problems breathing. An IV of antibiotics is frequently used in hospitals to treat severe PCP (intravenously or into a vein).

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a client asks if having a hemicolectomy means wearing a pouch and having bowel movements in an abnormal way. which response by the nurse is accurate

Answers

Since the client asks if having a hemicolectomy means wearing a pouch and having bowel movements in an abnormal way. The response by the nurse that is accurate  is option  4 "No, only part of the colon is removed and the rest reattached."

What is hemicolectomy?

A colostomy is not required for hemicolectomy, which is the removal of a portion of the colon with an anastomosis between the ileum and transverse colon. In contrast to a hemicolectomy, which involves resecting a section of the intestine and reconnecting its ends, a colostomy involves opening the intestine on the abdomen.

Hence, A temporary colostomy is defined as "yes, but it will be temporary until the colitis is cured"; a cure is only possible with the removal of the entire colon. Colectomy with colostomy is just one possible intervention that may be utilized to treat a tumor; a colostomy is performed for a variety of reasons other than tumors.

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See options below

1

"Yes, hemicolectomy is the same as a colostomy."

2

"Yes, but it will be temporary until the colitis is cured."

3

"No, that is necessary when a tumor is blocking the rectum."

4

"No, only part of the colon is removed and the rest reattached."

a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken haloperidol (haldol) 5 mg po bid for 3 weeks. the nurse now observes a shuffling, propulsive gait, a mask-like face, and drooling. which term applies to these symptoms?

Answers

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has taken haloperidol (haldol) 5 mg po bid for 3 weeks. the nurse now observes a shuffling, propulsive gait, a mask-like face, and drooling which is denoted by term: an acute dystonic reaction.

A condition that impairs a person's capacity for clear thought, feeling, and behavior.

Although the precise etiology of schizophrenia is unknown, a number of factors, including genetics, environment, and altered brain chemistry and structure, may be at play.

The symptoms of schizophrenia include disorganized speech or behavior, disorganized thoughts or experiences, and diminished participation in daily activities. Memory loss and attention problems could also be present.

Treatment is typically ongoing and frequently consists of a mix of prescription drugs, psychotherapy, and well-coordinated specialty care services.

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what are the health problems that require medical evaluation prior to beginning an exercise program?

Answers

Answer:

You have heart disease. You have type 1 or type 2 diabetes. You have kidney disease.

Explanation:

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding?
Select one:
A. Position the patient with his injured side down
B. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis
C. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure
D. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport

Answers

Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure, this is most likely to control the bleeding.

What are hemostatic agents?

An antihemorrhagic agent is a chemical that promotes hemostasis (also known as stopping the flow of blood). A hemostatic agent is another name for this substance. Antihemorrhagic drugs that are used in medicine have a variety of different modes of action, including the following: The mechanism of action of systemic medicines is either to inhibit fibrinolysis or to promote coagulation.

The application of topical hemostatic agents is required in emergency situations involving trauma when massive external bleeding cannot be controlled by direct pressure and/or with the use of a tourniquet (i.e., when bleeding occurs in locations that are not amenable to tourniquet placement, such as the abdomen, groin, or chest. Plasma that has been dried, fibrinogen concentration (FC), tranexamic acid, dry and synthetic platelets are some examples.

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the nurse is caring for a client with renal failure. which factor indicates a compromised immune system?

Answers

The factor  that indicates a compromised immune system is a deficiency of circulating lymphocytes.

So option A is correct.

What is immune system?

The immune system is described as a network of special cells, tissues, proteins, and organs that work together to protect the body from potentially damaging foreign invaders.

Renal failure is associated with a deficiency in circulating lymphocytes, which make up a large part of the immune system. Renal failure is not associated with excess lymphocytes, deficient circulating antibodies, or excess hemoglobin.

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The complete question is:  

The nurse is caring for a client with renal failure. Which factor indicates a compromised immune system?

A) A deficiency of circulating lymphocytes

B) An excess of circulating lymphocytes

C) A deficiency of circulating antibodies

D) An excess of circulating hemoglobin

a client with septic arthritis of the knee is admitted to the orthopedic floor. the nurse should consult the case manager if which complication occurs during hospitalization?

Answers

The nurse should consult the case manager if Mobility decreases during hospitalization

What is septic arthritis ?

Septic arthritis is a painful joint infection that can be caused by microbes that enter your bloodstream from another area of your body. Septic arthritis can also develop when an invasive wound, like an animal bite or trauma, introduces germs into the joint.

Joint pain, swelling, redness, warmth, and fever are a few of the symptoms. To reduce the risk of joint damage, prompt antibiotic treatment is required. A splint, physical therapy, joint drainage, and painkillers for fever and pain are some additional treatments.

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Process of filling a root canal is

Answers

Endodontic Procedure in Steps, The endodontist creates a hole in the tooth's crown. To remove the pulp from the pulp chamber and root canals and to prepare the area for filling, very small devices are employed.

What is Endodontic Procedure?

A root canal is thoroughly cleaned and shaped inside by the endodontist before being filled and sealed. The inflamed or infected pulp is then extracted. After that, you will visit your dentist again, and they will give the tooth protection and restore its full functionality by placing a crown or other repair on it.

procedures and endodontic therapiestherapy for root canals.retreatment of the endodontic procedure.endingodontic surgery.teeth-related trauma.tooth implants.

Dental pulp and the tissues that surround a tooth's roots are the focus of endodontics, a subspecialty of dentistry. Inside and tooth are both referred to in Greek as "endo" and "odont," respectively. The delicate pulp tissue inside the tooth is treated through endodontic, or root canal, therapy.

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methylphenidate hydrochloride has been prescribed for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. the nurse should make which statements to the child's parents? select all that apply.

Answers

Methylphenidate hydrochloride has been prescribed for a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder therefore the nurse should tell the child's parents to monitor your child's weight twice a week.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complication.

Methylphenidate hydrochloride may cause weight loss due to its appetite-suppressant effects and shouldn't be taken before sleep as it causes insomnia in most users.

This is therefore the reason why it is best to monitor the child's weight twice a week so as to prevent him/her from being underweight by providing more nutrients needed for the body's optimal functioning.

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which client should be assigned to the traveling nurse, new to neurologic nursing care, who has been on the neurologic unit for a few weeks

Answers

The client whose health is condition is stable and not much complex should be assigned to the traveling nurse, new to neurologic nursing care, who has been on the neurologic unit for a few weeks.

What is neurologic nursing care?

The field of neurology, often known as neuroscience nursing, focuses on preventing and managing diseases of the nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. When a patient has a brain or nervous system problem, such as Alzheimer's, a stroke, or a brain injury, a neuroscience nurse helps them recover or figure out how to manage their condition. Neurologists are medical professionals that focus on treating conditions affecting the muscles, nerves, and spinal cord. Epilepsy, stroke, multiple sclerosis (MS), and Parkinson's disease are examples of neurological diseases. Medication therapy, which is frequently the main course of action. treatment for illnesses such as stroke, traumatic brain injury, and others. Rehabilitation from neurological diseases may involve physical or occupational therapy. Spinal taps and myelography, which involves imaging the spine, are simple diagnostic procedures.

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a client with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes has just been informed that an amputation of the lower leg is required. the nurse can anticipate that the client will experience a reaction to the loss of which human need according to maslow's hierarchy?

Answers

According to Maslow's hierarchy, the client will have a physiological response to the loss from which human need.

What kind of work does a nurse do?

Registered nurses (RNs) deliver and oversee patient care, inform the public regarding various health issues, and offer patients' families emotional support and advice. The majority of nurses work together with doctors in a diverse settings.

How long are nurses living?

According to research published in a working paper by the Bureau of Economic Research, persons who have access to informal health knowledge—such as have a nurse or physician in the family—are 10% more likely to live past the age of 80.

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why are injections administered in the hypodermis when administering drugs using a hypodermic needle?

Answers

Injections administered in the hypodermis when administering drugs using a hypodermic needle because it is vascularized, the hypodermis can absorb a lot of fluid.

The innermost layer of skin is referred to as subcutaneous tissue or hypodermis. Larger blood arteries and nerves are contained inside its composition of fat and connective tissues. As an insulator, it aids in controlling body temperature. This subcutaneous layer's thickness varies not only from person to person but also throughout the body.

The limited network of blood arteries in the subcutaneous tissue means that drugs administered here are gradually absorbed over time. As a result, they make an excellent medication delivery system. The hypodermis is where many drugs are injected because of this.

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the nurse is admitting a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder whose compulsion is washing hands. what should the nurse explain to the client?

Answers

The nurse is admitting a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder whose compulsion is washing hands. The nurse should explain about exposure therapy to the patient and take the assessment to witness any kind of medical history.

What is the most common site of bacteria ?

The most common site of bacteria to reside is the hands and 70% of the bacteria lives on hands.

Exposure therapy is technique used by doctors  to help people overcome fears and anxieties by taking the breaks in  the pattern of fear and avoidance.

It works by exposing you to a stimulus that causes fear in a safe environment. For example, a person with social anxiety may avoid going to crowded areas or parties.

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incorporating movements like slow controlled arm circles, bodyweight squats and lunges, and slow torso rotations within the movement prep phase of the class are most likely used for what purpose?

Answers

Incorporate exercises like bodyweight lunges and squats, slow torso rotations, and slow arm circles to increase static flexibility.

Which metabolic system is primarily responsible for producing the energy needed for quick, powerful explosions?

A lot of muscle power must be created during brief, intense actions, which places a significant demand on ATP. Regardless of intensity, the phosphagen system is active at the beginning of all types of training since it is the quickest way to resynthesize ATP.

Stronger ligaments and tendons are a benefit of exercise, which benefit?

Bone strength is correlated with muscular strength through exercise. As the body is better able to react to falls or additional weight, injuries are less likely when there are strong muscles, tendons, ligaments, and bones.

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a postpartum patient has just delivered twins after a prolonged labor. which complication should the nurse watch for closely in the next 24 hours?

Answers

A postpartum patient who just gave birth to twins after a protracted labor should be thoroughly monitored for uterine atony complications over the course of the following 24 hours.

How long after giving birth is you considered postpartum?

Most experts agree that the postpartum period starts when the baby is born. The end is less well defined, however it is frequently thought to occur six to eight weeks following delivery because by then the effects of pregnancy on many systems have mostly gone back to their pre-pregnancy states.

what are Following a woman's delivery, what happens?

The majority of new mothers have postnatal "baby blues" after giving birth, which commonly include mood swings, sobbing outbursts, anxiety, and difficulty sleeping. The first two to three days after delivery are when baby blues often appear, and they can last for up to two weeks.

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he nurse is caring for a client who is in the third stage of labor. which behaviors by the client does the nurse assess as expected at this stage? select all that apply.

Answers

The correct answers regarding nurse assess is :

The client is focused on the neonate's condition.

The client states she has discomfort from uterine contractions.

What happens in the third stage of labor ?

The client concentrates on the newborn's condition during the third stage of childbirth.

She may also claim that she is uncomfortable from uterine contractions before the placenta is thrown out.

The initial phase of labor is characterized by excitement and trepidation.

The second stage of labor is frequently marked by exhaustion.

Before giving birth, at the end of the second stage of labor, when the fetus is pressing on the rectum, the urge to urinate is noticed.

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peter has the flu and is hoping the doctor will give him high-dose antibiotics so he can soon feel better. which statement best describes what peter should understand about antibiotics and the flu?

Answers

Because antibiotics are only effective against bacteria, they cannot cure the flu.

Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat or prevent certain types of bacterial infections. They either destroy germs or hinder their reproduction and spread. Antibiotics have little effect on viral infections. This includes the common cold, the flu, and the majority of coughs and sore throats.

The flu is an illness of the respiratory system's nose, throat, and lungs. The flu is a common term for influenza, however it is not the same as stomach "flu" viruses that cause diarrhea and vomiting.

The majority of flu patients recover on their own. However, influenza and its consequences might be fatal at times.

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the nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome. what portion of arterial blood gas results does the nurse find most concerning, requiring intervention?

Answers

The section of arterial blood gas findings that the nurse finds most alarming and necessitates intervention is partial pressure o arterial oxygen (PaO2) of 69 mm Hg.

What level of arterial oxygen is considered normal?

75 to 100 millimeters of mercury would be considered normal arterial oxygen (mm Hg). Values lower than 60 mm Hg typically signal the requirement for more oxygen. 95 to 100 percent is the typical range for normal pulse oximetry results. Low values are defined as those below 90%.

How can you assess arterial oxygen levels?

Oxygen saturation can be determined with a pulse oximeter. It is a covert gadget that is put over a person's finger. To calculate the proportion of oxygenated to deoxygenated hemoglobin at the moment, light wavelengths are measured. In medicine, the use of pulse oximetry has evolved into the norm.

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jupiter has three moons for which there is evidence of a global, subsurface ocean of liquid water, with the strongest evidence favoring an ocean on blank. What is irony bring out the elements of irony in the story?. Cari is a system administrator for an organization that has been seeing large amounts of growth but has multiple legacy systems running on older hardware. There is a concern that there is not much physical space left in the data center. Her manager has asked her to come up with a way that the company could continue to expand the ability to deliver services to end users without having to grow into another data center. Which of the following might be a component of Cari's plan?a. VPNb. MTBFc. Hypervisord. Leased Line solar photovoltaic energy is highly versatile and can be used in a variety of dispersed settings. which of the following would not be a good location to harness large amounts of this form of energy? FILL IN THE BLANK. ___ is the instinctual and unorganized part of personality whose sole purpose is to reduce tension created by primitive drives related to hunger, sex, aggression, and irrational impulses. Can you discount alcohol in Texas?. Find the volume of the solid generated by revolving the region bounded by y = xand y = x-3x about the x axis Exogenous antigen can be taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis, processed, and presented to T cells on their surface by these. a) MHC I molecules; b) MHC II molecules; c) interleukin 2 molecules; d) tumor necrosis factor alpha; e) interferon gamma A cubical block of mass m and side 'a' is moving horizontally on a smooth horizontal surface with a velocity v 0. The block collides with a ridge P and starts rotating about P. Find the minimum value of v 0needed to overcome the ridge. if we connect two diodes in series pointing in opposite direction, we can still get the output of the circuit. he nurse identifies several nursing problems for a client with tetraplegia who is experiencing fecal incontinence and diarrhea. the client's spouse is the primary caregiver. in planning care, which identified nursing problem has the highest priority? When dribbling a basketball; what part of hand do you use and how high should the ball be dribbled (Basketball)? Refer to the figure below. Which of the following statements is TRUE for a sample moving from point A to point B on the diagram?Choose one:A. The sample heats up.B. The sample begins to melt due to decompression.C. The sample stays at the same depth within the Earth.D. The sample does not change its physical state because its temperature has not changed.Answer: D Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions. in the figure above, what letter corresponds to the light-sensitive surface of the eye that contains photoreceptors? A cedar raft is 2. 4 m wide, 0. 30 m high, and 3. 0 m long. What is the maximum load (in newtons) the raft can support? Assume the density of cedar to be 598 kg/m^3 and ignore the volume of the load The half-life of Radium-226 is 1590 years. If a sample contains 200 mg}, how many mg will remain after 1000 years?_________mgGive your answer accurate to at least 2 decimal places. Does an X or y-axis scale have to always start at zero?. which of the following is the best definition of a business model? group of answer choices a program or calculation that estimates the value the company generates based on a set of inputs a short narrative that tells the story of the organization, including why it was founded a map of the activities of the organization the rationale of how an organization creates, delivers, and captures value. next How does the setting influence characterization in the text?.