For the purposes of this recommendation, a head injury is any trauma to the head other than minor facial wounds. In the UK, head injuries are the leading cause of mortality and disability for people ages 1 to 40. In England and Wales, 1.4 million people visit emergency rooms each year after suffering a recent head injury.
Children under the age of 15 make up between 33% and 50% of this group. Every year, over 200,000 patients with brain injuries are admitted to hospitals. One-fifth of them have characteristics that point to a skull fracture or show signs of brain injury. Most patients recover without specialised care or assistance, but some suffer long-term disabilities or even pass away as a result of problems that might have been reduced or prevented with early diagnosis and treatment.
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functional foods are fruits and vegetables that carry a vast array of which may function to protect human health as antioxidants, phytoestrogens and anti-inflammatory agents. which term best fits the blank?
Functional foods are fruits and vegetables that carry a vast array of phytochemicals which may function to protect human health as antioxidants, phytoestrogens and anti-inflammatory agents.
Phytochemicals are also called phytonutrients. They are potentially helpful compounds found in plant foods. They may also help prevent chronic diseases which also include cancer.
Phytonutrients can be found in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, nuts and seeds. But the type and quantity of phytochemicals vary in different plants.
Some foods which are high in phytochemicals include broccoli, berries, soynuts, pears, turnips, celery, carrots and spinach.
Nutrition researchers evaluate that more than 4,000 phytochemicals have been recognized, but only about 150 have been studied in depth.
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what is the most common means of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
a nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (crf) have low erythrocyte counts. which response by the nurse is correct? a. 1cdamage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss. 1d b. 1cdialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells. 1d c. 1cerythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys. 1d d. 1cpatients with crf are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin b12. 1d
A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Option C. "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys.", is the response by the nurse is correct.
Erythropoietin is normally produced by peritubular cells in the kidney's proximal tubules, however it is not produced in CRF patients. Erythropoietin enhances red blood cell (RBC) formation; thus, its absence compromises RBC production. Low blood counts in persons with CRF are not caused by blood loss in injured renal tubules. Dialysis has no effect on low blood counts. Patients with CRF are not more likely to be iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12 deficient.
Chronic renal failure (CRF) or chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined as a long-term reduction in renal clearance or glomerular filtration that results in permanent kidney failure. According to the Kidney Disease Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO) declaration, CKD is defined as either kidney damage or a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
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Complete question is:
A nursing student asks a nurse why patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) have low erythrocyte counts. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Damage to the renal tubules increases serum blood loss."
b. "Dialysis accelerates the breakdown of red blood cells."
c. "Erythropoietin is no longer produced by cells in the kidneys."
d. "Patients with CRF are deficient in iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12."
the nurse in the prenatal clinic is teaching a client who is a vegetarian how to avoid iron-deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. which food choice by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
An iron shortage may be the cause of anemia among meat-free vegetarians. Anemia can also be brought on by a vitamin B12 shortage among vegans, her vegetarian diet needs further instructions to avoid anemia.
Lack of iron in the human body, This indicates that your diet is deficient in iron. Iron is required for the hemoglobin in your red blood cells to transport oxygen.
The most typical sign of anemia is fatigue, however many individuals have moderate anemia without realizing it. Combining these iron-rich meals with those high in vitamin C is a good idea since vitamin C aids in the body's use of iron.
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methylprednisolone was ordered at 30 mg/kg. if the patient weighs 44 lb, what dose of methylprednisolone will she receive?
If the patient weighs 44 lb, 1,320 mg dose of methylprednisolone she will receive.
Methylprednisolone is a synthetic glucocorticoid used to treat inflammation and immunosuppression. It is either taken at modest dosages for chronic conditions or at high doses concurrently during acute flares.
It treats some types of arthritis, skin, blood, kidney, eye, thyroid, and intestinal problems (e.g., colitis), severe allergies, and asthma by reducing inflammation (swelling, heat, redness, and discomfort). Certain forms of cancer are also treated with methylprednisolone. Methylprednisolone treatment at high doses can cause liver damage. The withdrawal of methylprednisolone is required for the normalization of liver function tests. The liver harm caused by methylprednisolone may be due to a transitory immunological rebound.
The complete question is:
Methylprednisolone was ordered at 30 mg/kg. If the patient weighs 44 lb, what dose of methylprednisolone will she receive?
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What is in grapefruit that interacts with medications?
A crucial enzyme called CYP3A4 is involved in the small intestine's role in the metabolism (drug breakdown) of many medications. As a result, more of the medication reaches the bloodstream and is retained longer by the body rather than being digested by intestinal CYP3A4. Too much medication in your body as a result.
Therefore, grapefruit should not be taken with medications such as satin, cytotoxic medicines, anticoagulants etc.
a patient is receiving bethanechol at 0900. at which time does the nurse anticipate the onset of action for the drug?
Bethanechol is normally most effective on the bladder and GI tract 60 to 90 minutes after oral administration, while effects might start to show as soon as 30 minutes after delivery.
What is the drug bethanechol used for?Certain bladder or urinary tract problems are treated with bethanechol. It aids in causing urine and bladder emptying. Your doctor may prescribe bethanechol for further ailments. Only with a prescription from your doctor is bethanechol accessible. Specifically stimulating muscarinic receptors while having no impact on nicotinic receptors, bethanechol is a parasympathomimetic choline carbamate. Because bethanechol is not degraded by cholinesterase like acetylcholine is, it acts for a longer period of time.There may be symptoms such as sweating, flushing, wet eyes, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain or cramps, diarrhoea, increased salivation or urine, or headaches. Inform your doctor or pharmacist as soon as possible if any of these side effects persist or get worse.
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a nurse caring for a client with diarrhea needs to establish an intravenous (iv) access to administer fluids and medication. when explaining intravenous access to the client, what would the nurse most likely incorporate into the description?
When explaining intravenous access to the client, the nurse most likely would incorporate the insertion of a catheter into a peripheral vein into the description.
Intravenous access, often shorten as IV access, is a procedure in which a cannula is placed inside a vein to provide access to the veins. It is mainly used to administer fluid, medication, parenteral nutrition, blood products, and even chemotherapy.
IV access allows faster resuscitation when doing those things mentioned above. The rapid and quality resuscitation it gives allows the pitfalls of hemorrhage. Peripheral venous cannulation is the most commonly to be used, especially for administering fluids and medication.
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How is receptor-mediated endocytosis different from phagocytosis?
the nurse instructs an adolescent on the hazards of body piercings and tattoos. which outcome indicates that teaching has been effective?
The outcome which indicates that teaching has been effective is the patient refuses to get eyebrow pierced with girl friends.
The patient refuses to get her eyebrows pierced in front of her pals, indicating that the education against body piercings and tattoos was effective. Having a tattoo or piercing in a specific bodily place implies that education was ineffective.
Anybody thinking about getting a tattoo or getting a body piercing should be informed of the hazards if necessary measures and aftercare are not taken. Major skin, blood, and bone infections, hepatitis C, and other long-term problems are among the hazards.
Environmental protection authorities have indicated that tattoos are extremely carcinogenic. Heavy metals, specifically cadmium, lead, mercury, antimony, beryllium, and arsenic, are linked to cancer, neurological illnesses, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disease, lungs, kidneys, liver, endocrine disease, and bone disease.
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A client has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit. The client will be unable to return home following discharge. Which environment would be most appropriate for the client?1.Most restrictive2.Least restrictive3.Nursing home4.Transitional care unit
For a client that has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit, the most appropriate environment would be the least restrictive environment. Therefore, the correct answer is the option 2.
An inpatient unit is a section of a hospital or medical facility where patients are admitted for treatment and stay overnight or for longer periods of time. For a client that has lived independently prior to being admitted to an inpatient unit, they would likely benefit from an environment that allows them to maintain as much independence and autonomy as possible.
A nursing home (option 3) or a transitional care unit (option 4) may be more restrictive than necessary for this client. It is always best to provide care in the least restrictive environment that is appropriate for the client's needs.
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when assessing hydration in an adult patient, the nurse will: a. pinch a fold of skin just below the midpoint of one of the clavicles and allow the skin to recoil to normal. b. pinch a fold of skin on the abdomen and observe for recoil to normal. c. pinch a fold of skin on the calf and observe for recoil normal. d. pinch a fold of skin on the forehead and allow for the skin to recoil in children.
Pinching your skin lightly, typically on your arm or abdomen, is the primary method of determining your skin's turgor. Dehydration can be the cause if the skin recovers more slowly than usual. This approach isn't very accurate, though. Your skin becomes less elastic as you age, which results in inadequate skin turgor.
As a result, even if they are not dehydrated, an older person's skin may take 20 seconds to recover to normal. Additionally, a 2015 review discovered that skin turgor wasn't a highly reliable indicator of dehydration in adults over 65 on its own. Rehydrating is all that's usually needed in cases of inadequate skin turgor. Drinking some water usually helps you recover from mild dehydration. But more serious conditions can call for intravenous infusions. Some kids find it to be simpler.
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Calculate how many mL you will dispense for the following prescription.
Magic Mouthwash
Swish and spit 15 mL po q4h x 12 days
Select one:
a.180
b.360
c.720
d.1,080
D. 1,080 mL you will dispense for the prescription: Swish and spit 15 mL po q4h x 12 days.
The prescription indicates that the patient should take 15 mL of Magic Mouthwash by mouth every 4 hours for 12 days. To calculate the total amount of Magic Mouthwash that the patient will need, we need to know how many doses the patient will take in 12 days.
There are 24 hours in a day, so if the patient takes the mouthwash every 4 hours, they will take it 24/4 = 6 times per day.
To calculate the total number of doses in 12 days, we multiply 6 doses per day by 12 days, which equals 72 doses.
To calculate the total amount of Magic Mouthwash required, we multiply the number of doses (72) by the amount of each dose (15 mL), which equals 1,080 mL.
Therefore, the answer is d. 1,080.
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mary, a 24 year old college student, received her first and only hpv vaccine at the age of 14. what is true regarding receiving subsequent hpv vaccines?
Mary may complete the series regardless of vaccine manufacturer available is true regarding receiving subsequent HPV vaccines.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccinations are vaccines that protect against infection with certain strains of the human papillomavirus. There are HPV vaccines available that protect against two, four, or nine distinct types of HPV. All HPV vaccinations protect against at least HPV types 16 and 18, which are responsible for the majority of cervical cancer cases. There is strong evidence that vaccination of a substantial proportion of a community reduces HPV infection rates, with herd immunity playing a role.
HPV vaccines, along with other preventive measures, are recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) as part of regular immunizations in all countries. Vaccinating a big percentage of the population may assist the unvaccinated as well. HPV vaccinations are used to protect against HPV infection and, as a result, cervical cancer.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving amikacin for the treatment of a serious staphylococcus aureus infection. what assessment should the nurse prioritize?
When caring for a client who is receiving amikacin for the treatment of a serious Staphylococcus aureus infection, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's renal function.
Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that is primarily eliminated through the kidneys. As such, it can be toxic to the kidneys, and can cause nephrotoxicity, especially if given in high doses or for prolonged periods. To prevent nephrotoxicity, the nurse should monitor the client's renal function by checking urine output, serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels.
The nurse should also assess for signs of nephrotoxicity, such as decreased urine output, increased serum creatinine and BUN levels, and signs of fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
Other important assessments that the nurse should prioritize include monitoring for signs of ototoxicity (hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo) and ensuring that the client is well-hydrated to prevent kidney damage. The nurse should also assess for any signs of allergic reaction or adverse effects associated with the medication.
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alosetron hydrochloride
Therapeutic effect
Adverse effect
Contraindications
Reversal Agent
Answer:
Explanation:
Alosetron Hydrochloride is a medication used to treat irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) in women.
Therapeutic Effect:
The therapeutic effect of alosetron hydrochloride is achieved by reducing the discomfort, pain and diarrhea that is associated with IBS-D. This is done by slowing down the movement of stool through the colon, reducing the number of bowel movements, and improving the consistency of stool.
Adverse Effects:
The most common adverse effects of alosetron hydrochloride include constipation, abdominal pain and discomfort, nausea, and headaches. In rare cases, serious adverse effects such as ischemic colitis (a condition that occurs when blood flow to the colon is reduced) and severe constipation have been reported.
Contraindications:
Alosetron hydrochloride is contraindicated in individuals with severe constipation, and those who have had a history of ischemic colitis. It should not be used in patients with the condition of IBS with constipation (IBS-C), and those who have liver problems.
Reversal Agent:
There is no specific reversal agent for alosetron hydrochloride. If a patient experiences severe adverse effects such as ischemic colitis or severe constipation, discontinuation of the medication and appropriate medical treatment should be pursued.
a nurse should recognize which symptom as a cardinal sign of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A nurse should recognize polyuria as a cardinal sign of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Polyuria is an increase in the frequency of urination, which can be caused by excess glucose in the blood. This is a common symptom of type 1 diabetes mellitus, as the body attempts to rid itself of excess glucose through increased urination. Type 1 diabetes mellitus itself is a chronic condition that occurs when the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin. Other cardinal signs of type 1 diabetes mellitus include polydipsia (increased thirst) and polyphagia (increased hunger).
It is important for a nurse to recognize these symptoms in order to properly diagnose and treat a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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a patient with a cds is restless and frequently changes positions. as a result, the chest drainage tubing frequently develops multiple dependent loops. which action is the most appropriate
The most apropriate action in this situation would be to ensure that the chest drainage tubing is properly secured.
This can be done by securing the tubing to the case's apparel or coverlet with tape recording, securing the tubing to the case's skin with tape recording or glue, or securing the tubing to the bed frame by looping it around a bar.
The thing is to keep the tubing from sliding around too important and creating dependent circles, which can urine drainage from the chest and increase the threat of infection. also, icing that the case is comfortable and secure in the bed can help to reduce restlessness and limit their movement.
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pregnant patient presents to labor and delivery with the baby in a breech presentation. during the delivery the doctor attempts to turn the baby (version of the breech presentation) while it is still in the uterus. the baby turns but then immediately resumes his previous breech position. can this service (the version of the breech) be billed? if so, what is the code?
To move a baby from a breech position to a head-down position, a surgery known as external cephalic version, or ECV, is performed. It usually takes place around week 37 of pregnancy and increases your chances of giving birth vaginally.
Healthcare professionals will employ the external cephalic version (also known as ECV or EV) treatment to turn a new born from the breech position to the head-down position. A baby is said to be in a breech position when its feet or buttocks emerge first or lie horizontally across your uterus (called a transverse lie). During pregnancy, a baby regularly shifts positions. The majority of new born will turn to lie head-down at about 36 weeks of pregnancy. This occurs in your uterus when your baby gets ready to be born naturally. Head-down posture is referred to as cephalic or vertex presentation, and it's the preferred position for a vaginal birth.
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for which situation is palliative care appropriate?
Answer: Palliative care is a resource for anyone living with a serious illness, such as heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, cancer, dementia, Parkinson's disease, and many others. Palliative care can be helpful at any stage of illness and is best provided soon after a person is diagnosed.
Explanation:
Palliative care is appropriate in a situation in which people with serious illnesses are looking for relief from symptoms such as pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, constipation, nausea, loss of appetite, and difficulty sleeping.
Palliative care focuses on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of the illness, with the goal of improving the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care can be provided at any stage of an illness and can be used alongside other treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. It can also be used to manage chronic conditions, such as heart disease, lung disease, or dementia. Other than that, palliative care can also provide psychological, social, and spiritual support to the patient and their family.
Overall, palliative care is appropriate for any situation in which a patient needs support in managing the physical, emotional, and spiritual aspects of their illness.
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What are sociological approaches to health and medicine?
The sociological approaches to health and medicine are as follows:
1. Social epidemiology: This method examines how racial, ethnic, gender, and environmental exposures as well as socioeconomic status affect patterns of health and disease.
2. The Social Construction of Health and Illness: In this theory, we examine how cultural norms, values, and practices influence how we perceive health and illness.
3. Health Services Research: This method examines how various components of the health care system, including as provider networks, patient access, and payment schemes, affect health outcomes.
4. Medical anthropology: This method examines how social structures and cultural practises affect how people perceive and react to disease and medical treatment.
5. Health Policy: This strategy examines how laws, regulations, and public policies affecting health care affect health outcomes.
All of these sociological perspectives on health and medicine aid in advancing our knowledge of the ways in which societal variables might affect patterns of health and illness. In order to improve health outcomes, they can also assist in informing public health actions and policies.
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acillllllllllll cevap lütfen
When I am presenting something in class, I can't help to shake really badly and feel light-headed for no reason. Like I could feel so confident and prepared but still have really bad anxiety. How do I control my nerves when presenting??
this is something that will never completely go away. however, there are things you can do to help keep nerves under control.
try and focus on your material, instead of the audience. the audience is there to hear about your material, and their job is not to critique you. make sure you can't see the audience.
speak slowly. if you feel yourself starting to speak quickly, try to slow down and think clearly about word pronunciation.
another thing to try is to practice going over your material. this will make it easier to seem natural when presenting.
Answer:
There are several things you can do to control your nerves when presenting:
Practice: Practicing your presentation in front of a mirror or friends can help you become more comfortable and confident with the material.
Deep breathing: Take deep breaths before you begin to calm your nerves and slow your heart rate.
Visualization: Visualize yourself giving a successful presentation, and imagine yourself feeling confident and in control.
Positive self-talk: Remind yourself of your strengths and that you are well prepared.
Relaxation techniques: Try progressive muscle relaxation or other relaxation techniques to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety.
Stay hydrated and well-fed: Dehydration and low blood sugar levels can make you feel light-headed and anxious.
Focus on your audience: Remember that your audience wants you to succeed and is there to hear what you have to say.
Get enough sleep: Adequate sleep can help reduce anxiety levels.
Explanation:
Remember, everyone gets nervous at some point, but it's important to focus on your strengths and the message you want to convey, rather than your anxiety.
ALLEN
the parent of a 14-year-old adolescent states to the nurse that the adolescent is moody, shuts oneself in the bedroom, and fights with a younger sibling. which comment is most helpful to support the parent?
The most helpful comment to support the parent in this situation would be to acknowledge that the behavior they are describing is a normal part of adolescent development.
What is Adolescent Development?
Adolescent development is the process of physical, social, emotional, and cognitive changes that occur during adolescence, which typically spans from ages 10 to 19. During this period, individuals experience a range of transformations, including changes in height and weight, sexual maturation, and brain development. Adolescence is also characterized by social and emotional changes, as individuals begin to form more complex relationships and develop a sense of identity.
The nurse could say something like:
"Many adolescents experience moodiness and changes in behavior as they go through this stage of development. It's not uncommon for them to spend more time alone in their room or have conflicts with family members. It can be a challenging time for both the adolescent and their family, but it's important to remember that this is a normal part of the process."
By providing this kind of reassurance and normalization of the behavior, the nurse can help the parent feel more confident in their parenting and better equipped to support their child through this stage of development. It can also help the parent feel more comfortable seeking out additional resources or support if they feel they need it.
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Nurse is preparing to administer olanzapine 20 mg PO daily. Available is olanzapine 10 mg orally-disintegrating tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. )
The nurse administer 2 tablets per dose.
Olanzapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is most commonly used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It can be utilized for both new-onset illness and long-term maintenance in schizophrenia. It is taken orally or by injection into a muscle. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends olanzapine as a first-line therapy for acute mania in bipolar illness.
It is licensed for schizophrenia, moderate to severe manic episodes alone or in combination with lithium or valproate, and the short-term treatment of acute manic episodes associated with Bipolar I Disorder in the United Kingdom and Australia. Antipsychotic medicine is the first-line psychiatric therapy for schizophrenia.
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the nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with asthma. the client reports drinking herbal tea to treat illnesses. which additional question(s) will the nurse ask during the assessment? select all that apply.
The additional questions that the the nurse will ask during the assessment are:
-"Do you take any other supplements?"
-"How many cups of herbal tea do you drink in a day?"
-"Have you shared this information with your health care provider?"
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the lungs' airways. It is distinguished by recurrent and changeable symptoms, reversible airflow restriction, and readily induced bronchospasms. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath are all symptoms. This might happen several times per day or a few times each week. Asthma symptoms may worsen at night or during activity, depending on the individual.
Asthma is considered to be caused by a mix of hereditary and environmental factors. Air pollution and allergies are examples of environmental influences. Medications such as aspirin and beta blockers are also possible factors. The pattern of symptoms, responsiveness to therapy over time, and spirometry lung function testing are commonly used to make a diagnosis.
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a patient presents to the emergency department complaining of a panic attack, reports being alone and fearful, and is not able to follow simple instructions from healthcare staff. what should the nurse prioritize as a concern?
The nurse should prioritize patient's immediate safety and address symptoms of the panic attack.
What is panic attack?Panic attack means sudden episode of intense fear or anxiety and physical symptoms, based on perceived threat rather than imminent danger. Triggers for panic attacks includes over breathing, long periods of stress and activities that lead to intense physical reactions.
The nurse should prioritize patient's immediate safety and address symptoms of the panic attack which may include providing calm and reassuring presence, helping patient to regulate their breathing, and administering medication if appropriate.
Additionally, nurse should assess for any potential underlying medical or psychiatric conditions and ensure that patient receives appropriate care.
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combining all four measures of health yields a measure of just how healthy people are, which is called: a. disease/life ratio. b. global disease burden. c. life benefit. d. quality-adjusted life years.
The measure that combines all four measures of health, namely the presence or absence of disease, the length of life, the quality of life, and the level of disability, is called "quality-adjusted life years" (QALYs). Option D is correct.
QALY is a measure of disease burden that includes both the quality and the quantity of life lived. It is commonly used in health economics to evaluate the effectiveness of medical interventions, as it provides a way to compare the benefits of different treatments and health interventions. The QALY measure assigns a score to each year of life lived, based on the level of health and functional status experienced during that year, and then sums the scores across the entire lifespan of an individual.
The higher the QALY score, the better the health status of the individual, indicating a longer life lived with better quality of life. QALYs are often used to make decisions about resource allocation in healthcare, such as which interventions to fund or which patients to prioritize for treatment, by providing a way to compare the costs and benefits of different health interventions on a common scale.
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37) the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a spinal surgery. for which of the following symptoms is the client instructed to return to the hospital? a. headache b. constipation c. redness and pain at the incision site d. problems passing urine
The symptom instructed to return to the hospital is constipation c. redness and pain at the incision site.
What is spine surgery ?Spine surgery aims to address the causes of spinal or back pain. This operation can be performed using open, laparoscopic, or robotic surgical techniques.
Before recommending spinal surgery, the doctor will suggest other treatment methods to treat spinal pain. These methods include taking drugs, physiotherapy, and using a support or brace. If the above treatment methods are not effective in eliminating spinal pain, new patients will be recommended to undergo spinal surgery.
If after surgery the patient experiences complaints such as pain in the incision that does not go away accompanied by fever or discharge from the incision site, immediately return to the hospital.
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a health organization that studies the health characteristics of the population in a specific area and then implements a health education plan geared towards that target population is engaged in what? group of answer choices b. epidemiology d. health policy and management c. community health a. biostatistics
A health organization which studies the health characteristics of the population that is in a specific area and then implements a health education plan which is absolutely geared towards that target population is engaged in is known as a Community Health.
Public health is the science and art of preventing disease and promoting health. Health can be explained as a circumstance of the complete physical, mental, social, emotional, and spiritual well-being of an individual. It is with respect to not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. It determines the complete psychology and physiology of an individual.
Public health is the general science of protecting and improving the health of people and their communities. This work is achieved by promoting a lot of healthy lifestyles, researching disease and injury prevention, and detecting, analyzing, preventing, and responding to infectious diseases.
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