the short run aggregate supply (sras) curve is used together with ad to explain the economy in the short-run (over the course of a few years). one or more of the following will move you up along the sras curve (that is, as p rises). which one or ones?

Answers

Answer 1

In the short run, an increase in the price level (P) will move the economy up along the Short Run Aggregate Supply (SRAS) curve. The following factors can contribute to this upward movement:

1. Changes in input prices: If the prices of inputs used in production, such as wages or raw materials, increase, it leads to higher production costs. As a result, firms will need to increase prices to maintain profitability, causing an upward movement along the SRAS curve.

2. Supply shocks: Positive supply shocks, such as an unexpected increase in resource availability or technological advancements, can lower production costs and increase the level of output at any given price level. This leads to an upward shift along the SRAS curve.

3. Expectations of future prices: If firms anticipate higher future prices, they may raise their prices in the short run, causing an upward movement along the SRAS curve.

It's important to note that movements along the SRAS curve are associated with changes in the price level but do not shift the curve itself. Shifts in the SRAS curve are caused by factors that affect potential output or aggregate supply in the long run.

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Related Questions

serendipity, or chance ideas, as a source of marketing research problems, might arise from:

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Serendipity, or chance ideas, as a source of marketing research problems might arise from unexpected observations, customer feedback, competitor actions, or new technological developments, among other factors.

Serendipity or chance ideas can be a valuable source of marketing research problems as they arise unexpectedly and can provide unique insights that might otherwise go unnoticed. They might stem from unexpected observations, such as unusual patterns or trends in customer behavior, or from customer feedback that was not originally sought out. Chance ideas might also be inspired by competitor actions, emerging market trends, or new technological developments. By exploring these chance ideas further through marketing research, businesses can uncover new opportunities for growth, identify potential threats, and gain a deeper understanding of their customers and market. Therefore, businesses should remain open to the possibility of serendipitous discoveries and be prepared to use them as a valuable source of inspiration for their marketing research efforts.

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The entire Corn Flakes product line at Kellogg is may be classified as​ a(n) A. profit center. B. investment center. C. cost center. D. revenue center

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The entire Corn Flakes product line at Kellogg may be classified as a revenue center. Hence, option D is correct.

A revenue center is a business unit that generates income for the organization by selling goods or services to customers. In the case of Kellogg's Corn Flakes, the product line is responsible for generating revenue by selling the cereal to consumers. As a revenue center, the Corn Flakes product line is expected to generate a certain amount of income for the company, which will contribute to the overall financial performance of Kellogg. The product line is likely to have its own sales targets and performance metrics that are closely monitored by the company's management. It is important to note that while the Corn Flakes product line may be classified as a revenue center, it does not mean that it operates independently of the other parts of the company. Kellogg is likely to have other revenue centers and cost centers that are part of its overall business model, and these units work together to ensure that the company meets its financial goals and objectives.

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which daemon is responsible for bringing up other units and services when boot targets are changed

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The daemon responsible for bringing up other units and services when boot targets are changed is called systemd. System d is a system and service manager for Linux operating systems.

It is responsible for initializing and managing system services, daemons, and other processes required for the operating system to function correctly. System d is designed to manage the entire system startup process, from boot to shutdown, and everything in between. It provides a standard interface for system and service management, which makes it easy to configure and manage services, and also provides a comprehensive logging system that allows for easy troubleshooting and debugging.

When boot targets are changed, systemd is responsible for starting or stopping the necessary services and daemons required for the new boot target. It does this by reading the system configuration files and running the necessary scripts to bring up or shut down the services.

Overall, system d is a critical component of the Linux operating system and plays a crucial role in managing system services and processes. Its ability to manage services dynamically based on boot targets and other system events makes it a valuable tool for system administrators and developers.

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a pension fund manager is considering three mutual funds. the first is a stock fund, the second is a long-term bond fund, and the third is a money market fund that provides a safe return of 8%. the characteristics of the risky funds are as follows: expected return standard deviation stock fund (s) 20 % 30 % bond fund (b) 12 15 the correlation between the fund returns is 0.10. you require that your portfolio yield an expected return of 14%, and that it be efficient, that is, on the steepest feasible cal. a. what is the standard deviation of your portfolio?

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The standard deviation of the portfolio is 20.9% since a pension fund manager is examining three mutual funds.

The standard deviation is a statistic that expresses the degree of variation or dispersion among a group of data.[1] A low standard deviation suggests that values are often close to the mean (also known as the anticipated value) of the collection, whereas a large standard deviation suggests that values are dispersed over a wider range pension fund .

Standard deviation, often known as SD, is most frequently represented in mathematical texts and equations by the lower case Greek letter (sigma), for the population standard deviation, or the Latin letter s, for the sample standard deviation.

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A _____________ is a centralized stockpile of data collected from across an enterprise.
A. data silo
B. data mine
C. data warehouse
D. data farm

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A data warehouse is a centralized stockpile of data collected from across an enterprise.

It is a large and complex database that is designed to support business intelligence activities such as data mining, online analytical processing (OLAP), and reporting. The purpose of a data warehouse is to provide a single source of truth for an organization's data, allowing it to be easily accessed, analyzed, and used to inform business decisions. The data in a data warehouse is typically extracted from various sources, transformed into a consistent format, and loaded into the warehouse. This enables users to query the data using standard reporting tools and access it in real time. Compared to a data silo, which is a separate database or repository of data that is not integrated with other data sources, a data warehouse is designed to be a comprehensive and integrated source of information. Therefore, the correct answer to your question is C. data warehouse. A data warehouse is a centralized stockpile of data collected from across an enterprise.

Here's a detailed explanation:

A data warehouse (C) serves as a central repository for data collected from various sources within an organization. It stores, manages, and organizes historical data to enable efficient reporting and analysis. Data warehouses support the decision-making process by providing a structured and consolidated view of the enterprise's data.

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in an industry, the threat of entry is high when group of answer choices capital requirements are low. expected returns are low. technological know-how is industry-specific. switching costs are high.

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when capital requirements are low, expected returns are low, technological know-how is industry-specific, and switching costs are high, the threat of entry is high in the industry

In an industry, the threat of entry is high when:

- Capital requirements are low: When the capital required to enter the industry is low, it becomes easier for new entrants to establish themselves and compete with existing companies. Lower capital requirements make it more accessible for new players to enter the market, increasing the threat of entry.

- Expected returns are low: If the industry has low expected returns, it may discourage potential entrants. When the profit potential is limited, new companies may be less motivated to enter the market, resulting in a lower threat of entry. Conversely, if expected returns are high, it can attract more entrants and increase the threat of entry.

- Technological know-how is industry-specific: If the industry requires specialized knowledge or technical expertise that is specific to that particular industry, it can act as a barrier to entry. When industry-specific know-how is necessary to compete effectively, it can reduce the threat of entry because new entrants would need to invest time and resources to acquire the required expertise.

- Switching costs are high: Switching costs refer to the costs incurred by customers when they switch from one product or service provider to another. If an industry has high switching costs, it creates a barrier for new entrants because existing customers may be less likely to switch to a new competitor. This can lower the threat of entry as it becomes more difficult for new entrants to attract and retain customers.

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Bonds that give the issuer the option of retiring them prior to the date of maturity are:
a) Debentures
b) Registered bonds
c) Serial bonds
d) Callable bonds

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Bonds that give the issuer the option of retiring them prior to the date of maturity are d) Callable bonds.

Callable bonds are a type of bond that can be redeemed by the issuer before the bond's maturity date. This means that the issuer has the option to retire the bond early, typically after a certain amount of time has passed (known as the call date). Callable bonds usually offer a higher interest rate than non-callable bonds, as they provide the issuer with more flexibility and control over their debt.

Debentures, registered bonds, and serial bonds are all different types of bonds, but they do not necessarily have the option of being retired early by the issuer. Debentures are unsecured bonds that are backed only by the issuer's reputation and creditworthiness, while registered bonds are bonds that are registered in the owner's name and require the owner to submit a physical certificate to trade them. Serial bonds are bonds that mature at different intervals over a period of time.

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mention 15 ways of paying wages with expalantion for atleast 5 if there is
that many

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There are several ways to pay wages to employees, including - cash, check, direct deposit, prepaid debit card, payroll card, mobile payment apps, barter payment etc.

Explanation for at least 5 methods:

Cash: This method is simple and straightforward, but it can be risky and time-consuming to handle large amounts of cash.Check: This method is widely accepted and secure, but it requires employees to have a bank account to deposit the check.Direct deposit: This method is efficient and secure, but it requires employees to provide their bank account information to their employer.Prepaid debit card: This method is convenient for employees who don't have a bank account, but it may come with fees and restrictions.Payroll card: Payroll cards are similar to prepaid debit cards, but they may have lower fees and more flexible options for employees.

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if you sell alcohol to a minor, you could receive a fine of:

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If you sell alcohol to a minor, you could receive a fine that varies depending on your area's jurisdiction and specific laws. In most places, selling alcohol to a minor is illegal and can result in fines, license suspensions, or even criminal charges.

In the United States, the fine for selling alcohol to a minor can range from a few hundred dollars to several thousand dollars, depending on state and local laws. For example, in California, the fine for selling alcohol to a minor can range from $250 to $1,000 for the first offense, and up to $3,000 for subsequent offenses. Other states may have higher or lower fines, and some may impose additional penalties such as community service or probation.

It's important to note that selling alcohol to a minor is not only illegal, but it can also have severe consequences for the health and well-being of the minor, as well as for society as a whole. It's always best to follow the law and take steps to prevent underage drinking.

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Which of the following is true regarding a person receiving a waiver of premium benefit?a. the insured must be totally disabledb. the policyholder must continue to pay premiumsc. it can apply to long-term illnessd. it usually requires a writing period

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The following statement is true regarding a person receiving a waiver of premium benefit: the insured must be totally disabled.

A waiver of premium benefit is a provision in many insurance policies that allows the policyholder to stop paying premiums on the policy if they become disabled and unable to work. This benefit typically only applies to long-term disabilities that are expected to last for at least six months or more. In order to qualify for the waiver of premium benefit, the insured must be totally disabled, meaning they are unable to perform the duties of their regular occupation. The policyholder does not have to continue to pay premiums while the waiver is in effect, and the coverage remains in force. However, the policy may require a waiting period before the waiver takes effect, and the insured may need to provide proof of their disability to the insurance company.

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why has responsibility for project closure shifted from the project manager, to be shared among several stakeholders? multiple choice question.

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Project closure refers to the process of bringing a project to an end. This involves reviewing the project objectives, ensuring that all deliverables have been completed and the project has met all of the requirements, and determining.

If any changes or improvements need to be made in future projects. The responsibility for project closure has shifted from the project manager to be shared among several stakeholders because it is no longer considered a singular event but rather an ongoing process. There are several reasons why this shift has occurred. First, stakeholders play a critical role in ensuring that the project meets its objectives. They are responsible for providing feedback and input throughout the project, and their involvement is crucial to the success of the project. Additionally, stakeholders may have different perspectives and goals for the project, and sharing the responsibility for project closure ensures that all stakeholders are satisfied with the outcome.

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Buying shares of stock in your favorite clothing company is
savings or investing ?

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Buying shares of stock in your favorite clothing company can be termed as investing.

They effectively become a shareholder in a corporation when you decide to purchase shares. The financial reward that one receives as an investor with an ownership interest in that company is based on the performance or otherwise of the business itself.

The goal of investing in shares is to acquire and sell equities for a profit in the near term, with an emphasis on the price of the shares. Buying equities for the long term is the goal of investing in that clothing brand.

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which of the following is not correct regarding the capital asset pricing model (capm)? a. it is based on the premise that the only important risk of a firm is systematic risk. b. it is concerned with unsystematic risk. c. it is sometimes used to estimate the required rate of return for any firm with publicly traded stock. d. all of these choices are true.

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The correct answer is option b. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is a widely used method to estimate the required rate of return for an investment.

It is based on the premise that the only important risk of a firm is systematic risk, which is the risk that cannot be diversified away. This risk is reflected in the beta coefficient, which measures the sensitivity of an investment's return to the market return.

The CAPM formula is R = Rf + β(Rm - Rf), where R is the required rate of return, Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the beta coefficient, and Rm is the market return. Option c is also true, as the CAPM can be used to estimate the required rate of return for any firm with publicly traded stock. However, option b is not correct, as the CAPM is not concerned with unsystematic risk, which is the risk that can be diversified away by investing in a portfolio of different assets.

Instead, the CAPM focuses on the systematic risk of an investment, which is the risk that affects the whole market and cannot be avoided. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

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Which of the following situations does not require crisis communication? a. food recall b. death at the job c. chemical spill d. price increase.

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The correct option is d. price increase. Among the given situations, a price increase does not typically require crisis communication.

Crisis communication is a process that organizations use to communicate with stakeholders during emergencies, significant disruptions, or other sensitive issues. In situations like a food recall, death at the job, or a chemical spill, crisis communication is crucial to ensure transparency, protect the organization's reputation, and maintain public trust. A price increase, however, is a normal business decision that may be driven by factors such as inflation, increased production costs, or changing market conditions. While it is important to communicate this information to stakeholders, it does not necessitate the same level of urgency or sensitivity as the other scenarios. In this case, standard communication methods, such as press releases or company announcements, can be employed to inform the relevant parties. Nonetheless, it is essential for organizations to handle price increase communication carefully, to avoid misunderstandings and ensure customers are aware of the reasons behind the change. By doing so, they can maintain customer satisfaction and trust in the brand.

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The current market price of a share of Coca Cola stock is $50. If a call option on this stock has a strike price of $45, the call a. is out of the money. b. is in the money. c. sells for a higher price than if the market price of Coca Cola stock is $40. d. is out of the money and sells for a higher price than if the market price of Coca Cola stock is $40. e. is in the money and sells for a higher price than if the market price of Coca Cola stock is $40.

Answers

The e. The call option is in the money because the market price of Coca Cola stock is higher than the strike price of $45. This means that the option has value and the holder has the right to buy the stock at a lower price.

Additionally, the call option will be sold for more money than if the market price of Coca-Cola stock was $40 because the option's value has increased as a result of the stock's market price increase.

This means that the holder of the call option can exercise their right to buy the stock at a lower price and sell it in the market for a profit. Since the market price of Coca Cola stock is currently higher than the strike price of $45, the call option is in the money. Moreover, the option will sell for a higher price than if the market price of Coca Cola stock is $40 because it has become more valuable with the increase in the stock price.

A call option is in the money when the current market price of the stock is greater than the strike price, which is the case here ($50 > $45).

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When attempting to understand the objection the buyer is trying to express, the salesperson should:
A. Avoid making assumptions about what the buyer is going to say
B. Engage in active listening
C. Confirm his/her understanding of the objection with the buyer
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Answers

D. All of the above. When attempting to understand the objection the buyer is trying to express, the salesperson should avoid making assumptions, engage in active listening, and confirm their understanding of the objection with the buyer to ensure clear communication and avoid misunderstandings.

When a buyer raises an objection during a sales conversation, it is important for the salesperson to fully understand the objection and the concerns behind it. This will enable the salesperson to address the issue effectively and potentially overcome the objection. To do this, the salesperson should avoid making assumptions about what the buyer is trying to say, engage in active listening by paying close attention to the buyer's words, tone, and body language, and confirm their understanding of the objection with the buyer.

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Regarding the measures of inventory managing efficiency, identify the most appropriate answer. (Select all that apply.)
Check All That Apply
Total average value of inventory is equal to the selling price multiplied by finished goods inventory.
Inventory turn is the annual cost of goods sold multiplied by average inventory.
Days of supply is the inverse of inventory turns × 365.
Inventory turn is the annual cost of goods sold divided by average invento

Answers

Regarding the measures of inventory managing efficiency, the most appropriate answers are:

- Inventory turn is the annual cost of goods sold divided by average inventory.
- Days of supply is the inverse of inventory turns × 365.

These two measures are commonly used to assess how efficiently a company is managing its inventory. Inventory turn measures how many times the company sells and replaces its inventory in a given period, while days of supply measures how many days of sales the inventory can cover. A higher inventory turn and a lower days of supply indicate that the company is effectively managing its inventory and reducing the risk of excess or obsolete inventory.
Hi! I'd be happy to help you with your question. Based on the options provided, the most appropriate answers regarding the measures of inventory managing efficiency are:

1. Inventory turn is the annual cost of goods sold divided by average inventory.
2. Days of supply is the inverse of inventory turns × 365.

Explanation:
1. Inventory turn measures how many times a company's inventory is sold and replaced over a given period. It is calculated by dividing the annual cost of goods sold by the average inventory.
2. Days of supply indicates the number of days it takes for a company to run out of inventory if no new stock is acquired. It is calculated by taking the inverse of inventory turns and multiplying by 365. This helps companies estimate how long their current inventory will last based on sales trends.

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during the period identified by gilbert as the age of shared prosperity, the labor movement became:

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During the period identified by Gilbert as the age of shared prosperity, the labor movement became more influential and powerful.


During the period identified by Gilbert as the Age of Shared Prosperity, the labor movement became increasingly influential and successful in achieving its goals. This time frame, which typically refers to the post-World War II era until the 1970s, was marked by strong economic growth and a more equitable distribution of wealth. The labor movement played a significant role in promoting workers' rights, pushing for higher wages, better working conditions, and advocating for social protections like pensions and healthcare. As a result, the movement contributed to the overall improvement in living standards and economic stability for many workers, making the Age of Shared Prosperity a time of notable progress for the labor movement.

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In which one of the following instances is a focused strategy keyed either to low-cost or differentiation not likely to work well?

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A focused strategy that is keyed either to low-cost or differentiation may not work well in the following instance:

When there is a lack of distinct customer segments that value either low-cost or differentiation.

A focused strategy aims to target a narrow market segment or niche with a product or service that is differetniated or offered at a lower cost than competitors. This approach can be effective when there are distinct customer segments that value either low-cost or differentiation.

However, if there is no clear segmentation of customers, or if the market is too small to support a focused strategy, then a low-cost or differentiation approach may not work well. In such instances, a broader market approach that offers a combination of both low-cost and differentiation may be more appropriate.

Therefore, it is important for businesses to carefully evaluate market conditions and customer preferences before implementing a focused strategy based on either low-cost or differentiation.

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Refer to Figure 18-2. Suppose the firm pays a wage equal to $160 per unit of labor and sells its output at $10 per unit. What is the value of the marginal product of labor for the third worker? a. 20 units b. $2,720 c. $200 d. $3,200

Answers

The value of the marginal product of labor of the third worker is c. $200.

To determine marginal product, we need to calculate the value of the marginal product of labor for the third worker, given a wage of $160 per unit of labor and an output price of $10 per unit.

1: Determine the output produced by the third worker.
Refer to Figure 18-2 and find the output level when the firm employs 3 workers. Unfortunately, you didn't provide the figure, but let's assume that the third worker produces an additional 20 units.

2: Calculate the marginal product of labor.
Marginal product of labor (MPL) is the additional output produced by one more unit of labor. In this case, the MPL for the third worker is 20 units.

3: Calculate the value of the marginal product of labor.
Value of marginal product of labor (VMPL) is the MPL multiplied by the output price. In this case,

VMPL = MPL * output price = 20 units * $10 per unit = $200.

So, the value of the marginal product of labor for the third worker is $200 (Option c).

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The complete question is: "Suppose the firm pays a wage equal to $160 per unit of labor and sells its output at $10 per unit. What is the value of the marginal product of labor for the third worker? a. 20 units b. $2,720 c. $200 d. $3,200."

Fund-raising as a marketing tool is usually used and appropriate for what types of events?A. cause-related marketing effortsB. Charitable eventsC. For-profit events and charitable eventsD. For-profit eventsE. Cause-realted marketing efforts and charitable events

Answers

Fund-raising is most appropriate for charitable events, as well as cause-related marketing efforts.

Charitable events are organized with the purpose of raising money for a specific cause, while cause-related marketing efforts aim to generate awareness and support for a particular issue or organization. Both of these events require funding to operate, and fund-raising can be an effective way to solicit donations from the public. For-profit events typically generate revenue through ticket sales and sponsorships, and may not require fund-raising efforts. However, some for-profit events may choose to donate a portion of their profits to a charitable cause, in which case fund-raising may still be appropriate.

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temporary workers often have a lower risk of occupational injury because they make up a very small part of the workforce. group of answer choices true false

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Temporary workers often have a lower risk of occupational injury because they make up a very small part of the workforce. This statement is False.

The risk of occupational injury for temporary workers is actually higher than that of permanent workers because temporary workers are often brought in to perform tasks that are more dangerous or physically demanding than those performed by permanent workers. They may also receive less training on safety procedures and have less experience with the job tasks, increasing the likelihood of accidents and injuries.

Additionally, temporary workers may be less likely to report injuries due to fear of losing their job or not being hired back for future assignments. This can result in underreporting of injuries and may contribute to a perception that temporary workers are less likely to be injured.

Several studies have shown that temporary workers have higher injury rates compared to permanent workers in various industries, including construction, manufacturing, and healthcare. In fact, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has identified the safety and health of temporary workers as a priority area for inspection and enforcement.

Therefore, it is important for employers to provide adequate training, supervision, and safety equipment to all workers, including temporary workers, to ensure a safe work environment.

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Which of the following techniques allows explicit consideration of more than one possible outcome?
A. Operating leverage
B. Present value
C. Least-squares regression
D. Expected value

Answers

The technique that allows explicit consideration of more than one possible outcome is Expected value, option D.

Expected value is a statistical concept that allows one to calculate the average outcome when there are multiple possible outcomes and the probability of each outcome is known.

It takes into account the probabilities of all possible outcomes and weights them according to their likelihood of occurring. Expected value is calculated by multiplying the probability of each outcome by its respective value and summing the results.

Operating leverage, option A, refers to the degree to which fixed costs are used in a company's cost structure. Present value, option B, is the current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows given a specified rate of return. Least-squares regression, option C, is a statistical technique used to find the line of best fit between two variables. Hence, option D is correct.

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frank and lillian gilbreth used ________ to identify areas for work improvement.

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Frank and Lillian Gilbreth used a variety of techniques to identify areas for work improvement. One of their most famous and influential methods was called motion study. Motion study involved carefully observing workers as they performed their tasks and breaking down each movement into its component parts.

The goal was to find ways to eliminate wasted time, effort, and motion, and to streamline the work process.To do this, the Gilbreths used a variety of tools and techniques, including time and motion studies, microchronometers, and even film cameras. They would observe workers performing their tasks, timing each movement and analyzing the results to see where improvements could be made. They also used physical models and mock-ups to test new work methods before implementing them on the factory floor.In addition to motion study, the Gilbreths also developed other techniques for work improvement, such as work simplification and fatigue studies. Work simplification involved breaking down complex tasks into smaller, simpler steps, while fatigue studies looked at ways to reduce physical strain on workers.
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T/F? battles to set and control technical standards in a market are referred to as product positioning.

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False. Battles to set and control technical standards in a market are not referred to as product positioning.

Product positioning refers to the process of creating an image or identity for a product or brand in the mind of the consumer. The battles to set and control technical standards in a market are referred to as standards wars or format wars. These battles occur when multiple companies or organizations are competing to establish their own standard or format as the dominant one in a particular industry.

For example, the competition between VHS and Betamax video formats in the 1980s is a famous example of a standards war.

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which of the following both make the sacrifice ratio higher than otherwise? a. the phillips curve is flat, inflation expectations adjust quickly b. the phillips curve is steep, inflation expectations adjust slowly. c. the phillips curve is flat, inflation expectations adjust slowly. d. the phillips curve is steep, inflation expectations adjust quickly.

Answers

b. The sacrifice ratio refers to the amount of output lost in the process of reducing inflation. A higher sacrifice ratio indicates that it takes a larger loss of output to lower inflation. The Phillips Curve illustrates the inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. A steep Phillips Curve implies that small changes in inflation lead to large changes in unemployment.

Slow adjustment of inflation expectations means that it takes longer for people to adapt to changes in inflation, leading to more prolonged economic adjustments. When the Phillips Curve is steep and inflation expectations adjust slowly (option b), it results in a higher sacrifice ratio. This is because reducing inflation in such a situation requires a significant change in unemployment, which leads to a substantial output loss. Additionally, slow adjustment of inflation expectations prolongs the time it takes for the economy to stabilize, further increasing the sacrifice ratio. Therefore, the combination of a steep Phillips Curve and slow inflation expectations adjustment contributes to a higher sacrifice ratio than otherwise.

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With proactive change management, management initiates the change to achieve a desired goal. A. True B. False

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Proactive change management involves planning and implementing changes in a proactive manner to achieve a specific goal or objective. This type of change management is often used to help organizations stay ahead of the competition, adapt to new technologies or market conditions, or improve operational efficiency.

In proactive change management, the change is initiated by management rather than in response to a problem or crisis. This allows the organization to be more strategic and intentional in its approach to change, which can lead to better outcomes and greater success in achieving its goals.

You asked if it's true that with proactive change management, management initiates the change to achieve a desired goal. The answer is A. True. Proactive change management involves management initiating and driving the change process to reach a specific goal, rather than reacting to external factors or circumstances.

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economic growth refers to an increase in which of the following? responses government spending government spending consumption spending consumption spending nominal gross domestic product nominal gross domestic product potential real gross domestic product potential real gross domestic product household wealth

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Economic growth can be influenced by various factors such as investments, innovation, changes in technology, and policies implemented by governments to promote economic development.

Economic growth refers to an increase in the value of goods and services produced by a country's economy over a given period of time. It can be measured by different indicators, such as nominal gross domestic product (GDP), potential real GDP, household wealth, consumption spending, and government spending.


Nominal GDP measures the total value of goods and services produced in a country, while potential real GDP takes into account changes in prices over time. Consumption spending refers to the amount of money households spend on goods and services, while government spending is the money spent by the government on public goods and services.

Lastly, household wealth refers to the total value of assets owned by households, including real estate, financial investments, and other tangible assets.


Overall, economic growth can be influenced by various factors such as investments, innovation, changes in technology, and policies implemented by governments to promote economic development. When economic growth is sustained over a long period, it can lead to improved living standards, higher employment rates, and increased income levels.

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amounts received in advance from customers for future products or services are typically recorded in a liability account called . multiple choice question. unearned revenues prepaid expense accounts payable revenues earned

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Amounts collected in advance from consumers for future items or services are often documented in the Unearned Revenues liabilities account.

The entire amount of money earned from the sale of things and services relevant to a firm's principal accounting operations is referred to as revenue. Other phrases for business revenue include sales and turnover. Some businesses generate revenue by charging interest, royalties, or other fees.

"Revenue" can refer to either general income or the amount received in a specific monetary unit during a given time period, as in "Last year, Company X had revenue of $42 million." Profits, also known as net income, are usually defined as total revenue minus total expenditures for a certain time period. In accounting, revenue is a component of the Equity section of the balance sheet since it raises equity.

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after issuing its 2020 financial statements (a.k.a., the books are closed), a company discovered that its 2020 beginning inventory was overstated by $170,000 (ending inventory is correct). what is the journal entry to correct this error?

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The journal entry to correct the error of overstating the beginning inventory by $170,000 would be as follows: Dr. Cost of Goods Sold $170,000 Cr. Inventory $170,000

This entry will reduce the inventory by $170,000, which was overstated, and increase the cost of goods sold by the same amount. This will result in a decrease in net income by $170,000. Since the financial statements for 2020 have already been issued, the company will need to issue a restatement of its financial statements to reflect this correction,  since the overstatement of beginning inventory caused a corresponding understatement of cost of goods sold and, therefore, an overstatement of net income.

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