Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are the way that scientists use to examine data in order to evaluate health and nutrition claims.
In an RCT, researchers assign study participants at random to distinct groups, such as those who get a certain nutrient or those who do not receive the nutrient (placebo group). Researchers can reduce the influence of confounding variables and ensure that any differences detected between groups are attributable to the nutrient being examined by randomly assigning individuals. RCTs are frequently utilised in medical research, including studies on nutrition and health, and are regarded the gold standard for evaluating the effectiveness of therapies.
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a researcher is compiling data on the incidence of all types of diseases. these data reflect: a. vitality. b. disability. c. morbidity. d. mortality
Morbidity is the frequency of an illness or other health condition in a population and is sometimes stated as a rate or ratio of those affected to the population as a whole.
The term "Morbidity" refers to the mortality rate of a population, which is frequently stated as the death rate per 1,000 or per 100,000 people.
Disability, which is sometimes represented as a rate or ratio of individuals afflicted to the entire population, is a physical or mental disability that restricts a person's capacity to execute a certain task in a way or within the range regarded normal for a human being.
Finally, vitality is the state of being physically and mentally well, and it is frequently described as a rate or ratio of individuals impacted to the population as a whole.
As a result, the researcher is gathering information on the prevalence of all diseases in a population, as well as the death rate, the prevalence of physical and mental disabilities, and the general state of overall health.
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the nurse suspects that a patient is not taking pills but hiding the pills and later throwing them away. which action ensures the medication reaches the patient's system?
The actions that need to be taken to ensure that the medication reaches the patient's system are confront the patient, mix the pills with food, force the patient to swallow and converse for several minutes.
The patient may also hide the pills in the mouth. A mouth check may not help. If the nurse converses with the patient for several minutes, so that the patient swallows the pill.
There may be increase in the resistance to taking the medication, so the patient should not be confronted. The pills can be mixed with food, but the patients should take the medication consciously on their own so that they can engage in their care, which will make them aware about the disease.
Force should not be used, it will complicate the situation and may strain the patient-caregiver relationship.
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Transcribed image text: Cognitive Learning Domain Which learning activities are part of the cognitive domain of learning? Select all that apply. Discussing a new policy Reflecting on feelings about bullying Memorizing vocabulary words Practicing throwing and catching Analyzing statistics
The learning activities which are part of the cognitive domain of learning are
Analyzing statistics Memorizing vocabulary words Discussing a new policyCognitive learning is a learning technique that focuses on making better use of the brain. To comprehend the procedure, it is necessary to first define cognition. Cognition is the mental process through which we learn information and understanding from our senses, experiences, and thoughts.
Learning and the enhancement of cognitive abilities are included in the cognitive domain. This includes the capacity to recall or recognize certain facts, logical sequences, and conceptual frameworks that aid in the development of intellectual abilities and capabilities. Learning may be broadly classified into three types: cognitive, affective, and psychomotor. Within each topic, there are numerous learning levels that progress in complexity from more fundamental, surface-level learning to deeper, more in-depth learning.
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the nurse provides guidance to parents of a 3 year old child. instructions should include: group of answer choices keep the poison control center's number close to the phone the proper use of sports equipment restrain the child in a rear facing care seat in the front seat of the car drug and alcohol education
The nurse provides anticipatory guidance to parents of a 3-year-old child. Instructions should include: Option B - The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings.
Nurses play an important role in teaching parents how to keep their toddler's environment safe by providing instructions such as keeping ipecac syrup on hand, keeping the Poison Control Center number near the phone, using child-resistant containers and cupboard safety closures, and keeping medicines and other poisonous materials locked away. Infants should be restrained in rear-facing car seats, school-age children should be taught how to use sports equipment properly, and adolescents should be educated about drug and alcohol addiction.
Therefore, Option B - The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings, is the correct statement.
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Complete Question is:
The nurse provides anticipatory guidance to parents of a 3-year-old child.
Instructions should include:
a. To restrain the child in the car seat facing rear in the back seat of the car.
b. The use of syrup of ipecac for accidental poisonings.
c. Drug and alcohol education.
d. The proper use of sports equipment.
If a patient has a medical condition that causes his cells to absorb fewer than normal __________ molecules, this patient would likely feel very tired. Responses.
which intervention will the nurse anticipate for a client taking quetiapine for acute psychosis who develops lead-pipe rigidity, trismus, and tachycardia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Bromocriptine is administered as directed. The patient exhibits signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). For incontinence, perianal care would be required. For changes in consciousness, fall safety measures would be put in place.
What distinguishes registered nurses (RNs) from other nurses?A nurse is referred to as a "registered nurse" if they have all necessary licenses, have completed all necessary educational requirements, and have been awarded state-issued authorization to practice nursing (RN).
Nurses are not born; they are only created.Not produced, but born, are exceptional nurses. They are fully empathetic and committed to putting an end to misery from the moment of their birth. A capable nurse will go above and above to accommodate the patient when that person requests assistance.
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mrs. lieb takes the following medications: citalopram, esomeprazole, metoprolol tartrate, and temazepam. which medication is used to treat heart failure?
The medication used to treat heart failure is Metoprolol Tartrate. This medication is a beta-blocker and is used to treat various conditions including angina, hypertension, and heart failure.
It works by blocking the action of certain natural substances in the body, similar as epinephrine( adrenaline). This helps to reduce blood pressure and strain on the heart. It also helps to help the conformation of blood clots, which can beget a stroke. Metoprolol Tartrate is generally taken formerly or doubly daily and can be taken with or without food.
However, it should be taken as soon as possible, unless it's nearly time for the coming cure, If a cure is missed. It's important to take Metoprolol Tartrate exactly as specified by the doctor and to not stop taking it suddenly as this can beget serious problems.
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which treatment is effective in managinf the condition of a female patient who reports an 8-month history of difficulty achieving orgasm after normal sexual excitement
Psychotherapy and medication, such as bupropion, estrogen, or testosterone, are effective treatments for female orgasmic disorder, but the choice of treatment depends on the individual patient's underlying causes and needs.
Psychotherapy can assist address psychological and emotional aspects that may be causing the disease, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy, sex therapy, or mindfulness-based therapy. For instance, cognitive-behavioral therapy can assist women in recognizing and altering harmful beliefs and behaviors associated to sexual experiences. While mindfulness-based therapy can teach women to learn to focus on the present moment and lessen anxiety or distractions during sexual activity, sex therapy can assist women and their partners talk and work through sexual issues.
Medications, such as bupropion, estrogen, or testosterone, can also be effective treatments for female orgasmic disorder. Bupropion, an antidepressant, can help improve sexual function by increasing levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain. Estrogen, which can decrease with age, can improve vaginal lubrication and increase blood flow to the genital area, making it easier to achieve orgasm. Testosterone, which is typically found in much lower levels in women than in men, can help increase sexual desire and improve sexual function.
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What are the thermoreceptors in the skin classified as ___ receptors and ____ receptors?
an adolescent girl diagnosed with premenstrual dysphoric disorder and depression is prescribed sertraline 50 mg daily. the nurse will assess the client for which potential complication?
The nurse will assess the client for potential side effects of sertraline, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, dizziness, insomnia, fatigue, and changes in sexual desire or performance.
What is insomnia?Insomnia is a disorder that affects a person's ability to get enough sleep. It can range from difficulty falling asleep, to waking up frequently through the night, to waking up too early in the morning and not being able to fall back asleep. It can be caused by a number of factors, such as stress, anxiety, depression, a disruption in one's sleep schedule, and certain medications or substances. Symptoms of insomnia can include feeling tired during the day, difficulty concentrating or focusing, low energy, irritability, and mood swings. It is important to seek help from a doctor if you are experiencing insomnia, as it can have serious impacts on one's physical and mental health.
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the nurse is infusing 0.9% ns to a hypovolemic client s/p an mva. the nurse is ordered to infuse 1,000 ml of fluid over 1 hour. the tube has a drop factor of 5 drops/ml. what is the drip rate of the infusion?
The drip rate of the infusion is 83.33 drops/minute.
To calculate the drip rate of the infusion, we can use the following formula:
Drip rate = (Volume to be infused x Drop factor) / Time for infusion in minutes
First, we need to convert the infusion time from hours to minutes:
1 hour = 60 minutes
Next, we can plug in the given values and solve for the drip rate:
Volume to be infused = 1,000 ml
Drop factor = 5 drops/ml
Time for infusion in minutes = 60 minutes
Drip rate = (1,000 ml x 5 drops/ml) / 60 minutes
Drip rate = 83.33 drops/minute
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the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:______.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in the ecg is found in the:
QRS complex.
The largest deflection from the isoelectric line in an electrocardiogram (ECG) can be either positive or negative, depending on the direction of the heart's electrical activity during that specific period of the cardiac cycle.
The QRS complex, which signals ventricular depolarization, is generally the largest deflection from the isoelectric line in a conventional 12-lead ECG. The QRS complex is made up of three waves: the Q, the R, and the S.The R wave, which depicts the rapid depolarization of the ventricles, is often the biggest and most noticeable wave in the QRS complex.
In rare situations, the ST section may also deviate significantly from the isoelectric line. Any departure from the isoelectric line might suggest ischemia, damage, or other pathological changes in the heart.
It's important to note that the biggest deflection in an ECG might vary based on the lead utilised for measurement and the patient's individual cardiac condition. As a result, a thorough interpretation of an ECG necessitates a careful examination of all leads as well as the clinical context.
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achieving optimal vitamin d status is consuming adequate calcium when it comes to bone health. multiple choice question. more important than just as important as less important than
Calcium is as important as vitamin D,they work together to complete the process of bone mineralisation.
Calcium and vitamin D serve to maintain and strengthen bones, and vitamin D aids in the efficient absorption of calcium by the body. Therefore, even if you are getting enough vitamin D, it may be wasted if you are not getting enough calcium, or vice versa.
For our heart, muscles, and nerves to work correctly as well as for blood to clot, calcium is required. Osteoporosis is considerably exacerbated by inadequate calcium levels. Vitamin D is crucial for the growth and calcification of bones, among other bodily processes.
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20. Describe how the respiratory system changes as a person ages.
Answer:
HELLORespiratory muscle strength decreases with age and can impair effective cough, which is important for airway clearance. The lung matures by age 20–25 years, and thereafter aging is associated with progressive decline in lung function.
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the manager of a nursing unit is having difficulty working with a new graduate nurse. the new graduate nurse is excited and full of ideas she wants to try. the manager decides to journal her feelings regarding the new nurse and her feelings. what is the nurse manager practicing in this situation?
The nurse manager practising in this situation is reflection where the manager decides to journal her feelings regarding the new nurse and her feelings.
Any sort of process of combating stress or burnout at work requires engaging in numerous self-care practices. Self-care is another technique to keep in mind that we are a person first, before an employee. Setting limits and placing yourself at the top of your list of priorities for care entail prioritizing your own health and wellness. Additionally, it promotes mental health protection. Setting your needs first during the workday can make you more focused, motivated, and productive. Manage your time well, take breaks, go for walks, and let others know it's acceptable sometimes for them to put their own needs first.
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can nurse practitioners prescribe controlled substances
Yes, nurse practitioners can prescribe controlled substances if they have a federal DEA number.
Nurse practitioners, like psychiatrists, can analyze their patients' symptoms, diagnose diseases, prescribe medication, and occasionally provide talk therapy. They have the authority to prescribe drugs. A federal DEA number is required for the nurse practitioner to prescribe restricted medications.
Nurse Independent Prescribers can prescribe, administer, and provide administration instructions for Schedule 2, 3, 4, and 5 Controlled Drugs. This includes diamorphine hydrochloride, dipipanone, and cocaine when used to treat organic sickness or damage, but not when used to treat addiction. Opioids, stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and anabolic steroids are examples of controlled drugs. One of the most often prescribed opioid medicines. It is at the heart of the opioid addiction crisis in the United States, hence it is heavily controlled. Its primary symptoms are discomfort and cough.
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the nurse is evaluating the medical records of several clients and note some are receiving both fluoroquinolone and corticosteroid therapy. the nurse concludes which client is at the greatest risk for tendonitis?
Clints age greater than 60 years receiving both fluroquinolone and corticosteroid therapy have greatest risk of tendonitis
Patients treated with fluoroquinolone exhibited a substantially increases risk of developing tendon disorder. In a WHO survey in Australia of tendon disorder associated with fluroquinolone use ,ciprofloxacin was found to the casual agent in 90 percent of cases.
Corticosteroid decrease cellular proliferation, alter collagen and extracellular matrix composition, impede inflammatory pathway, decrease cellular viability, increase apoptosis. These changes can be seen as early as 24 hours. these changes can result tendonitis.
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a client has received thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke. the nurse should notify the health care provider (hcp) if there is a rapid increase in which vital sign?
After receiving thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately if there is a rapid increase in blood pressure.
This is because thrombolytic therapy can increase the risk of bleeding, and elevated blood pressure can further increase this risk. Additionally, high blood pressure can exacerbate cerebral edema, which is a potential complication of ischemic stroke. Therefore, it is important to monitor the client's blood pressure frequently and to notify the healthcare provider if there is a sudden and significant increase in blood pressure.
Thrombolytic treatment, also known as thrombolysis, is a medical intervention that involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots that are obstructing blood flow in the arteries.
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nurse noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client, then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
A common drug that interacts adversely with glucagon is insulin. When administered together.
The combination can cause a sharp drop in blood sugar, performing in hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include dizziness, confusion, sweating, insecurity, and fatigue. However, it can affect in coma or indeed death, If severe. It's thus important for the nanny to cover the case for any signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia after administration of glucagon.
To help any adverse responses, the nanny should also check for any other specifics the case is taking, similar as insulin, before administering glucagon. The nanny should also educate the case on the significance of maintaining a balanced diet, exercising regularly, and taking his/ her specifics as specified.
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an orthopedist refers all of their patients (including medicaid beneficiaries) to a physical therapy practice owned by their spouse. this is a violation of:
The Anti-Kickback Statute, a federal statute that forbids the exchange of anything of value in order to encourage or reward referrals, states that this is illegal.
This law's goals are to safeguard patients from pointless or excessive treatments and to guarantee that care is only given in response to a patient's medical requirements.
By directing patients to the physical therapy clinic of their spouse in this instance, the orthopedist is in violation of the Anti-Kickback Statute. Given that the orthopedist is financially benefited by the recommendation, there is a conflict of interest here.
Furthermore, it's likely that the orthopedist is being compensated in some other way for the referral.
It's also conceivable that the referral is driven more by the orthopedist's financial benefit than by what's best for the patient. The orthopedist has to be held responsible for their conduct since this is unacceptable.
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Which patient would benefit from ECG monitoring due to an electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so ECG monitoring is an important intervention.
Hypocalcemia
Low serum calcium levels can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Hypomagnesemia
Low serum magnesium can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias.
Answer:
All three electrolyte imbalances mentioned, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypomagnesemia, can potentially lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and therefore, ECG monitoring is important for patients experiencing any of these conditions.
Hypokalemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can result in muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Hypocalcemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood, can lead to muscle weakness, tingling in the hands and feet, and in severe cases, cardiac dysrhythmias.
Hypomagnesemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood, can lead to muscle weakness, tremors, and in severe cases, cardiac dysrhythmias.
Therefore, ECG monitoring is an important intervention for patients experiencing any of these electrolyte imbalances to detect and monitor any potential cardiac dysrhythmias.
Explanation:
a patient with a cvc has redness and drainage at the exit site. which intervention is the most appropriate
The best course of action for the nurse is to alert the doctor if there is redness or leakage at the catheter exit point.
Which dressing should be used on a patient who has a CVC and is diaphoretic?If the patient is diaphoretic, the wound is bleeding, leaking, or exhibiting symptoms of infection, or the skin is compromised, gauze dressings are advised. b) Transparent, sterile dressing: replace if moist, dirty, or loose every 7 days.
What is dialysis for an exit site infection?Exit-site infections, which increase the risk of catheter loss, morbidity, and mortality, are the precursors of future tunnel infections and peritonitis (4). (5–8). Touch-contamination species, particularly gram-positive S. aureus (9, 10) and gram-negative bacteria, are the main source of exit-site infections.
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you are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. he reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient's blood pressure while you count his respirations. the blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140. what should you do next? question 14 options: a) begin transport immediately b) call immediately for als response c) continue with vital sign assessment d) take a manual blood pressure
Answer to this question is (d) take a manual blood pressure
The manual recording of blood pressure is widely accepted to be more accurate than the recording of blood pressure using an automated device.
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Michael is a 5-year-old boy who presents for his well-child visit prior to entering kindergarten. His past medical history is unremarkable except for an anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin 4 days ago when he was being treated for a tooth abscess. He was seen in the emergency room and given prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days and azithromycin for 5 days. Although he was up-to-date on his childhood immunization at age 36 months, he now presents for routine immunizations prior to entering school. Which of the following strategies is recommended to accomplish administration all needed vaccines as soon as possible?
A. Administer DTaP, MMR, IPV today
B. Administer DTaP, IPV today, and postpone MMR until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
C. Administer no immunizations until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
D. Administer DTaP and IPV today and postpone MMR until he has been off antibiotics for 2 weeks
Based on the medical history of Michael, it is recommended that option B is correct strategies for immunization that is Administer DTaP, IPV today, and postpone MMR until he has been off prednisone for 3 months
The reason for this is that children who have recently received high-dose systemic corticosteroids, such as prednisone, may have a reduced immune response to live vaccines containing live viruses, such as MMR. Because Michael had an anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin four days ago and was given prednisone 40 mg daily for five days, his immune system may be compromised and his immune response to the MMR vaccine may be inadequate.
To ensure an adequate immune response, the MMR vaccine should be delayed until Michael has been off prednisone for at least 3 months. The DTaP and IPV vaccines, which are not live vaccines, can be administered without fear of a reduced immune response.
No immunisations are recommended until Michael has been off prednisone for three months, as suggested in option C, because this leaves Michael vulnerable to vaccine-preventable diseases. Due to the need to postpone the MMR vaccine, administering DTaP, MMR, and IPV today, as suggested in option A, is not recommended. Finally, as antibiotics have no effect on the immune response to vaccines, administering DTaP and IPV today and deferring MMR until he has been off antibiotics for two weeks, as suggested in option D, is unnecessary.
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which minimum educational degree must be obtained for a nursing student to further study to initiate and conduct research in the field of forensics
The minimum educational requirement for a nurse to start and carry out forensics related research is a doctor of philosophy in nursing.
A Ph.D. nurse is a person who has acquired a doctorate in philosophy in nursing. A doctorate is the highest degree that a nurse can acquire. Of course, in order to become Ph.D. nurses, nurses must complete a Ph.D. in nursing degree, which normally requires 4–6 years to complete.
An aspiring Ph.D. nurse needs to be passionate about conducting medical research or teaching nursing students. As many Ph.D. nurses go on to oversee and mentor other nurses, whether they are employed in administration, scientific research, or education, strong leadership skills are also essential.
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a mother asks the pediatric nurse about what she should begin to feed her 3 month old infant. the correct response is: group of answer choices fruits and vegetables are good sources of iron rice cereal is the first solid introduced that is least allergenic of the cereals egg whites are the least allergenic food to be introduced into the baby's diet fruits should be introduced before vegetables
For a baby's nutritional needs, breast milk is the greatest option. However, in some circumstances, nursing (or exclusive breastfeeding) isn't a viable alternative. Generally speaking, whatever works for your family is what's greatest for the wellbeing of your infant. So long as you supplement if necessary, your child will be fine and healthy, especially if it means less stress for you.
A supplemental nursing system may be effective for babies who require it. In order to supply pumped milk or formula to a baby who is breastfeeding, women place a tiny tube by their nipple in this situation. Start substituting bottle feeds for nursing if you are discontinuing a breastfeeding session or weaning your baby from breastfeeding entirely. In order to lessen painful engorgement, pump as you do this. Breasts that are engorged with milk or other fluids become uncomfortable, puffy, heated, or rigid. This can result in blocked duct issues (when the ducts won't drain well or at all) or mastitis, a disorder that affects the breasts. Your milk production will decline as you cut back on breastfeeding sessions. Your body will adjust to make exactly the right amount of milk to accommodate your new feeding schedule.
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a client with a new onset of rib and spine pain is being evaluated for multiple myeloma. for which manifestations will the nurse assess this client? select all that apply.
The client with a new onset of rib and spine pain who is being evaluated for multiple myeloma for which the manifestations will the nurse assess this client with are encourage hydration, prompt management of hypercalcaemia and encourage ambulation.
Preventing bone injury care should be taken by the nurse.The laboratory values the nurse is more likely to see is hypercalcemia. Serum calcium levels of 13.8 mg/dL in the laboratory value most likely responsible for this client's symptoms.
Classic symptoms of multiple myeloma is bone pain in the back of the ribs. To access clients for fractures osteoclasts break dowm bone cells so pathologic fractues occur.
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The correct question is:
the nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of rib and spine pain is being evaluated for multiple myeloma, for which manifestations will the nurse assess this client?
The physician's discharge summary includes the final diagnoses of: (1) coronary artery disease, (2) hypertension, and (3) benign prostatic hypertrophy. The coder notes in the patient's laboratory reports hat the patient has an elevated cholesterol level and an elevated psa positive finding. Should the coder code the elevated cholesterol level and an elevated psa positive finding? why?
The coder should code the elevated cholesterol level and an elevated PSA positive finding as they are relevant and documented lab results that support the final diagnoses and provide additional information about the patient's health status.
Elevated cholesterol levels are commonly associated with coronary artery disease, which is one of the patient's final diagnoses, and an elevated PSA level can be an indication of benign prostatic hypertrophy, which is another diagnosis the patient has received. Documenting these laboratory findings provides a more complete picture of the patient's health status and can be important for ensuring accurate coding and billing for the services provided to the patient.
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the patient is experiencing muscle weakness and increased salivation after receiving a cholinergic medication. which action by the nurse is the priority?
The action which is the priority is to Notify the health care provider about potential cholinergic overdose. Option 4 is correct.
Cholinergic drugs are pharmacological substances that operate on the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which is the major neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS). Cholinergic medications are classified into two types: direct-acting and indirect-acting.
By mimicking the effect of Ach, cholinergic medications activate the parasympathetic nervous system. They are prescribed for Alzheimer's disease, glaucoma, urinary retention, and myasthenia gravis, among other conditions. Cholinergic agonists are primarily used to treat the condition Myasthenia Gravis. Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and tiredness. Activating cholinergic receptors causes muscular contraction, heart rate reduction, constriction of the eye and lens, mucus production, and bronchoconstriction.
The complete question is:
The patient is experiencing muscle weakness and increased salivation after receiving a cholinergic medication. What should the nurse do first?
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1. an older adult patient has been admitted after an inferior myocardial infarction (mi). the nurse knows that age-related changes in the cardiovascular system coupled with the mi place the patient at risk for what problem? 1. hypertension 2. heart failure 3. ventricular fibrillation 4. bradycardia quizet
Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system associated with MI put patients at risk for heart failure.
The most common age-related change is increased hardening of the large arteries known as atherosclerosis or hardening of the arteries. This causes hypertension and hypertension, which become more common with age. Resting cardiac output is not affected by age. Maximum cardiac output and aerobic capacity decline with age. There is almost no change in stroke volume with aging. At rest, healthy people may even see a slight increase.Blood pressure is a measure of cardiovascular function. As we age, the structure and function of the heart deteriorate, making us more susceptible to heart failure. As the geriatric population continues to grow, the need for interventions to combat this age-related heart disease becomes more urgent.
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