Reconciliation respects, without endorsing, the sometimes damaging narratives that law enforcement and minority groups have about each other. Thus, the given statement is true.
The reconciliation process acknowledges the very real history of discriminatory law enforcement tactics against minority populations in America, dating back to enslavement. It also acknowledges the occasionally inaccurate narratives each side has about the other without endorsing them.
Many members of minority groups that experience high rates of violent crime and disorder legitimately think that they are being oppressed by the police who use drug laws and other forms of law enforcement. Their estrangement is exacerbated by police disdain, high levels of intrusive police practices like arrest and stop-and-frisk, and history of slavery, Jim Crow, and other legal persecution of minorities.
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black leader who proposed immediate equality
The black leader who proposed immediate equality was Malcolm X. Malcolm X was a prominent figure in the civil rights movement during the 1960s. He advocated for the rights of African Americans and spoke out against the oppression and discrimination they faced. Malcolm X believed that African Americans should not wait for equality, but rather demand it immediately.
He was a strong advocate of black nationalism and self-defense. Malcolm X encouraged African Americans to take control of their own communities and businesses. He believed that African Americans could only achieve true equality through economic and political independence.
Malcolm X's views on equality were controversial, as they were seen as radical by many. However, his message resonated with many African Americans who were frustrated with the slow progress of the civil rights movement. Malcolm X's advocacy for immediate equality paved the way for the Black Power movement and inspired a generation of activists.
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What is not included in the Patient's Bill of Rights? (A. The right to expect reasonable information from the provider) (B. The right to expect information to be kept confidential) (C. The right to take home one's own medical records) (D. The right to a fair hearing about any complaint against a provider, health plan, or facility).
The Patient's Bill of Rights is a set of guarantees that ensure patients receive quality care and treatment while maintaining their dignity and privacy. Among the options provided, what is NOT included in the Patient's Bill of Rights is (C) the right to take home one's own medical records.
The rights typically included involve informed consent, confidentiality, and the ability to voice concerns and complaints.
While patients have the right to access and obtain copies of their medical records, they cannot physically take home the original documents.
These records are maintained by healthcare providers to ensure accurate documentation and continuity of care. Patients can request copies, and in some cases, digital access to their medical information, but original records remain with the healthcare provider or facility.
In contrast, options A, B, and D represent rights that are included in the Patient's Bill of Rights, such as expecting reasonable information from providers, expecting confidentiality of personal and medical information, and having a fair hearing to voice complaints against providers, health plans, or facilities. These rights serve to protect patients and advocate for their well-being within the healthcare system. Hence, C is the correct option.
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supplemental unemployment benefits are not required by law, and are usually funded by the employer. true or false
The statement, "Supplemental unemployment benefits are not mandated by law and are typically provided by employers as an added benefit to their employees," is True.
These benefits are designed to provide financial support to employees who have lost their job due to circumstances beyond their control, such as layoffs or plant closures.
Employers may choose to provide these benefits as a way to attract and retain top talent, as well as to demonstrate their commitment to supporting their workforce. The amount and duration of these benefits can vary depending on the employer and the specific circumstances surrounding the job loss.
It is important to note that supplemental unemployment benefits are different from standard unemployment benefits, which are typically provided by the government to eligible individuals who have lost their job through no fault of their own. These benefits are funded through taxes paid by employers and employees and are administered by state governments.
In summary, while supplemental unemployment benefits are not required by law, they can be a valuable tool for employers to support their employees during times of financial hardship.
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WHAT ARE TWO TYPES OF PROMOTION POINT REEVALUATIONS?
Answer:What are the two types of promotion point reevaluations? Administrative and total.
Explanation:
new Wilson anti-trust act of 1914
The new Wilson anti-trust act of 1914 was a significant piece of legislation aimed at preventing the formation of monopolies and promoting competition in the US economy. The act strengthened existing anti-trust laws and established the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) to investigate and prosecute unfair business practices.
The act made it illegal for companies to engage in anti-competitive practices such as price-fixing, collusion, and mergers that would create a monopoly or significantly reduce competition. It also allowed the government to break up existing monopolies and prohibit certain types of exclusive contracts.
The new Wilson anti-trust act of 1914 marked a significant shift in US economic policy towards regulating and promoting competition. It remains an important piece of legislation to this day and has been used to prosecute and break up some of the largest corporations in US history, including Standard Oil and AT&T.
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The civil rights movement was propelled forward by the Warren Court through the use of
a. judicial activism.
b. strict construction.
c. judicial restraint.
d. broad construction
The Civil Rights Movement was propelled forward by the Warren Court through the use of "judicial activism." Option A) is correct.
The Warren Court, led by Chief Justice Earl Warren, played a significant role in advancing the Civil Rights Movement in the United States. Through the use of judicial activism, the Warren Court made groundbreaking decisions that expanded civil liberties and promoted racial equality. Judicial activism refers to the practice of judges interpreting the Constitution and laws more broadly to advance their own beliefs or policy preferences.
Some notable decisions by the Warren Court include Brown v. Board of Education (1954), which declared racial segregation in public schools unconstitutional, and Loving v. Virginia (1967), which struck down state laws banning interracial marriage.
By actively interpreting the Constitution and implementing changes, the Warren Court helped to establish a legal foundation for the Civil Rights Movement, making it an important force in driving social change and progress during the 1950s and 1960s.
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The I in IPDE stands for:
intelligence
intellectual
identify information
ideology
The "I" in IPDE stands for "Identify Information, " a decision-making process used in defensive driving.
This refers to the first step in the driving process, where the driver must gather and assess information about their surroundings in order to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. This includes scanning the environment for potential hazards, monitoring traffic signals and signs, and being aware of the behavior of other drivers on the road. By identifying relevant information and using it to inform their driving decisions, drivers can help reduce the risk of accidents and ensure a safe and smooth driving experience.
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.Which one of the following entities cannot use the cash method for tax purposes?
a. A large almond farm with $40 million in gross receipts.
b. A continuing education provider with $20 million in gross receipts and 200 employees.
c. A small sole proprietorship with $150,000 in gross receipts.
d. A law firm operating as a personal service corporation with $5.4 million in gross receipts.
e. All of these choices may use the cash method.
The correct answer is (a) A large almond farm with $40 million in gross receipts. This is because the IRS has established certain criteria for businesses to be eligible to use the cash method of accounting for tax purposes.
One of these criteria is that businesses with more than $25 million in average annual gross receipts for the previous three tax years are required to use the accrual method of accounting.
The other options (b) A continuing education provider with $20 million in gross receipts and 200 employees, (c) A small sole proprietorship with $150,000 in gross receipts, and (d) A law firm operating as a personal service corporation with $5.4 million in gross receipts, may all use the cash method for tax purposes as they meet the eligibility criteria set by the IRS.
It is important to note that businesses may choose to use the cash method of accounting for their financial records, but this may not necessarily mean they can use it for tax purposes. It is advisable for businesses to consult with a tax professional or accountant to determine their eligibility for using the cash method for tax purposes.
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Physical evidence can be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion if:
a. It is collected in accordance with the Fourth Amendment.
b. The standard reference sample (control) from the person does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene.
c. It does not have a well-documented chain of custody.
d. Evidence taken from suspect is obtained voluntarily.
Physical evidence is one of the most crucial elements in criminal investigations, as it can provide irrefutable proof of a crime, or alternatively, it can be used to clear someone of suspicion.
However, for physical evidence to be admissible in court, it must have a well-documented chain of custody. This means that the evidence must be accounted for every step of the way, from the moment it is collected to the moment it is presented in court. If there is any gap in the chain of custody, the admissibility of the evidence may be called into question, and it may not be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion.
Additionally, the standard reference sample (control) must be carefully chosen to ensure that it does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene. If the reference sample is contaminated or in any way related to the crime, it may lead to false conclusions and incorrect identification.
Lastly, evidence taken from a suspect must be obtained voluntarily and in accordance with the Fourth Amendment. Any violation of the Fourth Amendment, such as an unlawful search and seizure, can render the evidence inadmissible in court.
In summary, physical evidence can be a powerful tool in criminal investigations, but it must be collected and maintained with care to ensure its admissibility in court and to avoid false conclusions. A well-documented chain of custody, careful selection of the reference sample, and adherence to the Fourth Amendment are all critical factors in ensuring the integrity of physical evidence.
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WHAT FM COVERS DRILL AND CERMONY?
The manual is an essential resource for Army leaders and soldiers responsible for conducting drill and ceremony, and helps to ensure that the Army's traditions and customs are preserved and maintained.
Why FM covers dirll and cermony?[tex]FM 3-21.5[/tex] (Drill and Ceremonies) covers the Army's procedures for drill and ceremony. The manual provides guidance for Army leaders and soldiers in conducting drill and ceremony for formations, ceremonies, and parades. It covers various topics such as the purpose and principles of drill, individual and unit drill, and various movements and formations.
The manual also provides guidance on how to conduct ceremonies, such as change of command, promotions, and awards ceremonies. It includes information on the roles and responsibilities of the participants in the ceremony, as well as the appropriate procedures and etiquette to be followed.
By following the guidance provided in [tex]FM 3-21.5[/tex], Army leaders and soldiers can maintain high standards of appearance and discipline, develop teamwork and pride in their unit, and demonstrate respect and honor for the Army's traditions and heritage.
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signing this tariff made Taft look anti-progressive
Signing the Payne-Aldrich Tariff made President Taft look anti-progressive because it contradicted the platform of the Republican Party and went against the interests of the general public.
The tariff favored big businesses and special interests, rather than the common people, which was not aligned with the Progressive movement's values.
The Republicans had promised to lower tariffs during the 1908 election, but the Payne-Aldrich Tariff raised them, creating resentment among progressives.
Taft's support of the tariff made him look like he was betraying his party's promises and going against the interests of the people.
This caused him to lose support from many progressives and contributed to the division within the Republican Party.
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The probable question may be :
How did signing this tariff make Taft look anti-progressive?
The end goal of racial reconciliation is to enter a process that will yield what benefits?
The ultimate aim of racial reconciliation is to start a process that will result in mass incarceration being reduced, violence being decreased, and policing becoming more effective and efficient.
Reconciliation is a method used in accounting to compare two sets of records and determine whether the statistics are accurate and consistent. The general ledger's accounts' consistency, accuracy, and completeness are also verified by reconciliation.
In order to achieve racial reconciliation, communities and law enforcement must realize that: 1) they profoundly misunderstand one another, 2) they both contribute to damages neither wants, and 3), in key areas, they share the same aim.
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WHAT AR COVERS ENLISTED PROMOTIONS AND REDUCTIONS?
It helps to ensure that soldiers are promoted based on their qualifications and performance, and that reductions are carried out only when necessary and in accordance with established procedures.
How we can find AR covers enlisted promotions?The Army Regulation ([tex]AR[/tex]) that covers enlisted promotions and reductions is [tex]AR 600-8-19[/tex], also known as the Enlisted Promotions and Reductions regulation. This regulation outlines the policies and procedures for promoting and reducing enlisted soldiers within the Army.
[tex]AR 600-8-19[/tex] establishes the eligibility criteria, promotion criteria, and promotion board procedures for enlisted soldiers, including those in the active component, Army Reserve, and Army National Guard. It also outlines the procedures for reducing soldiers in grade due to misconduct, substandard performance, or other reasons.
The regulation provides guidance on the role of the promotion boards, which are responsible for selecting soldiers for promotion based on their qualifications and performance. It also outlines the procedures for appealing promotion board decisions and for requesting reconsideration of a promotion board decision.
[tex]AR 600-8-19[/tex] also establishes the procedures for processing promotions and reductions, including the documentation and record-keeping requirements. It provides guidance on the effective date of promotions, promotion points, and the calculation of promotion scores.
Overall, [tex]AR 600-8-19[/tex] is an important regulation that ensures that the promotion and reduction of enlisted soldiers within the Army is fair, transparent, and based on objective criteria.
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a "tug of war" regarding drug courts occurs between criminal justice professionals and
Drug courts have become a popular alternative to traditional criminal justice methods for addressing drug-related offenses.
However, a "tug of war" has emerged between criminal justice professionals over the effectiveness of these courts.
Supporters argue that drug courts provide a more therapeutic approach that focuses on treating addiction rather than simply punishing offenders.
Opponents, on the other hand, argue that drug courts are too lenient and allow offenders to avoid jail time and accountability for their actions.
Additionally, some argue that the strict requirements and conditions placed on participants can actually be counterproductive and lead to high rates of failure. Ultimately, the debate over drug courts highlights the ongoing tension between punishment and rehabilitation within the criminal justice system.
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Match the institutional action to the number of senators necessary to carry it out: a) Override a presidential veto b) Ratify a treaty c) Approve a Supreme Court nominee d) Impeach and remove a president e) Pass a lawi) Simple majority in the Senate ii) Two-thirds majority in the Senate iii) Simple majority in the House of Representatives iv) Two-thirds majority in both the House and Senate v) Presidential approval
Institutional actions and corresponding number of senators needed to carry them are: a) Override a presidential veto - ii) Two-thirds majority in the Senate; b) Ratify a treaty - ii) Two-thirds majority in the Senate; c) Approve a Supreme Court nominee - i) Simple majority in the Senate; d) Impeach and remove a president - iv) Two-thirds majority in both the House and Senate; and e) Pass a law - v) Presidential approval.
Matching the institutional actions to the number of senators necessary to carry them out are as follows:
a) Override a presidential veto - ii) Two-thirds majority in the Senate
To override a presidential veto, both the Senate and the House of Representatives need a two-thirds majority vote.
b) Ratify a treaty - ii) Two-thirds majority in the Senate
To ratify a treaty, the Senate needs a two-thirds majority vote.
c) Approve a Supreme Court nominee - i) Simple majority in the Senate
To approve a Supreme Court nominee, the Senate needs a simple majority vote.
d) Impeach and remove a president - iv) Two-thirds majority in both the House and Senate
To impeach and remove a president, the House of Representatives first needs a simple majority vote for impeachment, followed by a two-thirds majority vote in the Senate for removal.
e) Pass a law - v) Presidential approval
To pass a law, both the Senate and the House of Representatives need a simple majority vote, followed by presidential approval. If the president vetoes the bill, it can still become law with a two-thirds majority vote in both the Senate and the House of Representatives.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. A flow age easement may be either ________________ or ________________.
FILL IN THE BLANK. A flow age easement may be either property for the purpose of maintaining a waterway. or This easement may be either permanent or temporary.
A flowage easement is a type of easement that grants permission to a person or entity to use someone else's property for the purpose of maintaining a waterway. This easement may be either permanent or temporary.
A permanent flowage easement is one that lasts indefinitely and gives the holder the right to use the property for the designated purpose for as long as they wish. This type of easement is typically granted for flood control or other water management purposes, and is often used by government agencies or utility companies.
A temporary flowage easement, on the other hand, is one that is granted for a specific period of time, often during a construction project or other temporary use. This type of easement may also be granted for flood control purposes during a specific weather event, such as a hurricane or severe storm.
In either case, a flowage easement is a legal agreement that specifies the rights and responsibilities of both parties involved. The property owner typically retains ownership of the land, but grants permission for the flowage easement holder to use it for the designated purpose. The terms of the easement may include restrictions on the use of the property, as well as compensation or other provisions for the property owner.
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frequent use of weak punishers is more effective than occasional use of intense punishers. True or false?
The statement, "frequent use of weak punishers is not more effective than occasional use of intense punishers", is false.
In fact, it is quite the opposite. Weak punishers, such as verbal reprimands or minor consequences, may not deter behavior as effectively as intense punishers, such as loss of privileges or more severe consequences.
However, it is important to note that punishment should not be the sole means of behavior modification and should be used sparingly and appropriately. Overuse of punishment can lead to negative consequences, including increased aggression, decreased motivation, and strained relationships.
It is also important to consider the individual and the behavior being addressed. Some individuals may respond better to a more intense punishment, while others may not require punishment at all and can be redirected with positive reinforcement or other interventions.
Overall, the effectiveness of punishment is dependent on a variety of factors, including the severity of the behavior, the individual's temperament, and the type of punishment used.
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WHA IS THE PURPOSE OF THE SECONDARY ZONE?
The purpose of the secondary zone is to provide redundancy and fault tolerance for a domain name system (DNS) by allowing multiple servers to host copies of a zone's information.
What is objective of secondary zone?In the DNS, a zone is a contiguous portion of the DNS namespace for which a single DNS server is responsible.
The zone contains information about domain names within that portion of the namespace, including the mappings between domain names and their corresponding IP addresses.
A secondary zone is a read-only copy of a primary zone that is stored on a different DNS server.
The primary server is responsible for updating the zone's information, while the secondary servers periodically check for updates and synchronize their copies of the zone with the primary server's copy.
By having multiple servers host copies of the zone's information, the secondary zone provides redundancy and fault tolerance for the DNS.
If the primary server becomes unavailable or its copy of the zone becomes corrupted, the secondary servers can continue to respond to DNS queries for the zone,names within the zone remain reachable.
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SR/"Corruption of Minors" (MPC 213.3)
SR, in this context, likely stands for "Sexual Relations." Corruption of Minors is an offense that typically involves engaging in inappropriate or illegal activities with a minor. MPC 213.3 refers to a section of the Model Penal Code that addresses the Corruption of Minors.
MPC 213.3 outlines the offense of Corruption of Minors, which may include engaging in sexual relations, exposing minors to harmful material, or encouraging them to engage in illegal activities. The purpose of this law is to protect minors from being exploited or negatively influenced by adults.
To understand and address an issue involving SR/"Corruption of Minors" (MPC 213.3), one should:
1. Identify the specific action(s) involved in the offense, such as sexual relations or exposing minors to harmful material.
2. Determine if the action(s) violate the provisions of MPC 213.3.
3. Assess the severity of the offense and the appropriate legal consequences based on the jurisdiction's laws and regulations.
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Visual acuity is improved by:
IPDE Process
high beams
speed
tinted windows
Visual acuity, which refers to the clarity of vision, can be improved by the IPDE (Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute) process, a set of skills that helps drivers be more aware and proactive on the road.
High beams can also improve visual acuity by increasing the amount of light that enters the eye, especially in low-light conditions. However, speed and tinted windows can hurt visual acuity. Speed reduces the amount of time that the eyes have to process visual information, while tinted windows can decrease the amount of light that enters the eye. Therefore, driving at a safe speed and avoiding tinted windows is important to ensure optimal visual acuity.
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Woodrow Wilson;s political program in 1912
Woodrow Wilson's political program in 1912 was focused on progressive reforms and improving the lives of ordinary Americans. His program, known as the "New Freedom," included several key policies aimed at reducing the power of big corporations and promoting greater economic and political freedom for individuals.
One of Wilson's most important proposals was the creation of a federal reserve system, which would help regulate the nation's banking system and prevent financial crises. He also called for the establishment of a federal trade commission to protect consumers and prevent monopolies.
In addition to economic reforms, Wilson also advocated for greater political participation and democracy. He supported the direct election of senators, which would give voters more control over their representatives, and the adoption of women's suffrage, which would grant women the right to vote.
Overall, Wilson's political program represented a major shift towards progressive policies and a more active role for the federal government in promoting social and economic justice.
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statute of limitations starts to run after the injury of DISCOVERED
____________ rule
The statute of limitations starts to run after the injury or harm is DISCOVERED under the "discovery rule."
The discovery rule is a legal principle that delays the start of the statute of limitations until the injured party discovers, or reasonably should have discovered, that they have been harmed by another party's actions.
This rule is often applied in cases where the injury or harm is not immediately apparent or where the injured party may not have been aware that their injury was caused by someone else's actions.
For example, in cases of medical malpractice, the discovery rule may be applied if a patient did not discover that they were harmed by a medical error until well after the procedure or treatment was completed.
In such cases, the statute of limitations would not begin to run until the patient discovered or reasonably should have discovered that they were harmed.
The discovery rule varies by jurisdiction and can be subject to specific legal requirements and exceptions.
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The case of Painter v. Bannister (1966) illustrates:
The case of Painter v. Bannister (1966) illustrates the doctrine of implied consent in medical treatment. In this case, a surgeon performed a procedure on a patient to remove a hernia, but while the patient was still under anesthesia, the surgeon also removed the patient's testicles without obtaining his explicit consent.
The patient sued the surgeon, arguing that he had not consented to the removal of his testicles. However, the court held that the patient had impliedly consented to the removal of his testicles because he had consented to the hernia surgery, which required access to the testicles. The court reasoned that the removal of the testicles was necessary to facilitate the hernia surgery, and that the patient had given his implied consent by agreeing to the surgery.This case illustrates the importance of obtaining informed consent for medical procedures and the limits of implied consent in medical treatment.
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for an implied agency to function, implied authority cannot conflict with express authority. (True or False)
The given statement "for an implied agency to function effectively, implied authority cannot conflict with express authority " is True because, in any agency relationship, there are two main types of authority: express and implied.
Express authority is the specific, clear, and direct instructions given by the principal to the agent, whereas implied authority includes the powers and actions that are reasonably necessary for the agent to carry out the express authority.
A harmonious relationship between express and implied authority is essential for the successful functioning of an agency. If the implied authority conflicts with the express authority, it can lead to confusion, miscommunication, and potential legal issues between the principal, agent, and third parties.
For example, if a principal explicitly instructs an agent not to negotiate prices with clients, the agent must adhere to this express authority. Any attempt by the agent to negotiate prices would be considered a breach of express authority and may result in legal consequences for both the agent and the principal.
In conclusion, for an implied agency to operate efficiently and to maintain a strong principal-agent relationship, it is crucial that implied authority does not conflict with express authority. This ensures that the agent acts in the best interests of the principal and avoids any potential legal issues that may arise due to unauthorized actions.
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Lynn owns a life policy that guarantees the right to renew the policy each year, regardless of health, but an an increased premium. What kind of policy is this?
Lynn owns a life policy that guarantees the right to renew the policy each year, regardless of her health, but at an increased premium. This kind of policy is called a "Guaranteed Renewable Life Policy."
The advantage of a Guaranteed Renewable Life Policy is that it provides the policyholder with some certainty about their future insurability. While the premiums may increase as the policyholder ages, they are guaranteed the right to renew the policy every year, which can be beneficial if their health declines and they become uninsurable. However, it's important to note that the policyholder's coverage may be subject to certain limitations or exclusions based on their health status. Therefore, it's crucial to carefully review the policy's terms and conditions to fully understand the coverage provided and any potential limitations or exclusions.
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According to legal scholar, Morris Cohen, why should victimless crimes be criminally prohibited?a. Because then moral crusaders would not get to define the lawb. Because victimless crimes are highly immoral just like "street crimes."c. Because one of the functions of criminal law is to express the public's shared sense of moralityd. Because victimless crimes cause social harm and all acts that cause social harm are criminally prohibited
According to legal scholar Morris Cohen, victimless crimes should be criminally prohibited because one of the functions of criminal law is to express the public's shared sense of morality. Th ecorrect answer is option (c).
In other words, the law is not only a means to punish those who harm others but also to uphold the values and beliefs of society as a whole. This includes prohibiting acts that are considered highly immoral, such as victimless crimes, which do not necessarily harm a specific individual but can cause social harm. Hence, the right answer is option (b).By criminalizing such acts, the law sends a message to society that such behavior is unacceptable and goes against the shared moral code.
Cohen's argument also implies that the law should not be solely defined by moral crusaders, but rather reflect the collective values and principles of the community. Overall, the criminalization of victimless crimes serves as a way to uphold societal morals and protect the public from potential social harm.
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Not a primary ecological concern of UN's national global agenda?
Not a primary ecological concern of the UN's national global agenda, issues such as the protection of certain endangered species or the conservation of specific ecosystems may not be considered primary concerns in the context of the broader global agenda.
Objectives of the UN's national global agendaThe UN's national global agenda is focused on addressing primary ecological concerns such as climate change, biodiversity loss, and environmental pollution.
However, other activities include maintaining international peace and security, protecting human rights, delivering humanitarian aid, promoting sustainable development, and upholding international law. instruments for settling crises peacefully, preventing wars, and codifying rules of warfare.
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future regulation related to the Dodd-Frank Act of 2010 needs to include: a) Stricter regulations on credit rating agencies b) More lenient regulations on banks c) Looser regulations on derivatives trading d) Reduction in regulatory agencies overseeing the financial sector
Future regulation related to the Dodd-Frank Act of 2010 should include stricter regulations on credit rating agencies and a reduction in regulatory agencies overseeing the financial sector. The correct answer are option (a) and (d).
Credit rating agencies played a significant role in the 2008 financial crisis by providing inaccurate ratings to risky securities, leading investors to make unsound investments. Therefore, stricter regulations on these agencies can help prevent a similar crisis from occurring in the future. A reduction in regulatory agencies overseeing the financial sector can lead to regulatory capture and decrease the effectiveness of oversight. Therefore, it is essential to have a sufficient number of regulatory agencies to oversee the financial sector and prevent any misconduct. Hence the correct answers are option (a) and (d).
On the other hand, more lenient regulations on banks and looser regulations on derivatives trading should not be included in future regulation. Looser regulations on derivatives trading can increase the risk of another financial crisis, while more lenient regulations on banks can lead to banks taking on too much risk and engaging in reckless behavior.
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Some people in minority communities affected by high levels of violent crime and disorder genuinely believe that police are using drug laws and other law enforcement as a means to oppress them. What are the causes of this thought process?
Causes of this thought process:
high levels of police intrusiveness, including arrest and stop-and-frisk;history of legal discrimination against minorities, including Jim Crow laws and slavery;cops acting in a disrespectful manner.The term "violent crime" refers to a wide range of offenses, from simple assault to murder. The use of weapons like knives, guns, and caustic chemicals like acid are also included. Manslaughter and murder. Legal discrimination against minorities has a long history, including slavery and Jim Crow legislation. police disrespectfully behaving.
Murder and manslaughter are crimes in which one person kills another without authorization. The most frequent kind of violent crime is aggravated assault. It encompasses illegal activity including an attack on a person with the intention of inflicting harm.
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What primarily has diminished the ability of third parties from becoming equal contenders with the Republican and Democratic parties in Texas?
The primary factor that has diminished the ability of third parties from becoming equal contenders with the Republican and Democratic parties in Texas is the state's electoral system
In Texas, most elections are winner-takes-all, meaning that the candidate with the most votes wins the election. This system tends to favor the two major parties because it makes it difficult for third-party candidates to win elections, even if they have significant support.Another factor is the high cost of campaigning in Texas, which can make it difficult for third-party candidates to raise enough money to mount a competitive campaign. The two major parties have well-established networks of donors and supporters, making it easier for their candidates to raise the funds needed to run a successful campaign.
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