A point source is a single, identifiable source of pollution, such as a pipe or a drain.
What is point and non point source of pollution ?Point-source pollution is defined as contamination that comes from a single, distinguishable source, such as a manufacturing discharge pipe or sewage treatment facility. Nonpoint-source pollution is contamination that is the result of several sources, or points.
Point sources or scattered sources are both responsible for water pollution. A pipe or channel, such as one used for sewage discharge from a city sewer system or an industrial site, is referred to as a point source. Various contaminants can come from a very large, unconstrained area known as a scattered (or nonpoint) source.
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what animal would best fit into the x spot in this food chain: grass > beetle > x > rat snake > fox?
what animal would best fit into the x spot in this food chain: grass > beetle > x > rat snake > fox . mouse will fit in x spot
A food chain explains which organism in the ecosystem consumes another. The food chain is a succession of living things that transmits nutrients and energy from one organism to the next. When one organism ingests another, this happens. Following the chain, it starts with the producer organism and finishes with the decomposer organism. We become aware of how one organism depends on another for survival once we understand the food chain.
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base your answer on the diagram below and on your knowledgeof biology. the diagram represents a single celled organism, such as an amoeba, undergoing the changes shown. process 1 is known as
an amoeba, undergoing the changes shown. process 1 is known as mitotic cell division.
Which five steps in mitotic cell division are there?According to current understanding, mitosis comprises five stages depending on the physical condition of the chromosomes and spindle.Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, metaphase, and telophase are these stages.
How is the proof of mitotic cell division presented?Some species use the process of mitotic cell division to procreate or make new life.Mitosis is a reproductive process employed by single-celled eukaryotic organisms such amoebas.A single cell organism divides into two new cells to produce a second copy of itself when it multiplies.
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which taxonomic rank includes more organisms than a genus, but less than an order?
A second classification known as a kingdom exists within every domain. Kingdoms are followed by the categories of phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species, which are listed in increasing order of specificity. Figure: Taxonomic classification levels Organisms are more similar between each sublevel of the taxonomic classification system.
Kingdom, phylum or division, class, order, family, genus, and species are the seven main taxonomic ranks. Additionally, despite not being mentioned in any of the nomenclature codes, the Carl Woese-proposed term "domain," which is a synonym for "dominion," is now widely used as a fundamental rank.
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What will happen if a chemical that blocks transcription is present in a cell trying to produce a new enzyme?
An enzyme called RNA polymerase and several auxiliary proteins known as transcription factors carry out transcription.
What specific enzyme is involved in transcription? An enzyme known as RNA polymerase and a number of auxiliary proteins known as transcription factors are responsible for carrying out transcription.In order to direct RNA polymerase to the proper transcription site, transcription factors can bind to specific DNA sequences known as enhancer and promoter sequences.If TBLs are left unrepaired, this blocked transcription can result in severe cellular dysfunction and eventually DNA-damage-induced aging because the prolonged stalling of RNAP2 on lesions can stop cell cycle progression and trigger apoptosis [2], [3].RNA polymerase's binding to the promoter site starts transcription.To learn more about RNA polymerase refer
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Which of the following is a physical barrier in the nonspecific (innate) defense of a mammalian
host? Select one
Inflammation
Fever
Mucous membranes
Antibody
Phagocytosis
The physical barrier in mammalian host nonspecific defense is mucous membranes.
The true choice is C
The body's defense system is a system that protects the body from harmful particles, pathogens, disease-causing foreign objects, and abnormal body cells. The body's defense system is divided into two, namely the specific body defense system and the non-specific body defense system
External nonspecific defenses are the body's most external defenses, and their combat protects against antigens entering the body. For example, the skin, mucous membranes or mucous membranes, and tear glands.
Specific defense is the immune system that can identify and remember specific pathogens so that it can be prepared in case of infection with the same pathogen in the future. An important example of an adaptive immune system is lymphocytes.
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What are some of the animals that live in the ecosystems of the great barrier reef?
in the ecosystems species that you are likely familiar with, like sharks, crocodiles, turtles, dolphins, and turtles. Along with the enormous algae, there are poisonous sea snakes, vividly colored worms, and algae.
What types of habitats are present in the Barrier Reef?Coral reefs, bay floors, islands, open ocean, seagrass, coast, estuaries, freshwater wetlands, wooded floodplains, heath and savannahs, grass and sedgelands, woods, woods, and rainforests are among the 14 coastal habitats that are crucial to the operation of the Reef.
Does the Reef of the Pacific have sharks?The Barrier Reef is home to a variety of shark species, from little bottom-dwelling ones like wobbegongs to larger ones like tiger sharks and the recognizable hammerhead shark with a nose resembling a hammer.
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04.6. Imagine species whose eye color is determined by receptor molecule called EyeC. When EyeC is not activaled, cAMP levels in the cell are low and yellow pigment is produced. When EyeC is activated by the binding of a signal molecule_ cAMP levels rise and blue pigment is produced. The Q allele codes for version of EyeC that responds t0 signal molecules and therefore turns on and off, resulting in green eye color (trom both blue and yellow pigment). The Pallele codes for version of EyeC that Is ALWAYS activated. even when signal molecules are not present Assuming EyeC functions similarly t0 MCTR; which of the following statements is the best prediction ol the dominance relationship between alleles and Qas well as the phenotype for PQ individuals? Q is dominant Over P and the eye color of PQ individuals is blue dorninant over P ad Ihe eye color of PO individuals vellow Pis dominant over 0 ard (he eye color of PO individuals i5 blue Pand Q are codominant and the eye color of PQ individuals I5 green
Assuming the function of EyeC is similar to that of MCR1, the best predictor of the dominance relationship between the P and Q alleles and the phenotype for a PQ individual is that Q is dominant to P, and the eye color of the PQ individual is yellow.
The answer is B
The Q allele encodes a version of EyeC that is always active, even when the signaling molecule is not present. And the P allele encodes a version of EyeC that responds to signaling molecules and therefore switches on and off, resulting in green eye color (made up of blue and yellow pigments). Therefore Q dominates P.
When EyeC is activated by binding to a signaling molecule, cAMP levels increase, and a yellow dye is formed. So, the eye color of the PQ phenotype is yellow.
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eukaryotes that reproduce through reproduction require two cells to contribute genetic material for the production of the next generation.
Sexual reproduction eukaryotes that reproduce through reproduction require two cells to contribute genetic material for the production of the next generation.
A gamete with a single set of chromosomes combines with another gamete to create a zygote, which then develops into an organism made up of cells with two sets of chromosomes. Sexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that involves a complex life cycle.
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The membrane attack complex (MAC) kills Gram-negative bacteria through opsonization: starving them of nutrients_ the lectin pathway: creating pore on the bacterial membranes antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity; o ADCC.
The membrane attack complex (MAC) kills Gram-negative bacteria through: creating pore on the bacterial membranes
As a result of the activation of the host's complement system, a complex of proteins known as the membrane attack complex (MAC) or terminal complement complex (TCC) is normally generated on the surface of pathogen cell membranes, and as such is an effector of the immune system. , the wowed by the, the wowed by the, the, the, the, the, the, the, the, the, and the, and the, and the, and the When the MAC is assembled, holes are created that damage the target cells' cell membranes, causing cell lysis and death.
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The increased output of urine is known as _____.
Increased urine output is known as polyuria, or bladder disease, makes you want to urinate more often.
PolyuriaPolyuria is a condition when the body produces excess urine (urine). This condition, which includes bladder disease, makes you want to urinate more often. When urinating, the urine released is much more than it should be.
Symptoms of polyuria
The main symptom of frequent urination is of course the frequent urge to urinate. A healthy adult urinates normally 6-7 times a day. Urinating up to 10 times in 24 hours is still considered normal as long as there are no complaints and the urine looks normal.
Causes of Excessive Urine Production
Type 1 and 2 diabetes. The kidneys cannot filter sugar in the blood. As a result, the urine that comes out carries a lot of fluids so that you urinate frequently.Diabetes insipidus. This disease makes it difficult for the body to control the amount of fluid. The impact, you are more often thirsty and always want to urinate.Kidney illness. If its function decreases, the kidneys cannot produce urine as before. One of the effects is the production of excess urine.Pregnancy. Pregnancy can trigger gestational diabetes. This disease triggers the same impact as diabetes mellitus on urine production.Liver disease. The liver functions to break down the body's waste substances and distribute them to the kidneys for disposal. Disorders of the liver can affect kidney function.Worry. Excessive anxiety can upset the balance of vasopressin. This substance controls the water content in the kidneys.Learn more about Polyuria at: https://brainly.com/question/14812978
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Gregor Mendel proposed laws to determine how alleles from sex cells created during meiosis could be combined. Which of these laws is BEST shown in the diagram, and why?
The law that is BEST shown in the diagram are the principles of segregation and independent assortment that are explained by the physical behavior of chromosomes during meiosis. Random and independent distribution during metaphase I can be demonstrated by considering a cell with a set of two chromosomes (n = 2).
What was Gregor Mendel's main work?Among the main legacies of this monk and researcher are the famous Laws of Mendel. His work with sweet peas, carried out at the monastery, evaluated how the hybridization of different species of peas occurred.
Why is Mendel considered the father of genetics?Mendel is considered the father of genetics, as he discovered many things related to heredity. Because of his studies and experiments with peas, genetics advanced and today we have a multitude of articles and research in this area that are useful for understanding life.
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plasma cells group of answer choices produce and secrete antibodies. are derived from t-lymphocytes. function in blood clotting. function in cell-mediated immunity. all of the choices are correct.
Differentiated t lymphocytes can differentiate into plasma cells, which have a number of uses. The right response is thus all of these selections are appropriate.
Plasma cells, which are differentiated t-lymphocyte white blood cells (WBCs), have the capacity to release immunoglobulin or antibodies. The primary cells in charge of humoral immunity, these cells are essential to the adaptive immune response. Without them, a person is deemed to have agammaglobulinemia and is particularly susceptible to recurrent illness. Here, the haematological lineage, structure, and function of plasma cells are investigated together with the clinical symptoms caused by unsuitable plasma cell growth and development. Factors produced by plasma cells are crucial for blood coagulation.
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protiens are made by joining into long chains called
Polypeptides, which are extremely long chains, are assembled to form proteins.
What are the names of lengthy protein chains?These amino acids are arranged in a long chain and joined to one another by covalent peptide bonds to form proteins.Polypeptides are another name for proteins.
How are proteins created through fusion?Peptide bonds, in which the amino or NH2 of one amino acid bonds to the carboxyl (acid) or COOH group of another amino acid, are how amino acids are joined to form polypeptides and proteins.
What do you call long chains of molecules?The majority of large biological molecules are polymers, which are composed of long chains of monomers, or repeating molecular building blocks.
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1. Which of the following is an adaptive characteristic of bipedalism? A. absence of arch in the foot B. nails instead of claws C. convergent eyes D. valgus knee 2. The earliest pre-australopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley is A. Orrorin tugenensis. B. Ardipithecus kadabba. C. Sahelanthropus tchadensis. D. Ardipithecus ramidus. 3. Which of the following is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchadensis? A. big toe opposability B. length of the calcaneus C. larger body size D. nonhoning chewing
Valgus knee is an adaptive characteristic of bipedalism.
Sahelanthropus tchadensis is the earliest pre-australopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley.
Nonhoning chewing is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
In order to maintain the body weight well above ankle throughout bipedal movement, for instance, the valgus knee (angle at the knee) is a crucial adaption. But ultimately, the stress and shock absorption at an inclined knee take their toll, and runners frequently complain of joint pain.
The presence of a bicondylar angle, or valgus knee; a more inferiorly positioned foramen magnum; the presence of a reduced or nonopposable big toe; a higher arch on the foot; and a more posterior orientation of the anterior portion are major morphological characteristics diagnostic (i.e., informative) of bipedalism.
Sahelanthropus tchadensis is the earliest pre-australopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley.
One of the earliest species in the human phylogeny is known as Sahelanthropus tchadensis. Between seven and six million years ago, this animal inhabited Africa. This species may have been able to live in a variety of settings, including as meadows and woodlands, thanks to upright walking.
Nonhoning chewing is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
African hominins, also known as the earliest humans, split out from apes between 6 and 7 million years ago. Sahelanthropus tchadensis differs from humans in two key anatomical ways: Small canines, and standing upright on two legs as opposed to four.
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what is the role of the sodium potassium pump in establishing and maintianing resting membrane potential
The sodium-potassium pump continually removes three sodium ions from the cell for every two potassium ions it introduces. Thus, it preserves the significant potassium ion gradient across the membrane, which served as the foundation for the resting membrane potential.
What is the role of sodium-potassium pump?
The sodium-potassium pump is a protein that has been found in many cells and is responsible for keeping the internal concentration of sodium ions [Na+] lower than that of the surrounding medium (blood, body fluid, or water) and the internal concentration of potassium ions [K+] higher than that of the surrounding medium (blood, body fluid, or water). The adenosine-triphosphatase (ATPase)-active pump moves across the cell membrane and is triggered by both internal [Na+] and external [K+].
This enzyme pumps K+ inward and Na+ outward using metabolic energy. The steady state differential in Na+ and K+ concentrations maintained by the pump is essential for maintaining the resting potential of cells and associated bioelectric phenomena like the action potential. There have also been discovered additional ion pumps that transfer various ions.
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dihybrid cross: black fur in mice (b) is dominant to brown fur (b). the short tail trait (t) is dominant to long tails (t). what proportion of the progeny of the cross bbtt x bbtt will have black fur and long tails?
Black fur and long tails will be present in half of the offspring of the bbtt x bbtt hybrid.
How many of the offspring of the BBtt X BBtt hybrid will have long, black tails?50% of all creatures will have characteristic long tails and black fur. Explained: The given cross is a form of back cross in which a recessive parent and an organism from the f1 generation are combined. There will be 50% BbTt and 50% BBtt as a result.
What genotype do the mice have that have black fur?The black mouse under investigation may have the BB or Bb genotype, according to Mendelian genetics. It would be cross-tested with a genotype bb (white fur phenotypic) in order to ascertain the genotype.
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what is the best strategy that can be used to specifically target the mutant htt allele responsible for huntington disease without causing off-target effects? group of answer choices
The best strategy that can be used to specifically target the mutant HTT allele responsible for Huntington Disease without causing off-target effects is option C: make sure that no sequences in the genome are identical or too similar to the 20 bp sequence involved in base pairing between the sgRNA and the target site.
It is essential to distinguish mutant HTT from wild-type HTT, either at the enlarged CAG repeat itself or associated SNPs identified preferentially on the mutant HTT transcript, in order to selectively target mutant HTT for gene silencing or editing. Therefore, selective suppression of mutant HTT may offer greater tolerability and effectiveness during prolonged, potentially lifelong HTT suppressive therapy periods. Thus, option C marks the right answer.
Huntington's disease (HD) is brought on by mutated HTT, which has also been studied for its potential involvement in long-term memory storage. Due to the numerous polymorphisms of the gene, the protein's structure can vary depending on the quantity of glutamine residues that are present.
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Complete question is:
The following diagram shows the complex between an sgRNA and a target site in the genome where Cas9 cuts DNA at the indicated positions. The protospacer adjacent motif or PAM site (5'-NGG-3' on one strand; N is any base) needs to be present adjacent to the target site in order for Cas9-mediated cleavage to occur. One problem associated with CRISPR/Cas9 technology is off-target effects. Part of the reason is that single base-pair mismatches between the target site and the sgRNA in the 20 bp DNA/RNA hybrid do not prevent Cas9 cleavage of the target site. What strategy do you need to use in order to target the mutant Htt allele that causes Huntington disease without off-target effects?
a. Look for a unique target sequence in the Htt gene that lacks a PAM site nearby.
b. Use mutant Cas 9 enzyme with decreased target specificity.
c. Make sure that no sequences in the genome are identical or too similar to the 20 bp sequence involved in base pairing between the sgRNA and the target site.
d. Use multiple sgRNAs, each of which has one mismatch with the target sequence at different positions.
e. Design sgRNA that can base pair with several regions in the genome including the Htt gene locus to ensure efficient cleavage of the mutant allele.
In a graded potential, what is the effect of cytoplasmic resistance and current leak?
a) More K+ is able to enter the cell, off-setting the depolarizing effects of Na+.
b) The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over distance.
c) Fewer Na+ can cross the membrane in response to the stimulus.
d) The outer membrane surface becomes more positively charged, causing hyperpolarization.
(b)The strength of the signal inside the cell decreases over a distance
Depolarizing current from an action potential travels very rapidly through the cytoplasm of axons, insulated by myelin until reaching the next node of Ranvier. At each node, the membrane depolarizes above the threshold voltage, and the influx of sodium ions again initiates the action potential through Nav
And those generated by stimuli and sensory receptors are also called receptor potentials. A graded potential like this one, that moves the membrane potential to a less negative number, or closer to zero, is called a depolarization, because now the membrane is less polarised. It has less charge separation.
That is, neurons have a resting membrane potential (or simply, resting potential) of about −30 mV start text, m, V, end text to −90 mV start function, m, V, end text. Because there is a potential difference across the cell membrane, the membrane is said to be polarised.
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As part of your research, you examine mRNA expression for the parents, their two unaffected children, and their affected child with a Northern blot using a full-length cDNA probe.
Your results, shown here, are as follows:
Both parents have low, but detectable, mRNA expression.
The unaffected children have either normal or low mRNA expression.
The affected child has no detectable mRNA expression.
What possible molecular defect could explain these results?
The recessive allele could be a mutation in the transcribed region that makes the mRNA unstable and causes it to degrade.
What possible molecular defect could explain these results?The recessive allele could be a mutation in the promoter region that prevents RNA polymerase II from binding.The recessive allele could be a mutation in regulatory DNA that prevents chromatin from being remodeled from a closed to an open state.
What is the role of mRNA and tRNA in translation?Transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA) is a type of RNA molecule that helps decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a protein. tRNAs function at specific sites in the ribosome during translation, which is a process that synthesizes a protein from an mRNA molecule.
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Photorespiration occurs mainly in? A CAM plants_ B. C3 plants C4 plants_ all of the answer choices_ Wihich statement NOT trule abou: photosystems? Elactone are transfered along thc membranc fom natosustam Phatos ystom Electton; tha reactinn center molecula Are excited hy Absorhed wolar enerjy and Are pasred alona acrertar maleciile Each phatosystem conlalns numerous plgmont mcleculos that actas antennas capturo Iighl: Photosyslem cniains raaclinn canter Molecula thalidses elertrans *hich Arethen raainati Dy alactons " Iiom Waten Which of the following pairs is correct? C4 plants stoma that contain chlorophyll B. CAM plants epidermal cells that contain chlorophyll CC3 plants bundle sheath cells contain chlorophyll C4 plants bundle sheath cells contain chlorophyll Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water? A. the citric acid cycle B. glycolysis C.the electron transport system D.fermentation
Photorespiration occurs mainly in C3 plants and C4 plants.
What is Photorespiration?
Photorespiration (also called the oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle or C2 cycle) refers to the process of plant metabolism in which the enzyme RuBisCO supplies oxygen to RuBP, wasting some of the energy produced by photosynthesis. The desired reaction is the addition of carbon dioxide to RuBP (carboxylation), a key step in the Calvin-Benson cycle, but about 25% of RuBisCO reactions add oxygen to RuBP instead (oxygenation), where creates unused artifacts. It could be a Calvin-Benson cycle. This process reduces the efficiency of photosynthesis and may reduce the photosynthetic output of C3 plants by 25%. Photorespiration involves a complex network of enzymatic reactions that exchange metabolites between chloroplasts, leaf peroxisomes, and mitochondria.
The oxygenation reaction of RuBisCO is a wasteful process as 3-phosphoglycerate is produced at a slower rate and at a higher metabolic cost compared to the activity of RuBP carboxylase. As the photorespiratory carbon cycle ultimately leads to the formation of G3P, approximately 25% of the photorespiratory carbon is released as CO2 and nitrogen as ammonia. Ammonia must be detoxified at a significant cost to cells. Photorespiration also has a direct cost of ATP and NAD(P)H.
Therefore, Photorespiration occurs mainly in C3 plants and C4 plants.
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In a group of 500 people, the frequency of genotype NN is 40%. Assuming both autosomal inheritance and that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals would you expect to have the MN genotype? 68 232 300 200
A 500-person group has 40% of the genotype NN. If autosomal inheritance and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are both valid, 252 persons will have the MN genotype.
What does Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium actually mean?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium states that genetic variation in a population will be constant from one generation to the next if there are no adverse impacts. The formula for Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is:
[tex]p^{2} + q^{2} + 2pq = 1[/tex]
What does genotype mean?The genetic components that make up an organism's genotype. The term "genotype" also refers to the set of alleles or genetic variations that a person possesses within a certain gene or genetic region.
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Which cell can transfer the most DNA?A) F+ cellB) R cell C) Hfr cellD) B cellE) F- cell
C) Hfr cells transfer the most DNA
How do HFR cells function?When one bacterial cell mates with another, it tries to transfer a copy of a F factor as well as a chunk of or an entire chromosome to a recipient bacterium since the F factor is integrated into the recipient bacterium's genome.
What distinguishes a F+ cell from a Hfr cell?The main distinction between F+ strains & Hfr would be that F+ strains contain free-floating F plasmids inside the cytoplasm, whereas Hfr strains contain F plasmids integrated onto their chromosome.
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Ryan discovered a body of a hiker in a dense forest. Analysis shows considerable insect activity on and around the body and swelling to the victim’s abdomen. What can he determine about the hiker?
A.
The victim died less than two hours ago.
B.
The victim was a victim of homicide.
C.
The victim has been dead for less than a day.
D.
The victim has been dead for at least four days.
axons of motor neurons of the ssomatic and autonomic nervous system senf fibers via the
Motor neuron axons of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems are connected to them by cholinergic fibers.
What do you call a motor neuron's axon?Motor neuron axons, or efferent fibers, convey information away from the central nervous system.The somatic system (SNS) and the parasympathetic (visceral) nervous system are the two main efferent systems (ANS).Skeletal muscles are innervated by somatic neurones, which are part of the somatic nervous system.
Where can you find motor axons?Sensory and/or motor axons, which are projections of a nerve cell bodies make up peripheral nerves.These nerve cell bodies are found in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord or brain stem, dorsal root ganglia (neurones), autonomic ganglion (autonomic neurons), and autonomic ganglia (neurogenic neurons) of the nervous system.
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Forms bridge of nose
The bony component of the nose is formed by two tiny nasal bones and maxillary extensions.
The remaining structure is made of cartilage and is the most flexible part. The framework is protected by connective tissue and skin.
Nasal. (The nasal bones, which create the bridge of the nose and do not contain sinuses, are little tombstone-shaped bones.)
Ethmoid (The ethmoid bone forms the region of the skull between the nasal cavity and the orbits) (The ethmoid bone forms the area of the cranium between the nasal cavity and the orbits.) The maxillary sinuses are located in the maxillary bones.
The frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, and inferior nasal conchae interact with the two lacrimal bones, which constitute the medial wall of the orbit.
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What product has the highest amount of saturated fatty acids? Beef tallow b. Chicken fat Butter Lard Coconut oil
(E) Coconut oil has the highest amount of saturated fatty acids.
Animal fats and some plant oils, such as coconut oil and palm oil, contain saturated fatty acids. All of the suggested options are good sources of fatty acids, however, coconut oil has the largest amount of these fatty acids. Saturated fatty acids make up 92 % of the fat in coconut oil.
It has been found that butter has a significant proportion of saturated fat—63 percent, compared to cattle tallow, which contains 52.59 percent, and lard, which has roughly 40 per cent, and chicken fat has 36.4 percent.
So option E is the correct one.
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How is a scientific law different from a scientific theory?
Explanation:
A scientific law tells what happens
Scientific laws can't be changed
A scientific theory tells why it happens
Scientific theories can be changed
How many chromosomes are visible at the beginning of mitosis? How many are in each daughter cell at the end of mitosis? The little orange T shaped things on the cell are: What happens to the centrioles during mitosis? 3. Identify the stages of these cells: 4. Draw a cell in each of the following phases. Be sure to represent the major events of each phase and label structures. Prophase Prometaphase
For most people there are 46 chromosomes visible at the beginning of mitosis. T shaped things on the cell are centrioles ,increases in size , copies its DNA , prepares to divide , and divides.
Do you have 46 or 23 chromosomes?The average human has 46 chromosomes, or 23 pairs of chromosomes.All of the genes in the human body are found on lengthy strands of DNA called chromosomes.
Describe chromosomes in plain English.?a component that can be found in a cell's nucleus.Proteins and DNA are arranged into genes on a chromosome.There are typically 23 pair of chromosomes in each cell.
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Please match the words with the correct sentence please.
1. : articulates with the distal ends of the tibia and fibula
2. : tendon of the calf muscle attaches to the posterior surface of this bone
3. : articulates directly anterior to the talus
4. : tibia articulates with the talus here
5. : lateral tarsal; articulates with metatarsals 4 and 5
6. : one of the anterior tarsals; articulates with metatarsals 2, 3, and 4
Choices:
calcaneus
trochlea of talus
lateral cuneiform
talus
navicular
cuboid
Statement 1 matches with the talus, statement 2 with the calcaneus, statement 3 with the navicular, statement 4 with the trochlea of the talus, statement 5 with the cuboid bone, and statement 6 with lateral cuneiform.
The talus is the bone at the top of the foot that supports the weight of the entire body and acts as a platform for the tibia. The distal extremities of the tibia and fibula articulate with this bone.
The largest tarsal bone in the foot is the calcaneus, sometimes known as the heel bone. It is situated beneath the three bones that make up the ankle joint at the back of the foot (hind foot). The posterior surface of this calcaneus is where the calf muscle-tendon connects.
A little bone with a C-shaped shape on the inside of the midfoot is called the navicular bone. It serves as a structural connection between the midfoot and the forefoot and is situated between the talus and the three cuneiform bones. This articulates anteriorly to the talus.
The smooth talus trochlea, the trochlea of the talus articulates with the tibia behind the superior surface of the talus body.
The cuboid bone is one of seven small tarsal bones that lies on the lateral side of the foot. This articulates with metatarsals 4 and 5.
The lateral cuneiform is wedge-shaped that falls between those of the medial and intermediate cuneiforms. It lies between the intermediate cuboid and cuneiform. This articulates with metatarsals 2, 3, and 4.
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why do you think an overwhelming amount of stress can lead to problems with the endocrine system, limbic system, and maintaing homeostasis? determine what part of the brain has been affected
The amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex are three regions of the brain that are connected to the stress response. The neurochemical systems involved in the stress response, such as cortisol and norepinephrine, are crucial. These parts of the brain are crucial to the stress response.
When under stress, the pituitary gland is signaled to generate a hormone, which in turn tells the adrenal glands, which are found above the kidneys, to produce more cortisol. The hypothalamus, a cluster of nuclei that connects the brain and the endocrine system, is responsible for this process.
Emotional Reactions to Limbic System Injury
The Endocrine Society, for instance, claims that depression and weariness may result from excessive levels of the hormone thyrotropin-releasing. Aggression, anxiety, pleasure, and wrath are a few of the emotions that may be affected by damage to the limbic system's supporting components.
The pituitary gland, a group of nuclei that connects the brain and the endocrine system, receives signals from the hypothalamus during stressful times to generate a hormone, which in turn tells the adrenal glands, which are placed above the kidneys, to release a hormone.
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