use differentiation to find a power series representation for the function. make sure the first term in your series is not 0.f(x) = x / (1+5x)^2

Answer:

coordinates for vertex are (5, -9)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]a=1\\\\b=-10\\\\c=16[/tex]

using the formula for the x coordinate of the vertex which is [tex]\frac{-b}{2a}[/tex] it yields:

[tex]x_{vertex}=\frac{-(-10)}{2}=5[/tex]

We now have the x-coordinates of the vertex, by applying the x coordinate in the equation we get:

[tex]5^2-(10\times 5)+16\\\\=25-50+16\\\\=-9[/tex]

thus the [tex]y_{vertex}=-9[/tex]

Thus the coordinates of the vertex should be (5, -9)

Answer:

They are multiplicative inverse of each other.

Step-by-step explanation:

Two matrices are multiplicative inverses of each other if their product is the identity matrix.

Let’s multiply the two given matrices to see if their product is the identity matrix:

[3 5] * [7 -5] = [37 + 5(-4) 3*(-5) + 53] = [1 0]

[4 7] [-4 3] [47 + 7*(-4) 4*(-5) + 7*3] [0 1]

As we can see, the product of the two matrices is the identity matrix. Therefore, the given matrices are multiplicative inverses of each other.

Hope this helps!

The solutions to the logarithm equations are x = 1/3 and x = 4/3

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

log(3x + 5) = log(6)

By comparing the equations, we have

3x + 5 = 6

Evaluate the like terms

So, we have

3x = 1

This means that

x = 1/3

For the other equation, we have

log2(3x + 12) = 4

This means that

3x + 12 = 2⁴

So, we have

3x + 12 = 16

When evaluated, we have

3x = 4

So, we have

x = 4/3

Hence, the solutions to the logarithm equations are x = 1/3 and x = 4/3

Read more about logarithm equations at

https://brainly.com/question/28041634

#SPJ1

The slope of the tangent line to the graph of f at the point (-1, 6) is -4.

To find the slope of the tangent line to the graph of f(x) = x^2 - 2x + 3 at the point (-1, 6), we need to find the derivative of f(x) and evaluate it at x = -1.

The derivative of f(x) with respect to x can be found using the power rule of differentiation. For each term in the function, we multiply the coefficient by the exponent and reduce the exponent by 1. Applying the power rule, we have:

f'(x) = 2x - 2

Now, we evaluate the derivative at x = -1 to find the slope of the tangent line at that point:

f'(-1) = 2(-1) - 2 = -4

Therefore, the slope of the tangent line to the graph of f at the point (-1, 6) is -4.

for such more question on tangent line

https://brainly.com/question/19132778

#SPJ11

Answer:

-52

Step-by-step:

To simplify the expression (-20) + (-4) ÷ (-1) × (-8) using the rules of board mass, we follow this order:

1. First, we perform the division (-4) ÷ (-1), which gives us a result of 4.

2. Next, we multiply 4 by (-8), which gives us a result of -32.

3. Finally, we add -20 and -32 to get a final answer of -52.

Therefore, (-20) + (-4) ÷ (-1) × (-8) simplifies to -52 using board mass.

Hope this helps!

Simplifying the expression (-20) + (-4) ÷ (-1) × (-8) using the  BODMAS,

we get -52.

We have first to solve or simplify the bracket then division, multiplication, addition, and subtraction from left to right.

Start with the division operation,

(-4) ÷ (-1) =4

Our equation becomes,

(-20) + 4 × (-8)

Now multiply, (-20) +4 × (-8) = (-20)+( -32)

Finally, perform the addition operation: (-20) + (-32) = -52

Therefore, the simplified value of the expression (-20) + (-4) ÷ (-1) × (-8) is -52.

Learn what is BODMAS rule:

https://brainly.com/question/29795897

We can conclude that: 1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + ... = 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ... This result is derived from the Fourier series representation of f(x) = x + x² and evaluating it at x = π.

To find the Fourier series of the function f(x) = x + x² on the interval [-π, π], we need to express f(x) as a sum of sine and cosine terms.

The Fourier series representation of f(x) can be written as:

f(x) = a₀/2 + Σ [aₙcos(nπx/L) + bₙsin(nπx/L)]

where a₀/2 represents the average value of f(x) and the coefficients aₙ and bₙ are given by the formulas:

a₀ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] f(x) dx

aₙ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] f(x)cos(nπx/π) dx

bₙ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] f(x)sin(nπx/π) dx

Let's calculate these coefficients step by step:

a₀ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] (x + x²) dx

  = (1/π) [∫[-π,π] x dx + ∫[-π,π] x² dx]

  = (1/π) [0 + ∫[-π,π] x² dx]

  = (1/π) [x³/3] evaluated from -π to π

  = (1/π) [(π³/3) - (-π³/3)]

  = (2π³/3π)

  = (2π²/3)

aₙ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] (x + x²)cos(nπx/π) dx

  = (1/π) [∫[-π,π] xcos(nπx/π) dx + ∫[-π,π] x²cos(nπx/π) dx]

To calculate these integrals, we need to use integration by parts and evaluate them individually.

bₙ = (1/π)∫[-π,π] (x + x²)sin(nπx/π) dx

  = (1/π) [∫[-π,π] xsin(nπx/π) dx + ∫[-π,π] x²sin(nπx/π) dx]

Similarly, we need to use integration by parts to evaluate these integrals.

After calculating these coefficients, we can express the Fourier series of f(x) as:

f(x) = (π²/3) + Σ [(2(1-(-1)^n))/((nπ)²)cos(nπx/π) + ((-1)^n)/((nπ)²)sin(nπx/π)]

Now, let's address the second part of the question:

To show that 1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + ... = 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ...

We can relate this series to the Fourier series of f(x) = x + x² by substituting x = π in the Fourier series:

f(π) = (π²/3) + Σ [(2(1-(-1)^n))/((nπ)²)cos(nπ)]

The Fourier series representation of f(π) only contains cosine terms, as sin(nπ) is always zero. Now, let's evaluate this series:

f(π) = (π²/3) + Σ [(2(1-(-1)^n))/((nπ)²)(-1)^n]

Notice that

(2(1-(-1)^n))/((nπ)²)(-1)^n = 2/((nπ)²) when n is even, and it is 0 when n is odd.

Therefore, we have:

f(π) = (π²/3) + Σ [2/((nπ)²)]   (summation over even values of n)

The series on the right-hand side is the sum of squares of reciprocals of even values of n, which is exactly 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ...

Hence, we can conclude that:

1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + 1/16 + ... = 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ...

This result is derived from the Fourier series representation of f(x) = x + x² and evaluating it at x = π.

To know more about Fourier series, click here: brainly.com/question/30763814

#SPJ11

Answer: A 6.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Use pythagorean to find sides

c=hypotenuse = x

a= shortleg = 4

b=longleg =5

c²=a²+b²                  > substitute

x²=4²+5²                 >simplify

x²=16+25

x²=41                        >take square root of both sides

x=√41                      >plug in calculator

x=6.4          => A

The area of the given figure is 65 square feet which has rectangle

The given figure has three rectangle

Area of first rectangle = length × width

=2×7

=14 square feet

Area of second rectangle = length × width

=3×(16-7)

=3×9

=27 square feet

Area of third  rectangle = length × width

=4×6

=24 square feet

Total area is 14+27+24 is 65 square feet

To learn more on Area click:

https://brainly.com/question/20693059

#SPJ1

Answer:

-----------------------

Let the current ages be x and y.

As per given information we can set up two equations:

Substitute 2y for x into second equation and solve for y:

Find the value of x:

The polynomial of the quadratic of least degree will be x² + 20x - 21.

Given that:

Zeros, x = 1 and -21

Let a, b, c, and d be the zeros of the polynomial and k be the leading coefficient. Then the polynomial is given as,

⇒ k(x - a)(x - b)(x - c)(x - d)

The polynomial of the quadratic of least degree is calculated as,

⇒ (x - 1)(x + 21)

⇒ x² + 21x - x - 21

⇒ x² + 20x - 21

Thus, the polynomial of the quadratic of least degree will be x² + 20x - 21.

More about the polynomial link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/11536910

#SPJ1

The value of angle x of the given right angle triangle using trigonometric ratios is: x = 34.6°

The three main trigonometric ratios are expressed as:

sin x = opposite/hypotenuse

cos x = adjacent/hypotenuse

tan x = opposite/adjacent

Thus, we can find the angle x using trigonometric ratios.

8/14 = sin x

sin x = 0.5714

x = sin⁻¹0.5714

x = 34.6°

The value of angle x of the given right angle triangle using trigonometric ratios is: x = 34.6°

Read more about Trigonometric Ratios at: https://brainly.com/question/13276558

#SPJ1

The minimum requirements for a Class I copper main lightning conductor are a strand size, weight per length, and a cross-sectional area of 187 pounds/1,000 feet, and 57,400 circular mils, respectively.

A Class I copper main lightning conductor is an important safety feature that is designed to protect a building or structure from the damaging effects of lightning strikes. The conductor provides a low-resistance path for the lightning to follow, diverting it safely into the ground.

The minimum requirements for a Class I copper main lightning conductor are based on several factors, including the size and type of the building or structure being protected, the local climate and weather conditions, and the overall electrical system in place. One of the key requirements is the strand size, which refers to the diameter of the individual copper wires that make up the conductor. For a Class I copper main lightning conductor, the minimum strand size is typically around 0.109 inches, although this can vary depending on the specific application. Another important requirement is the weight per length, which is the amount of weight that the conductor can support without breaking or becoming damaged. For a Class I copper main lightning conductor, the minimum weight per length is typically around 187 pounds per 1,000 feet.

To know more about conductor visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/14405035

#SPJ11

The exact area of the region described is 771/50 square units.

To find the area of the region described, we need to determine the points of intersection of the given curves and then calculate the area enclosed by those curves.

First, let's find the points of intersection by setting the equations equal to each other:

y - 2(x + 1) = y - 3(x + 1)

x - 5 = y - 2(x + 1)

Simplifying these equations, we get:

-2x - y + 1 = 0 ----(1)

3x - y - 7 = 0 ----(2)

To find the points of intersection, we can solve this system of equations.

Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1), we get:

-5x + 8 = 0

x = 8/5

Plugging this value of x into equation (1), we get:

-2(8/5) - y + 1 = 0

-16/5 - y + 1 = 0

y = 16/5 - 1

y = 11/5

So the points of intersection are (8/5, 11/5).

Now, let's determine the region bounded by these curves.

The curves y - 2(x + 1) and y - 3(x + 1) intersect at (8/5, 11/5), and the curve x - 5 intersects the x-axis at x = 5.

To find the area, we integrate the upper curve and subtract the lower curve with respect to x, over the interval [5, 8/5]:

Area = ∫[5, 8/5] [y - 2(x + 1)] - [y - 3(x + 1)] dx

Simplifying, we get:

Area = ∫[5, 8/5] -x - 1 dx

Integrating, we have:

Area = [-x^2/2 - x] evaluated from 5 to 8/5

Substituting the limits of integration, we get:

Area = [-(8/5)^2/2 - 8/5] - [-(5)^2/2 - 5]

Simplifying, we get:

Area = [-64/50 - 8/5] - [-25/2 - 5]

Area = [-64/50 - 40/50] - [-25/2 - 10/2]

Area = [-104/50] - [-35/2]

Area = -104/50 + 35/2

Area = (-104 + 875) / 50

Area = 771/50

Therefore, the exact area of the region described is 771/50 square units.

Learn more about area  here:

https://brainly.com/question/1631786

#SPJ11

-3 is the slope of the given line.

As we can see in the graph the given line is passing through the coordinates, (0, 5) and the coordinates (2, -1).

To find the slope of the line passing through the points (0, 5) and (2, -1), we can use the slope formula:

slope (m) = (y₂ - y₁) / (x₂ - x₁)

Let's substitute the coordinates into the formula:

slope (m) = (-1 - 5) / (2 - 0)

Simplifying the numerator and denominator:

slope (m) = -6 / 2

Reducing the fraction:

slope (m) = -3

Therefore, the slope of the line passing through (0, 5) and (2, -1) is -3.

Learn more about Linear equations here:

https://brainly.com/question/11897796

#SPJ1

The measure of the exterior angle to ∠g in triangle EFG is 59.3°.

In a triangle, the sum of the interior angles is always 180°. Therefore, to find the measure of the exterior angle to ∠g, we need to subtract the sum of the two given interior angles from 180°.

Given that m∠e = 84.3° and m∠f = 36.4°, we can calculate the measure of ∠g by subtracting the sum of these angles from 180°:

m∠g = 180° - (m∠e + m∠f)

= 180° - (84.3° + 36.4°)

= 180° - 120.7°

= 59.3°

Therefore, the measure of the exterior angle to ∠g in triangle EFG is 59.3°.

Learn more about triangle here:

https://brainly.com/question/2773823

#SPJ11

The x-coordinate of the center of mass of the lamina is 5/3.

To find the x-coordinate of the center of mass of the lamina, we need to calculate the double integral of the density function p(x, y) multiplied by the x-coordinate (x) over the triangular region D, and then divide it by the total mass of the lamina.

The density function is given as p(x, y) = x + y, and the region D is the triangular region with vertices (0, 0), (2, 1), and (0, 3).

To set up the integral, we need to determine the limits of integration for x and y.

Since D is a triangular region, we can express it as:

0 ≤ x ≤ 2,

0 ≤ y ≤ (3 - x/2).

Now we can set up the double integral:

∬D (x × p(x, y)) dA

= ∫₀² ∫₀ (3-x/2) (x × (x + y)) dy dx

Solving this integral will give us the x-coordinate of the center of mass.

Evaluating the inner integral first:

∫₀ (3-x/2) (x × (x + y)) dy = [xy + 1/2y²]₀ (3-x/2)

Substituting the limits:

= (x × (x + (3 - x/2))) - (x × (x + 0))

= (x × (3 - x/2))

Now we can evaluate the outer integral:

∫₀² (x × (3 - x/2)) dx = [3x - 1/4x²]₀²

= (3(2) - 1/4(2²)) - (3(0) - 1/4(0²))

= 6 - 1/4(4)

= 6 - 1

= 5

Finally, we divide this result by the total mass of the lamina, which is the area of the triangular region:

Area = (1/2) × base × height = (1/2) × 2 × 3 = 3

x-coordinate of the center of mass = (1/Area) × ∫₀² ∫₀ (3-x/2) (x × (x + y)) dy dx = (1/3) × 5 = 5/3

You can learn more about x-coordinate at: brainly.com/question/28913580

#SPJ11

The experimental Probability to the theoretical probability allows us to assess the reliability and accuracy of our predictions based on probability theory.

The specific outcome we are interested in as event A. The theoretical probability of event A occurring on a fair-sided die is given by P(A) = 1/N, since there is one favorable outcome (rolling the specific number) out of N equally likely possible outcomes (rolling any number from 1 to N).

The experimental probability is obtained by conducting a certain number of trials (N) and counting the actual occurrences of event A. Let's say the experimental probability of event A after N trials is denoted as P'(A).

When we compare the experimental probability to the theoretical probability, we may notice the following:

1. As the number of trials (N) increases, the experimental probability tends to converge to the theoretical probability. This is known as the Law of Large Numbers. In other words, with more trials, the observed results tend to align more closely with the expected probabilities.

2. In the early trials (smaller values of N), the experimental probability may deviate significantly from the theoretical probability. This is due to the random nature of the process. However, as more trials are conducted, the experimental probability becomes more stable and approaches the theoretical probability.

3. The more trials we conduct, the closer the experimental probability gets to the theoretical probability. This suggests that with a large enough sample size (i.e., a large number of trials), we can rely on the experimental results to provide a good estimate of the true probabilities.

the experimental probability to the theoretical probability allows us to assess the reliability and accuracy of our predictions based on probability theory. It highlights the convergence of observed frequencies to expected probabilities and provides insights into the probabilistic nature of the experiment.

To know more about Probability .

https://brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ11

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve:

-6n+5<11

-6n<6 (carry over the 5 by subtracting)

n>-1  (put "n" alone divide by -6, because dividing by a negative flip the symbol)

**Don't forget to carry the Negative Symbol on -6n

So, "A" is the answer

Test:

put in point

0>-1 ✔

or ....

-6n+5<11

-6(0)+5<11

5<11✔

So we know the line arrow goes in the positive direction

Answer:

[tex]l=16-4x[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The explanation is attached below.

The statement to be proven is that if G1 and G2 are alternate groups, then the group G1xG2 is commutative.

To prove that G1xG2 is commutative, we need to show that the order in which elements are multiplied does not affect the result. Let (a, b) and (c, d) be elements of G1xG2, where a, b are in G1 and c, d are in G2. By the definition of the direct product, the group operation in G1xG2 is defined as (a, b) * (c, d) = (ac, bd).

Now, consider the product of (a, b) * (c, d) and (c, d) * (a, b):

(a, b) * (c, d) = (ac, bd)

(c, d) * (a, b) = (ca, db)

Since G1 and G2 are alternate groups, they are commutative within themselves. Therefore, ac = ca and bd = db. Substituting these equalities into the product expressions, we get:

(a, b) * (c, d) = (ca, db)

(c, d) * (a, b) = (ca, db)

We can observe that (a, b) * (c, d) = (c, d) * (a, b), which implies that G1xG2 is commutative.

In conclusion, if G1 and G2 are alternate groups, then the group G1xG2 is commutative because the order of elements in the direct product does not affect the result of the group operation.

Learn more about commutative here:

https://brainly.com/question/28747013

#SPJ11

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation: C

2 divided into 9 parts is 2/9.

Let's' explain this visually

Take this pizza, (image below)

Let's say we have two pizzas for 8 friends (including ourselves), so naturally, we'll cut the pizza's each into 9 slices, 1 for each, now everyone gets 1/9 of a pizza, but there are two pizzas, so if we add 1/9+1/9, we'll get two ninths.

Now 2/9=0.2 repeating!

This is how I got my answer sorry for the vague  explanation

It's important to note that regression models can only tell us about associations between variables, and cannot establish causality. Additionally, the model assumes linearity, normality, and independence of errors, among other assumptions, which should be assessed before drawing conclusions from the model.

The regression output shows that both gender and partying have a significant impact on drinking behavior. The R-squared value of 0.8431 indicates that the model explains 84.31% of the variance in drinks per week.
Drinks = 0.1715*Gender + 1.0790*Partyerror + 2.087

This equation tells us that for every additional hour of partying per week, a person drinks an average of 1.0790 more drinks per week, holding gender constant. Additionally, being female (Gender = 1) is associated with an average of 0.1715 more drinks per week, holding partying constant.
Drinks = 0.1715*1 + 1.0790*16 + 2.087 = 20.4895

To know more about variables  visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/16906863

#SPJ11

The area of the region inside the circle r = 4cos(θ) and to the right of the vertical line r = sec(θ) is [tex]2\pi - 2\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) - \sqrt{15}[/tex].

To find the area of the region inside the circle r = 4cos(θ) and to the right of the vertical line r = sec(θ), we need to determine the limits of integration for θ.

First, let's find the values of θ where the circle and the vertical line intersect:

r = 4cos(θ)

sec(θ) = 4cos(θ)

To simplify the equation, let's convert sec(θ) to its reciprocal form:

1/cos(θ) = 4cos(θ)

Multiplying both sides by cos(θ), we get:

1 = 4[tex]cos^2[/tex](θ)

Rearranging the equation, we have:

4[tex]cos^2[/tex](θ) - 1 = 0

Using the identity [tex]cos^2[/tex](θ) - [tex]sin^2[/tex](θ) = 1, we can rewrite the equation as:

[tex]cos^2[/tex](θ) - [tex]sin^2[/tex](θ) = 1/4

Applying the double-angle formula for cosine, we get:

cos(2θ) = 1/4

Taking the inverse cosine of both sides, we have:

2θ = ± [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]

Solving for θ, we get two values:

θ = ± (1/2) [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]

Since we are interested in the region to the right of the vertical line, we'll consider the positive value of θ:

θ = (1/2) [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]

Now, we can find the area by evaluating the integral:

A = ∫[θ, π/2] 1/2 ([tex]r^2[/tex]) dθ

Substituting the equations for r, we have:

[tex]A = \int_{\theta}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{2} (4\cos^2(\theta)) \, d\theta[/tex]

Simplifying further:

[tex]A = \int_{\theta}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} 8\cos^2(\theta) \, d\theta[/tex]

Using the double-angle formula for cosine, we have:

A = ∫[θ, π/2] 4(1 + cos(2θ)) dθ

Integrating term by term, we get:

A = [4θ + 2sin(2θ)] evaluated from θ to π/2

Now, Substituting the limits of integration, we get:

A = [4(π/2) + 2sin(2(π/2))] - [4θ + 2sin(2θ)] evaluated from θ to π/2

Simplifying:

A = 2π + 2sin(π) - (4θ + 2sin(2θ))

Since sin(π) = 0, we can simplify further:

A = 2π - (4θ + 2sin(2θ))

Now, we need to substitute the value of θ, which we found earlier:

θ = (1/2) [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]

Substituting this value, we have:

A = 2π - (4(1/2) [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex] + 2sin(2(1/2) [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]))

Simplifying:

A = 2π - (2 [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex] + 2sin([tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex]))

Since cos([tex]\cos^{-1}\left(x\right)[/tex]) = x, we have:

A = 2π - (2 [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex] + 2(√(1 - (1/4)^2)))

Simplifying further:

A = 2π - (2 [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex] + 2(√(15/16)))

A = 2π - 2 [tex]\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)[/tex] - √15

So, the area of the region inside the circle r = 4cos(θ) and to the right of the vertical line r = sec(θ) is [tex]2\pi - 2\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) - \sqrt{15}[/tex].

Learn more about double-angle formula for cosine here:

https://brainly.com/question/30410697

#SPJ11

Chanta have paid $2232 for the computer.

To calculate the total amount Chanta will have paid for the computer,

we need to multiply the monthly payment by the number of months in the loan term.

Chanta will pay $62 per month for 3 years, which is a total

= 3 x 12

= 36 months.

and, the total amount paid for the computer will be

= $62 x 36

= $2232.

Learn more about Unitary Method here:

https://brainly.com/question/28276953

#SPJ1

(a) Our assumption that P is false leads to a contradiction. Since we have arrived at a contradiction, our initial assumption that P is false must be incorrect. Hence, P must be true. (b) Our assumption that P is false leads to a contradiction. Since we have arrived at a contradiction, our initial assumption that P is false must be incorrect. Hence, P must be true.

a) To show that if (¬P → P) is true, then P is true, we can use a proof by contradiction.

Assume that ¬P is true and P is false. Since (¬P → P) is true, according to the implication, if ¬P is true, then P must also be true. However, our assumption states that P is false, which contradicts the implication (¬P → P) being true. Therefore, our assumption that P is false leads to a contradiction.

Since we have arrived at a contradiction, our initial assumption that P is false must be incorrect. Hence, P must be true.

b) To show that if ((P → Q) → P) is true, then P is true, we can also use a proof by contradiction.

Assume that P is false. In order for the statement ((P → Q) → P) to be true, if P → Q is true, then P must also be true. However, since we have assumed that P is false, P → Q is automatically true, regardless of the truth value of Q. Therefore, ((P → Q) → P) is vacuously true in this case.

However, this contradicts the assumption that ((P → Q) → P) is true. Hence, our initial assumption that P is false leads to a contradiction.

Since we have arrived at a contradiction, our initial assumption that P is false must be incorrect. Therefore, P must be true.

To know more about initial assumption, click here: brainly.com/question/30056836

#SPJ11

The volume of figure down below is 470.996 cubic in.

The volume of the cone is the product of one-third of the height, pie, and square of the radius that is;

The volume of the cone = 1/3(πr²)(height)

Since we can see that there are two cones combined together to form one figure.

So, Volume of first cone = 1/3(πr²)(height)

= 1/3(π 5²)(7)

= 1/3(π 25)(7)

= 183.166

Volume of second cone = 1/3(πr²)(height)

= 1/3(π 5²)(11)

= 1/3(π 25)(11)

= 287.83

Therefore, the volume of the figure is;

287.83 + 183.166

470.996

Learn more about volume;

https://brainly.com/question/1578538

#SPJ1

The solutions are (u ￮ w)(- 3) = -56

(w ￮ u)(- 3) =  -34

To evaluate (u ￮ w)(- 3), evaluate w(- 3) then use this value to evaluate u(x)

(u○w)(-3) = u(w(-3))

w(-3) = 3x - 2 = - 9 - 2 = -11

u(-11) = 5x - 1 = -55 - 1 = -56

so, -56 is the answer.

To evaluate (w ￮ u)(- 3), evaluate u(- 3) then use this value to evaluate w(x)

(w○u)(-3) = w(u(-2))

u(-3) = 5x - 1 = -15 - 1 = -16

w(-16) = 3x - 2 = -32 - 2 = -34

so,  -34 is the answer.

Learn more about function here:

https://brainly.com/question/2253924

#SPJ1

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

The final price of the sweatshirt, after applying the 20% discount, would be approximately $32.80.

To calculate the final price of the sweatshirt after the sale, we need to consider the initial cost of the sweatshirt, the added price, and the discount applied.

Initial cost of the sweatshirt: $26

Added price: $15

The sticker price of the sweatshirt is the sum of the initial cost and the added price:

Sticker price = $26 + $15 = $41

Now, let's calculate the discount amount. The sale is for 20% off, which means the sweatshirt will be sold at 80% of its sticker price.

Discount amount = 20% of the sticker price = 20/100 * $41 = $8.20

To find the final price, we subtract the discount amount from the sticker price:

Final price = Sticker price - Discount amount = $41 - $8.20 = $32.80

Therefore, the final price of the sweatshirt, after applying the 20% discount, would be approximately $32.80.

for such more question on discount

https://brainly.com/question/17448505

#SPJ8

Answer: Hypotenuse

Step-by-Step Explanation: The hypotenuse is the longest side in a right triangle, and is always across from the right angle.