Visual images are usually things like ________. Choose all that apply.
photos
infographics
animated GIFs
illustrations

Answers

Answer 1

Visual images are usually things like ________. Choose all that apply" is: photos, infographics, animated GIFs, and illustrations.

Visual images are any type of image that communicates an idea or message visually. This includes photographs, which are still images taken with a camera, infographics, which are visual representations of information or data, animated GIFs, which are short, looped animations, and illustrations, which are hand-drawn or digitally-created images. All of these types of visual images can be used to enhance communication and convey information in a more engaging and memorable way.

Visual images can come in various forms and these four options are all examples of different types of visual images. Photos are captured with a camera, infographics display data or information, animated GIFs are short, looping animations, and illustrations are drawings or artwork. Each of these provides a unique way to convey information visually.

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Answer 2
Final answer:

Visual images comprise various formats including photos, illustrations, animated GIFs, and infographics that represent visual information in different ways.

Explanation:

In the field of Arts, visual images include a wide range of visual representations or designs. They can be still images like photos and illustrations, or they can be dynamic and interactive like animated GIFs. Infographics, which are graphic visual representations of information, data, or knowledge, are also considered visual images as they represent information in a graphic format.

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Related Questions

when a taxpayer files for eitc based on earned income from schedule c, their tax professional must: true or false

Answers

False, the Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is a tax benefit for working individuals and families with low to moderate income.

When a taxpayer files for EITC based on earned income from Schedule C, they do not necessarily need a tax professional to file their taxes. However, it is always recommended to seek the advice of a tax professional or use tax preparation software to ensure that all tax credits and deductions are claimed correctly. If a taxpayer does use a tax professional to prepare their taxes, the tax professional would be responsible for accurately reporting the earned income from Schedule C on the tax return and determining if the taxpayer is eligible for EITC based on their income and other eligibility criteria.

In summary, the statement that a taxpayer's tax professional must file for EITC based on earned income from Schedule C is false. While a tax professional may assist with filing a tax return that includes Schedule C income and EITC eligibility, it is not a requirement. Taxpayers may file their own tax returns or use tax preparation software to ensure that all tax credits and deductions are claimed correctly. However, seeking the advice of a tax professional or using tax preparation software is always recommended to avoid errors and maximize tax benefits.

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true or false compaction reduces os efficiency based on the time required to transfer partitions leaving the cpu idle during the process.

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The statement "Compaction reduces os efficiency based on the time required to transfer partitions leaving the cpu idle during the process" is false because

Compaction is a process used in operating systems to improve efficiency and reduce fragmentation on disk. It involves reorganizing data on the disk so that related files are stored together and unused space is consolidated. While compaction can require some CPU and disk I/O resources, it typically improves overall system efficiency by reducing the time required to access data on disk.

Contrary to the statement, compaction does not reduce OS efficiency based on the time required to transfer partitions, nor does it leave the CPU idle during the process. In fact, many modern operating systems perform compaction in the background, using idle CPU and I/O resources, so that it does not significantly impact system performance. This allows users to continue using their system without experiencing any noticeable slowdowns.

Compaction also helps to minimize the risk of data loss and improves overall system stability by reducing the likelihood of file system errors and crashes caused by fragmentation. In summary, compaction is an important process that helps to improve the efficiency and performance of operating systems, rather than reducing it.

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______ keys on a keyboard are used for issuing commands in some programs.
a) Shift
b) Alt
c) Ctrl
d) Tab

Answers

Ctrl (Control) keys on a keyboard are commonly used for issuing commands in various programs. When pressed in combination with other keys, the Ctrl key modifies the functionality of certain actions or triggers specific commands.

For example, Ctrl+C is often used to copy selected text or Ctrl+V to paste copied content. Different software applications may have their own set of keyboard shortcuts involving the Ctrl key for performing specific actions or accessing certain features.

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in order to determine the type that a polymorphic variable refers to, the decision is made

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In order to determine the type that a polymorphic variable refers to, the decision is made based on the actual object that the variable is currently referencing.

Polymorphism allows a single variable to refer to objects of different types, which is particularly useful in object-oriented programming. However, in order to perform operations or methods specific to a certain type, it is necessary to know the actual type of the object the variable is referencing at a given moment. This is determined at runtime through a process called dynamic binding, where the method or operation that the variable is invoking is resolved based on the actual object type. Therefore, the decision of the type that a polymorphic variable refers to is based on the object being referenced at that moment.

Dynamic binding is an important concept in polymorphism as it allows for flexibility and extensibility in code. By allowing a single variable to reference objects of different types, the code can be more modular and adaptable to changes in requirements. The decision of the type that a polymorphic variable refers to is essential in ensuring that the correct methods and operations are applied to the correct object, and dynamic binding enables this to happen at runtime.

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what term is used to refer to a logical grouping of computers that participate in active directory single sign-on?

Answers

The term that is used to refer to a logical grouping of computers that participate in active directory single sign-on is Domain.

What is a domain?

A domain is a group of resources that is assigned to an organization. The domain is unique to the organization or a particular kind of service.

Domains can help to easily identifiable what an online resource is meant for. For instance, the www domain can be used to access the internet of specific companies or organizations.

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the most common 1-gigabit ethernet standard in use today is ____.

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The most common 1-gigabit Ethernet standard in use today is 1000BASE-T, also known as IEEE 802.3ab. This standard uses twisted pair copper cable and can operate at distances up to 100 meters (328 feet).

It supports full-duplex communication, meaning that data can be sent and received simultaneously, and has a maximum data transfer rate of 1 gigabit per second. 1000BASE-T is commonly used in local area networks (LANs) and can be found in a wide range of devices, such as desktop computers, laptops, servers, switches, and routers. It offers a significant improvement in network speed compared to earlier Ethernet standards, such as 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX, which supported data transfer rates of 10 megabits and 100 megabits per second, respectively.

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one concern of using technology such as amniocentesis in countries like china and india is:

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One concern of using technology such as amniocentesis in countries like China and India is the potential for sex-selective abortions.

Amniocentesis is a medical procedure that involves removing a sample of amniotic fluid from a pregnant woman's uterus to test for genetic abnormalities or disorders in the developing fetus. However, this test can also reveal the gender of the fetus, and in cultures where male children are traditionally preferred, it has led to an increase in sex-selective abortions.

This has resulted in a significant gender imbalance in some countries, where there are fewer women than men. Some countries have implemented laws or regulations to restrict the use of prenatal testing for sex selection, but the issue remains a concern in many parts of the world.

Other concerns of using amniocentesis and other prenatal testing technologies include the risk of miscarriage or other complications, as well as the ethical implications of making decisions about a fetus's life based on genetic information.'

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advanced knowledge of gis has made you wealthy enough to retire from your career in international espionage. you have decided to devote the rest of your life to wildlife conservation. you have two gis data layers - one showing deer habitat and the other showing human habitat. in the map above you have displayed both of these layers. you have questions about how deer and humans interact in the environment so you perform a series of gis analysis operations. using your layers for deer and human habitat, which operations did you perform to answer the following four questions?

Answers

To answer questions about how deer and humans interact in the environment using the GIS layers for deer and human habitat, several GIS analysis operations can be performed.

Here are four common operations that could help address these questions:

Overlay Analysis: By performing an overlay analysis, you can determine the spatial relationship between the deer habitat and human habitat layers. This analysis can provide insights into areas where deer and humans coexist, overlap, or are in close proximity.

Buffer Analysis: Buffer analysis can be used to create a buffer zone around human habitat areas. By creating a buffer zone, you can identify areas of influence or potential impact on the deer habitat. This analysis helps assess the spatial extent of the interaction between humans and deer.

Density Analysis: Density analysis can be employed to calculate the density of deer and human habitat separately. By quantifying the density of each habitat type, you can identify areas with high deer density and areas with high human density. This analysis can reveal potential areas of conflict or concentration.

Correlation Analysis: Correlation analysis can help determine the relationship between the deer and human habitat layers. By examining the spatial correlation or overlap between the two layers, you can assess the degree of association between deer and human presence in different areas. This analysis can provide insights into areas of potential interaction or shared habitat.

These GIS analysis operations, among others, can be utilized to investigate the dynamics and interactions between deer and humans in the environment. They enable a deeper understanding of their spatial relationships and can inform wildlife conservation efforts and land management strategies.

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Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Uniform Crime Reports (UCR)?
a.) they include data on reported crimes
b.) they provide crime rates
c.) they include the number of offenses cleared by arrest
d.) they differentiate between completed acts and attempted acts

Answers

The Uniform Crime Reports (UCR) is a collection of crime statistics that are compiled by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) and is used by law enforcement agencies across the United States. The UCR is a valuable tool for understanding crime trends and patterns in the country.

In response to your question, the statement that is NOT true about the UCR is d) they differentiate between completed acts and attempted acts. In fact, the UCR does not differentiate between completed acts and attempted acts. The UCR collects data on reported crimes, provides crime rates, and includes the number of offenses cleared by arrest, but it does not differentiate between completed and attempted crimes.

It is important to note that the UCR has its limitations. It only includes crimes that have been reported to law enforcement, so it may not provide a complete picture of crime in a particular area. Additionally, some crimes may be reported differently by different agencies, which can impact the accuracy of the data.

Overall, while the UCR is not a perfect system, it is a valuable resource for law enforcement agencies and researchers who are seeking to better understand crime trends in the United States.

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Which of the following are natively supported by the Windows, Mac, and Linux operating systems?
a. Support for reading and writing to ext4 volumes
b. Support for reading and writing to APFS volumes
c. Support for reading and writing to NTFS partitions
d. Support for reading and writing to FAT32 partitions

Answers

NTFS and FAT32 are two common file systems used in Windows, Mac, and Linux operating systems, and both are natively supported by these systems.

Windows has native support for reading and writing to NTFS partitions, while Linux and Mac also have native support for reading and writing to NTFS partitions. FAT32, on the other hand, is supported by all three operating systems, which means that users can read and write files to this file system without the need for additional software.

Ext4 is a file system used primarily in Linux, and while it is not natively supported by Windows or Mac, there are third-party software tools that can be used to access ext4 volumes from these operating systems. APFS is a file system used exclusively by Mac, and while it is not natively supported by Windows or Linux, there are third-party tools available to access APFS volumes from these operating systems.

In summary, NTFS and FAT32 are natively supported by all three operating systems, while ext4 and APFS are primarily used in Linux and Mac respectively, and may require additional software to be accessed from other operating systems.

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a(n) ____ path provides a precise location for a file.

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A file path provides a precise location for a file. It is the specific address that helps a computer to locate a particular file on its storage device.

The file path includes the name of the storage device, the folders and subfolders where the file is located, and the file name and extension. A file path provides a unique and exact address for a file, which helps users to locate and access it quickly and efficiently. It is essential to use the correct file path to ensure that the computer can find the file and prevent errors such as "file not found."

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Which TCP/IP protocol is used by Windows to share file and printers on a network?
A) File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
B) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
C) HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
D) Server Message Block (SMB)
E) User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

Answers

The TCP/IP protocol used by Windows to share files and printers on a network is Server Message Block (SMB). SMB is a network protocol that allows file sharing and remote resource access over a network.

It is used by Windows to share files, printers, and other resources between computers on a network.

SMB enables file and printer sharing on a local network and also allows remote access to shared resources over the Internet. It is used by the Windows operating system to share files and printers with other Windows computers, as well as with non-Windows devices that support SMB, such as macOS and Linux.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol used for transferring files over the Internet, but it is not commonly used for sharing files and printers on a local network. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for managing and monitoring network devices, HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for web browsing, and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a transport protocol used for transmitting data over a network, but none of these protocols are used for sharing files and printers on a network.

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what can you call an element that contains other elements? a. sub element b. parent element c. super element d. child element

Answers

A parent element is the correct term for an element that contains other elements. In the context of HTML, XML, or other markup languages, elements are organized in a hierarchical structure known as a tree. Parent elements hold child elements, which may have their own sub-elements, and so on. This organization allows for easy navigation, manipulation, and understanding of the relationships between different elements.

In a document, a parent element directly encapsulates one or more child elements, providing structure and organization. These child elements can be text, images, lists, or other types of content, depending on the specific markup language being used. Parent elements play an essential role in defining the structure and overall layout of a document, allowing for better readability and easier management of its content.

So, the correct answer is b. Parent element, as it refers to an element that contains and organizes other elements within a document. This structure enables efficient organization and management of content in a markup language.

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the ____ is the parent organization for all the various internet boards and task forces.

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The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is the parent organization for all the various internet boards and task forces.

The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is the parent organization for all the various internet boards and task forces. The IETF is responsible for developing and promoting Internet standards, protocols, and procedures. It is a large, international community of network designers, operators, vendors, and researchers, who work together to create and maintain the Internet's infrastructure. The IETF operates through a decentralized, volunteer-based model, where anyone can participate in the standardization process by contributing ideas, reviewing proposals, and providing feedback. The IETF is known for its collaborative and consensus-based approach, where decisions are made through open discussions, rough consensus, and running code.

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where is the title of an assignment located in a paper using mla format?

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In a paper using MLA format, the title of an assignment is typically located at the center of the first page, about a third of the way down from the top margin.

It should be written in title case, which means the first letter of each major word is capitalized (except for articles, prepositions, and conjunctions).

The title should be followed by the author's name, the course name or number, the instructor's name, and the date of submission, each on a separate line and aligned to the left margin.

It is important to note that the exact formatting and placement of the title may vary depending on the specific requirements of the assignment or instructor. Therefore, it is always best to consult the assignment guidelines or ask the instructor for clarification.

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Most large scale delivery services, including modern computer networks use a(n) ____ system to connect source and destination nodes.a. point-to-pointb. store and forwardc. high-capacityd. media access

Answers

B. store and forward is the system used by most large-scale delivery services, including modern computer networks, to connect source and destination nodes.

In this system, data packets are first received and stored at each intermediate node or router, and then forwarded to the next node in the path to the destination. This allows for more efficient use of network resources and helps ensure that packets are delivered correctly, even if some nodes in the path are temporarily unavailable. Store and forward systems are commonly used in email delivery, file transfers, and other types of data communication where reliability and accuracy are critical.

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refer to the exhibit. how did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

Answers

As per the exhibit, the last route that is shown is obtained via the OSPF protocol.

We can determine this by looking at the "O" letter in the first column of the route table, which indicates that this route was learned via OSPF.

RIP is a distance vector routing protocol that uses hop count as a metric to determine the best path to a destination network. When a router receives a RIP update, it adds the cost advertised by the neighboring router to its own cost to reach that network to calculate the total metric for that route.

The router then compares this metric with its current best metric for the same destination network and chooses the route with the lowest metric as the best path. In this case, the last route was obtained via a RIP update from a neighboring router, and its metric was lower than the router's current best metric for that network, so it replaced the old route with the new one.

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A common source of user misunderstanding and subsequent calls to help desks is poorly designed ____performance problema system burn in testuser documentation.

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A common source of user misunderstanding and subsequent calls to help desks is poorly designed user documentation.

User documentation refers to any written or visual materials that provide information and guidance to users of a software system, hardware device, or other product.

Well-designed user documentation should be clear, concise, and easy to understand, with step-by-step instructions and visuals where appropriate.

However, poorly designed user documentation can lead to confusion, frustration, and mistakes on the part of users, which can result in calls to help desks or other forms of technical support. This can be especially true for complex software systems or products with many features or settings.

Other factors that can contribute to user misunderstanding and calls to help desks include poor system performance, such as slow response times or crashes, and problems with hardware components, such as malfunctioning devices or compatibility issues. Burn-in testing, which is a type of stress testing that is designed to identify potential hardware problems before a system is deployed, can help to minimize these types of issues.

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the gui library for java that is newer and provides a uniform look and feel across platforms is

Answers

The newer GUI library for Java that provides a uniform look and feel across platforms is JavaFX. JavaFX is a newer GUI library for Java that provides a uniform look and feel across platforms.

JavaFX is designed to make it easier to create rich, interactive user interfaces for desktop and mobile applications. It uses a declarative programming model and supports a wide range of visual effects and animations. Additionally, JavaFX has been integrated with other Java technologies, such as JavaFX Scene Builder and JavaFX WebView, to provide a more seamless development experience. It was introduced in 2008 as a replacement for Swing, which had been the primary GUI library for Java since the late 1990s.

JavaFX is a modern GUI library that offers a wide range of features and allows developers to create rich and interactive applications. It is designed to replace Swing as the standard GUI library for Java, providing improved performance and a more consistent user experience across different platforms.

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Consider the following command:ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5Which route would have to go down in order for this static route to appear in the routing table?a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 networkRefer to curriculum topic:

Answers

The command "ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5" adds a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network with a metric of 5. No other route needs to go down for this static route to appear in the routing table.

The given command adds a static route to the routing table with a metric of 5, which indicates the preference of the route. If there is already a route to the same network with a lower metric, it will take precedence over this static route. However, if there is no existing route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network or if the existing route has a higher metric, then this static route will appear in the routing table immediately without requiring any other route to go down.

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True or falseBy default, computers that are installed with WDS join the Windows domain automatically.

Answers

False. By default, computers that are installed with Windows Deployment Services (WDS) do not join the Windows domain automatically.

WDS is a server role that enables the deployment of Windows operating systems over the network. It allows administrators to remotely install and configure Windows on multiple computers at once. During the deployment process, administrators have the option to join the computer to a domain or workgroup.

If administrators choose to join the computer to a domain, they need to configure the necessary settings in the deployment process. This can be done by creating an unattended installation file, which contains the configuration settings for the deployment, including the domain join information. Alternatively, administrators can configure the WDS server to join the domain automatically during the deployment process.

In summary, computers that are installed with WDS do not join the Windows domain automatically by default. The domain join process needs to be configured during the deployment process using an unattended installation file or by configuring the WDS server to join the domain automatically.

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prove that a binary tree that is not full cannot correspond to an optimal prefix code.

Answers

A binary tree that is not full cannot correspond to an optimal prefix code.


An optimal prefix code is a code with the minimum average codeword length for a given set of symbols and their probabilities. In a binary tree, each node can have at most two children. A full binary tree is a binary tree where all levels are completely filled, except possibly the last level, which is filled from left to right.

To prove that a non-full binary tree cannot correspond to an optimal prefix code, let's consider the following steps:

1. Assume we have a non-full binary tree that corresponds to a prefix code.
2. Identify the deepest two nodes with the same parent, say nodes A and B.
3. Since the tree is not full, there exists at least one node, say node C, which is at a higher level than nodes A and B.
4. Swap the positions of node B and node C in the tree.
5. Notice that the prefix property still holds, as the codewords for nodes A, B, and C have not changed their prefix relationships.

By swapping node B and node C, we have obtained a new prefix code with a smaller average codeword length, which contradicts our assumption that the original non-full binary tree corresponds to an optimal prefix code. Therefore, a binary tree that is not full cannot correspond to an optimal prefix code.

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.What report should be used to check if users are leaving from important pages on your website?
A. Landing Pages report
B. All Pages report
C. Exit Pages report
D. Pages report under Events

Answers

The correct answer to the question  is C. Exit Pages report. The Exit Pages report shows which pages were the last ones users visited before they left the website. This report is useful to identify which pages are causing users to leave the website without completing the desired action, such as making a purchase or filling out a form.

The Landing Pages report shows which pages users arrived on when they first visited the website. This report is useful to identify which pages are attracting the most traffic and which pages need to be optimized to improve conversion rates. The All Pages report shows the performance of all pages on the website, including the number of pageviews, bounce rate, and average time on page. This report is useful to understand the overall performance of the website and identify areas for improvement. The Pages report under Events shows the performance of specific pages related to events, such as clicks on buttons or downloads of files. This report is useful to measure the effectiveness of events and identify which pages are driving the most engagement. In summary, the Exit Pages report is the most appropriate report to use to check if users are leaving from important pages on your website.

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in the scsi-1 protocol, the highest priority is always assigned to which scsi id?

Answers

In the SCSI-1 protocol, the highest priority is always assigned to the SCSI ID 7. SCSI IDs are used to identify SCSI devices on a SCSI bus, and the highest priority is assigned to the SCSI ID with the highest numerical value.

SCSI devices can be assigned different priority levels, with lower priority levels being assigned to devices with lower SCSI IDs. For example, a SCSI device with a SCSI ID of 0 has a lower priority than a SCSI device with a SCSI ID of 6.

However, the SCSI ID 7 is always assigned the highest priority regardless of the number of devices on the SCSI bus. This is because SCSI ID 7 is reserved for the SCSI host adapter or controller, which is responsible for managing the SCSI bus and controlling the communication between SCSI devices. By assigning the highest priority to the SCSI host adapter, it ensures that the controller has the highest priority and can efficiently manage the communication between the SCSI devices.

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among the sources used to define the individual emt's scope of practice is the:

Answers

Among the sources used to define the individual EMT's scope of practices the: State EMS Office or State EMS Protocols.


These sources establish the specific guidelines, procedures, and protocols for EMTs within their jurisdiction, ensuring that they are trained and competent to perform the tasks within their designated scope of practice.

Among the sources used to define the individual EMT's scope of practice are state laws and regulations, national standards and guidelines set by organizations like the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT), and individual agency policies and protocols. These sources provide guidance on the specific skills, procedures, and interventions that EMTs at different levels of certification are authorized to perform in various emergency situations.

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memory researcher ____ has conducted many studies showing how people construct false memories.

Answers

One prominent memory researcher who has conducted numerous studies on the construction of false memories is Elizabeth Loftus.

Loftus has shown through her research that people can be led to remember events that did not occur or to remember events in a way that is different from how they actually happened. Her research has been particularly influential in the legal field, where eyewitness testimony can be a key factor in determining the outcome of a trial. Loftus's work has highlighted the fallibility of memory and the importance of considering other types of evidence in addition to eyewitness testimony.

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which button is used to display two different parts of the same document in the document window?

Answers

The "Split" button is used to display two different parts of the same document in the document window in Microsoft Word.

The Split button is located in the "Window" tab of the ribbon menu in Microsoft Word. When you click on the "Split" button, it will divide the document window into two panes, which can be scrolled independently of each other. This is useful when you want to view two different parts of the same document simultaneously, such as when you need to compare two sections of a long report or when you want to refer to one part of the document while editing another part.

To remove the split view, simply click on the "Remove Split" button located in the same section of the ribbon menu.

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which power plan on a portable windows 8.1 system sets the maximum processor state value to 70%?

Answers

The power plan on a portable Windows 8.1 system that sets the maximum processor state value to 70% is the Power Saver plan.

Windows 8.1 includes several power plans that allow users to manage power settings on their portable devices. The Power Saver plan is designed to conserve battery power by reducing the performance of the system. One of the ways it does this is by limiting the maximum processor state to 70%. This means that the processor will not run at full capacity, which can help to extend battery life. Other power plans, such as Balanced and High Performance, allow the processor to run at higher speeds, which can be useful for tasks that require more processing power.

Users can switch between power plans by accessing the Power Options in the Control Panel. By default, the Power Saver plan is not displayed on the Power Options page, but it can be enabled by clicking on the "Show additional plans" option.

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Which statement is true regarding coding of carbuncles and furuncles in ICD-10-CM?
a) Carbuncles and furuncles are reported with the same code
b) The differentiation between a carbuncle and a furuncle is specified by a 7th character extender
c) There are separate codes for carbuncles and furuncles
d) Code L02.43 is a complete code

Answers

The true statement regarding coding of carbuncles and furuncles in ICD-10-CM is that there are separate codes for carbuncles and furuncles.

Code L02.43 represents carbuncle, whereas code L02.01 represents furuncle. The differentiation between a carbuncle and a furuncle is not specified by a 7th character extender. Both conditions are abscesses that form in the skin, but carbuncles are deeper and larger than furuncles and often occur in clusters. It is essential to accurately code these conditions as they can indicate underlying systemic diseases such as diabetes or compromised immune function. It is also important to note that code L02.43 for carbuncle is not a complete code and requires a seventh character extender to specify laterality.

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If a suspect computer is running Windows 7, which of the following can you perform safely?a. Browsing open applications b. Disconnecting powerc. Either of the aboved. None of the above

Answers

a. Browsing open applications. If a suspect computer is running Windows 7, Browsing open applications, you perform safely.

If a suspect computer is running Windows 7, you can safely browse open applications without altering the computer's state. However, disconnecting power or taking any other actions may alter the state of the computer and potentially destroy valuable evidence. It is important to follow proper forensic procedures to avoid compromising the evidence. It is recommended to acquire a forensic image of the suspect computer's hard drive, which can then be analyzed in a safe and controlled environment.

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