Illusory conjunctions are perceptual errors in which features of distinct objects are incorrectly combined, demonstrating the need for attention in feature analysis. Experiments with illusory conjunctions and Balint's syndrome patients support the feature integration theory.
1. Illusory conjunctions occur when the brain incorrectly combines features, such as color and shape, from different objects. This demonstrates that attention plays a critical role in feature analysis, as errors occur when attentional resources are limited or divided.
2. Illusory conjunction experiments have supported the role of attention in feature analysis by showing that when participants are required to divide their attention or complete tasks quickly, they are more likely to experience illusory conjunctions. These results indicate that attention is needed for the correct binding of features during perception.
3. Balint's syndrome is a neurological disorder that impairs patients' ability to perceive multiple objects at once and to correctly bind features together.
Experiments with Balint's syndrome patients have shown that they experience a high rate of illusory conjunctions, supporting the feature integration theory, which posits that attention is necessary for the accurate integration of separate features into a coherent perception.
In summary, illusory conjunctions reveal the importance of attention in feature analysis, and experiments with both healthy individuals and Balint's syndrome patients provide support for the feature integration theory.
For more information on feature integration theory kindly visit to
https://brainly.com/question/30757130
#SPJ11
Subclavian vein merges with external and internal jugular vein to form _______
Answer:
Brachiocephalic vein.
Explanation:
I took this course
When can the rescuer who is manually stabilizing a patient's head safely let go of the head?
The rescuer who is manually stabilizing a patient's head should not let go until the patient's head is securely stabilized by other means, such as a cervical collar or a head immobilization device.
The reason for this is that sudden movements or jolts can cause serious damage to the spinal cord, which can result in paralysis or even death. It is important to understand that stabilizing the head is crucial in preventing any further injury to the spinal cord. If the rescuer were to let go of the patient's head prematurely, this could lead to the head moving unexpectedly, causing additional damage to the spine. Therefore, the rescuer should only let go of the patient's head when it is safe to do so, such as when the patient has been fully immobilized using appropriate devices or when the patient has been transferred to medical personnel who are trained and equipped to continue stabilization. In conclusion, manual stabilization of the head is an important part of the initial care for patients with suspected spinal injuries. It is essential that the rescuer continues to stabilize the head until the patient is completely immobilized to prevent any further damage to the spinal cord.
Learn more about device here
https://brainly.com/question/20922471
#SPJ11
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant. What family of anticoagulant medications does this drug belong to?
A. Direct thrombin inhibitors
B. Indirect thrombin inhibitors
C. Vitamin K antagonists
D. Factor Xa inhibitors
Warfarin belongs to the family of anticoagulant medications called Vitamin K antagonists (option C). It works by inhibiting the action of Vitamin K, which is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood.
Warfarin (Coumadin) is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, ultimately leading to the prevention of blood clots.
Anticoagulants are medications that help to prevent the formation of blood clots in the blood vessels. There are different types of anticoagulants, including direct thrombin inhibitors, indirect thrombin inhibitors, vitamin K antagonists, and Factor Xa inhibitors. Warfarin (Coumadin) belongs to the family of vitamin K antagonists, which work by blocking the action of vitamin K in the liver, thereby reducing the production of certain clotting factors that are dependent on vitamin K. Other medications in this family include acenocoumarol, phenprocoumon, and dabigatran.
Subheading: Classification of Warfarin
Warfarin belongs to the family of anticoagulant medications called Vitamin K antagonists (option C). It works by inhibiting the action of Vitamin K, which is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By doing so, Warfarin effectively slows down the blood clotting process and helps prevent the formation of dangerous clots.
To know more about anticoagulant medication refer to
https://brainly.com/question/30633802
#SPJ11
How many rescuers are preferred to carry patients on portable stretchers?
The number of rescuers preferred to carry patients on portable stretchers depends on several factors, such as the weight of the patient
This ensures that the weight of the patient is evenly distributed, reducing the risk of injury to the patient or the rescuers. However, for heavier patients or those with complex medical conditions, additional rescuers may be required to ensure the safety of everyone involved.
It is important to follow proper lifting techniques and to communicate effectively with all team members when carrying patients on portable stretchers to prevent accidents or injuries.
To know more about stretchers visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/31416004
#SPJ11
What nerve injury would cause difficulty rising from a seated position
A nerve injury that could cause difficulty rising from a seated position is damage to the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles in the thighs, which are essential for standing up from a seated position.
Nerve injury refers to damage or trauma to one or more nerves in the body, which can result in a range of symptoms and complications. Nerves are responsible for transmitting electrical impulses between the brain and other parts of the body, allowing for movement, sensation, and other functions. Nerve injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including physical trauma, infections, autoimmune disorders, and degenerative diseases. Symptoms of nerve injury may include pain, numbness, tingling, weakness, and loss of function in the affected area. Treatment for nerve injuries may include medications, physical therapy, surgery, or other interventions depending on the severity and cause of the injury. In some cases, nerve injuries can lead to long-term or permanent disability, making early detection and treatment essential for optimal outcomes.
Learn more about Nerve injury here:
https://brainly.com/question/6288807
#SPJ11
a nurse is concerned about older persons living alone at home without telephone service to contact emergency services. the nurse is advised to take part in grassroots efforts to address the situation. the nurse would take what action to increase effectiveness of the effort? (select all that apply.)
The actions a nurse could take to increase the effectiveness of the grassroots effort to address the situation of older persons living alone without telephone service: collaborate with local organizations, raise awareness, advocate for policy changes, develop a volunteer support network and Pursue funding opportunities.
Collaborate with local organizations and community members: Partnering with existing organizations and individuals in the community can help the nurse better understand the needs of the target population and share resources to make a greater impact.
Raise awareness about the issue: The nurse can create and distribute informational materials or host educational events to inform community members about the challenges faced by older persons living alone without telephone service and the importance of addressing this issue.
Advocate for policy changes: The nurse can work with local government and policymakers to create or amend policies that support the provision of telephone services to older persons living alone.
Develop a volunteer support network: The nurse can help organize a group of volunteers who can regularly check in on older persons living alone, ensuring their safety and well-being while also providing social interaction.
Pursue funding opportunities: To make the grassroots efforts sustainable, the nurse can research and apply for grants or other funding sources to support their initiatives.
By taking these actions, the nurse can increase the effectiveness of the grassroots effort to address the situation of older persons living alone without telephone service.
More on grassroots: https://brainly.com/question/31673945
#SPJ11
for Congenital Talipes Equinovarus what are Clinical Intervention
Congenital Talipes Equinovarus, also known as clubfoot, is a condition where a baby is born with a foot that is turned inward and downward.
Clinical intervention for this condition typically involves a series of non-surgical and surgical treatments. Non-surgical interventions may include casting, splinting, or bracing to gradually move the foot into a normal position. Surgical interventions may include releasing tight tendons, lengthening muscles, or realigning bones in the foot. The specific treatment plan will depend on the severity of the condition and the age of the patient. It is important to seek early surgical interventions to improve the chances of a successful outcome.
To learn more about surgical interventions, click here: https://brainly.com/question/30833676
#SPJ11
what phase of the home visit is described by the following:
introduce self and professional identity, interact socially to establish rapport, establish the nurse-client relationship, and implement the nursing process
The phase of the home visit that is described by the following activities: introducing oneself and professional identity, interacting socially to establish rapport, establishing the nurse-client relationship, and implementing the nursing process is the initial phase.
The initial phase of a home visit is when the nurse meets the client and establishes the foundation of the nurse-client relationship. This involves introducing oneself and a professional identity, establishing a comfortable and safe environment for communication, and creating a sense of trust between the nurse and the client. Social interaction is important to establish rapport and create a comfortable environment for the client. During this phase, the nurse may collect initial data, assess the client's health status and identify potential health problems, and develop a plan of care that is specific to the client's needs. It is important for the nurse to listen attentively to the client's concerns, provide appropriate education, and involve the client in the decision-making process.
learn more about nurse-client relationship here:
https://brainly.com/question/28447797
#SPJ11
The CDC bases it's public-health recommendations on the highest-quality ________________
The CDC bases it's public-health recommendations on the highest-quality evidence
The CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) is a leading national public health institute in the United States. In order to make informed public health recommendations, the CDC relies on the highest-quality evidence available, including data from scientific research, clinical trials, and epidemiological studies. This evidence-based approach helps ensure that the recommendations are based on sound scientific principles and have the greatest likelihood of being effective in preventing disease and promoting health.
learn more about evidence
https://brainly.com/question/20840904
#SPJ11
which of the following is not a typical cause of a vitamin deficiency? decreased vitamin synthesis decreased vitamin absorption increased vitamin losses increased vitamin requirements
Increased vitamin requirements are not a typical cause of a vitamin deficiency because some people might require more vitamins than others. Option D.
A vitamin deficiency occurs when the body does not get enough of a particular vitamin, which can lead to various health problems.
The most common causes of vitamin deficiency include decreased vitamin synthesis, which can occur due to a variety of reasons such as inadequate dietary intake, decreased absorption, which can occur due to certain medical conditions, increased vitamin losses, which can occur due to factors such as excessive sweating or diarrhea.
While some individuals may require increased amounts of certain vitamins due to factors such as pregnancy or medical conditions, this would not typically be a cause of a deficiency, as long as the increased requirement is met through diet or supplementation. Hence, option D is correct.
To learn more about vitamins, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/31187668
#SPJ11
which of thr following sampling schemes is more likely to be used by a researcher conducting q qualitative study?a. convenience samplingb. stratified samplingc. cluster samplingd. multiphase sampling
For the sampling schemes more likely to be used by a researcher conducting q qualitative study: Convenience sampling is more likely to be used by a researcher conducting a qualitative study. The correct option is (A).
Convenience sampling is a non-probability sampling technique that involves selecting the most readily available participants for a study. This type of sampling is commonly used in qualitative research because it allows researchers to quickly and easily collect data from participants who are easily accessible.
Qualitative research is focused on in-depth exploration and understanding of phenomena, and convenience sampling is often useful in identifying the types of participants that will help the researcher achieve the desired level of understanding.
This sampling technique is not appropriate for studies that require a representative sample or aim to generalize results to a larger population.
Therefore, convenience sampling is typically used in exploratory research, where the primary goal is to generate hypotheses or gather preliminary information to inform further research.
To know more about "Qualitative study" refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/14126031#
#SPJ11
what phase of the home visit is described by the following:
clarify source of referral, clarify purpose, and share info on the reason + purpose of the home visit with the family
The phase of the home visit that is described by the following activities: clarifying the source of referral, clarifying the purpose, and sharing information on the reason and purpose of the home visit with the family is the preparatory phase.
The preparatory phase of a home visit involves preparing for the visit and gathering information about the client's needs and concerns. This phase begins with clarifying the source of referral, which may come from a variety of sources such as the client, family members, healthcare providers, or community organizations. The purpose of the visit is also clarified, which may include assessing the client's health status, providing education and support, or coordinating care with other healthcare providers. During this phase, the nurse shares information with the family about the reason and purpose of the home visit, as well as what to expect during the visit. This can help to alleviate any concerns or anxieties that the family may have and promote a positive and productive visit.
learn more about preparatory phase here:
https://brainly.com/question/30580009
#SPJ11
clinical presentation of pertussis
1. Catarrhal (1-2 weeks): URI sxs (cough, rhinitis, low grade fever
2. Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks): cough, cough, cough : inspiratory whoop/ post-tussive emesis/cyanosis, sweating, exhaustion after coughing
3. Convalescent (weeks-months): mild cough (no more whoop)
The clinical presentation of pertussis, also known as whooping cough, occurs in three stages.
1. Catarrhal stage (1-2 weeks): This initial stage presents with upper respiratory infection (URI) symptoms such as a mild cough, rhinitis, and low-grade fever.
2. Paroxysmal stage (2-4 weeks): In this stage, the cough becomes more severe, with repetitive coughing episodes followed by an inspiratory "whoop" sound, post-tussive vomiting, cyanosis, sweating, and exhaustion after coughing.
3. Convalescent stage (weeks-months): During this phase, the cough becomes milder and the "whoop" sound disappears, as the patient starts to recover from the illness.
learn more about symptoms here:brainly.com/question/3355064
#SPJ11
for Aneurysm, thoracoabdominal what is Pharmaceutical Therapeutics?
In the case of thoracoabdominal aneurysm, pharmaceutical therapeutics play an important role in managing and preventing the progression of the condition.
A thoracoabdominal aneurysm is a serious condition where the walls of the aorta in the chest and abdomen weaken and bulge outwards, increasing the risk of rupture and internal bleeding. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical repair, which can be complex and carries significant risks.
Pharmaceutical therapeutics can help to manage thoracoabdominal aneurysm by providing medications that can help to control blood pressure, reduce inflammation, and prevent the formation of blood clots. These drugs can help to slow the progression of the aneurysm and reduce the risk of rupture, making it easier for patients to manage their condition and avoid surgical intervention.
Some of the most common pharmaceutical therapeutics used in the management of thoracoabdominal aneurysm include beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and statins. These drugs work by reducing the workload on the heart, lowering blood pressure, and preventing the formation of plaque in the arteries, all of which can help to protect against aneurysm formation and progression.
To know more about internal bleeding here
https://brainly.com/question/29698452
#SPJ11
A patient is diagnosed with acute on chronic diastolic congestive heart failure (CHF). What is/are the ICD-10-CM code(s) reported?
A) I50.33
B) I50.31, I50.32
C) I50.43
D) I50.32
The correct answer for the ICD-10-CM code(s) reported for a patient diagnosed with acute on chronic diastolic congestive heart failure (CHF) would be option B) I50.31, I50.32.
To understand this answer, we need to break down the terms in the diagnosis. "Chronic" implies that the patient has a long-standing, ongoing condition. "Heart" refers to the organ affected, and "congestive heart failure" describes a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. "Diastolic" refers to the phase of the heart's cycle where it relaxes and fills with blood, and "acute on chronic" means that the patient is experiencing a sudden worsening of their chronic condition.In ICD-10-CM, codes for CHF are found under the category I50. The specific code used depends on the type of CHF and any associated conditions. For diastolic CHF, there are two subcategories: I50.31 for acute diastolic (congestive) heart failure, and I50.32 for chronic diastolic (congestive) heart failure. Since the patient in this scenario has acute on chronic diastolic CHF, both codes I50.31 and I50.32 would be reported.It's important to use the correct ICD-10-CM codes to accurately reflect the patient's condition and ensure appropriate reimbursement.
Learn more about diagnosed here
https://brainly.com/question/28853861
#SPJ11
linda wallace is being admitted to the hospital. she is presented with a notice of privacy practices. in the notice, it is explained that her phi will be used and disclosed for treatment, payment and operations (tpo) purposes. linda states that she does not want her phi used for those purposes.
The hospital Honor Linda's request and restrict the use and disclosure of her PHI for TPO purposes. The correct option is A).
However, Linda states that she does not want her PHI used for those purposes.
It is important to note that healthcare providers are required to obtain patient consent before using or disclosing their PHI. However, in certain cases, they may use or disclose PHI without consent for TPO purposes. This includes situations such as billing for services or coordinating care between healthcare providers.
If Linda does not want her PHI used for TPO purposes, she has the right to restrict its use and disclosure. Healthcare providers must respect this request unless there are certain exceptions such as emergency situations or when required by law.
In summary, patients have the right to control their PHI and can restrict its use and disclosure for TPO purposes if they so choose. Healthcare providers must respect this request unless there are certain exceptions that apply. Therefore, the correct option is A).
To know more about PHI refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/30587690#
#SPJ11
Linda Wallace is being admitted to the hospital. She is presented with a Notice of Privacy Practices. In the notice, it is explained that her Protected Health Information (PHI) will be used and disclosed for Treatment, Payment, and Operations (TPO) purposes. Linda states that she does not want her PHI used for those purposes. Which of the following actions should the hospital take in response to Linda's request?
A) Honor Linda's request and restrict the use and disclosure of her PHI for TPO purposes.
B) Explain to Linda that the hospital is required by law to use and disclose her PHI for TPO purposes and cannot honor her request.
C) Offer Linda an opportunity to opt out of certain uses and disclosures of her PHI for TPO purposes, while explaining that it may affect her access to care and billing processes.
D) Discharge Linda from the hospital without providing any treatment or services.
E) Offer Linda an opportunity to review and revise her decision at a later time, after she has had a chance to discuss her concerns with her healthcare provider.
Rheumatic fever related to endocarditis.
Etiology
Finding
Rheumatic fever is related to endocarditis, with the etiology being a group A Streptococcus bacterial infection.
Rheumatic fever is indeed related to endocarditis. Here's an explanation that includes the terms you mentioned:
Endocarditis is an inflammation of the inner lining of the heart (specifically the heart valves), which can be caused by various factors.
Etiology refers to the underlying cause of a disease or condition. In the case of rheumatic fever, the etiology is a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This infection, if not treated properly, can lead to an autoimmune response, causing inflammation in various parts of the body, including the heart.
Rheumatic fever can result in rheumatic heart disease, which can cause damage to the heart valves. This damage can lead to endocarditis, as the inflamed and damaged valves are more susceptible to further bacterial infection.
In summary:
Rheumatic fever is related to endocarditis, with the etiology being a group A Streptococcus bacterial infection. If left untreated, the infection can lead to rheumatic heart disease, which in turn can cause endocarditis due to the inflammation and damage to the heart valves.
to learn more about endocarditis click here:
brainly.com/question/31058917
#SPJ11
In a motorcycle collision, burns are most commonly associated with:
What responsibilities does the EMT have when it comes to ambulance supplies?
An EMT, or Emergency Medical Technician, is responsible for a variety of tasks related to the care and treatment of patients in emergency situations. One of the key responsibilities of an EMT is to ensure that the ambulance is well-stocked with all necessary supplies and equipment to respond to emergencies quickly and effectively.
This involves maintaining an inventory of medical supplies, including items such as bandages, oxygen tanks, defibrillators, and medications, and ensuring that they are in good working condition and not expired. EMTs must also be able to quickly assess which supplies and equipment will be needed for specific situations, such as traumatic injuries or cardiac arrests.
In addition to stocking and maintaining ambulance supplies, EMTs must also ensure that they are properly used and disposed of. They must follow established protocols for handling hazardous materials, such as needles or contaminated supplies, to prevent the spread of infection or disease.
To know more about EMT
https://brainly.com/question/31350501
#SPJ11
for Osteomyelitis what are Acute vs Chronic?
Osteomyelitis is a bacterial infection that affects the bone and can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute osteomyelitis is a sudden onset of infection that typically lasts for a few weeks, while chronic osteomyelitis is a long-standing infection that persists for months or even years.
Acute osteomyelitis is usually caused by a single type of bacteria, and the symptoms may include fever, pain, swelling, redness, and warmth in the affected area. Chronic osteomyelitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by multiple types of bacteria and may have more subtle symptoms such as intermittent pain, drainage, and non-healing wounds.
Treatment for acute osteomyelitis typically involves antibiotics and sometimes surgical intervention, while treatment for chronic osteomyelitis often requires long-term antibiotic therapy and surgical debridement to remove infected tissue.
To know more about Osteomyelitis visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/13022480
#SPJ11
What is the brand name for methylprednisolone?
◉ Deltasone
◉ Dolophine
◉ Medrol
◉ Mobic
for Rheumatic Heart Disease what is
1.MCC(Multiple chronic conditions)
2.Complication of...?
3.What criteria?
Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD) is a chronic inflammatory condition affecting the heart valves, often caused by untreated streptococcal infections.
It is a leading cause of heart disease in developing countries and can result in significant morbidity and mortality. 1. RHD is often associated with multiple chronic conditions, including congestive heart failure, arrhythmias, pulmonary hypertension, and stroke. These comorbidities can further exacerbate the impact of RHD on the patient's health and quality of life. 2. The main complication of RHD is valve damage or dysfunction, which can lead to heart failure and the need for valve replacement surgery. In addition, RHD patients are at increased risk of infective endocarditis, an infection of the heart valves that can be life-threatening. 3. The criteria for diagnosing RHD include a history of streptococcal infection, evidence of rheumatic fever (such as joint pain, fever, or skin rash), and echocardiographic findings of valve damage or dysfunction. Treatment includes antibiotics to prevent further infections, anti-inflammatory medications to manage inflammation, and surgical intervention as needed. Prevention of RHD involves prompt treatment of streptococcal infections and long-term antibiotic prophylaxis for those at high risk.
Learn more about Rheumatic Heart Disease here
https://brainly.com/question/11143953
#SPJ11
Pityriasis rosea primarily affects who?
Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that primarily affects young adults and adolescents, although it can occur in people of all ages. It is characterized by a single large scaly patch, called the herald patch, followed by multiple smaller patches that are pink or red and often have a raised border.
These patches can appear on various parts of the body, such as the chest, back, arms, and legs, and may be accompanied by itching. Although the exact cause of pityriasis rosea is unknown, it is believed to be triggered by a viral infection, such as the human herpesvirus 6 or 7. The condition is not contagious and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options may include topical corticosteroids, antihistamines, and phototherapy.
To know more about phototherapy.
https://brainly.com/question/28271633
#SPJ11
Which resource serves as a guide to the federal government's emergency response?
Select one:
Healthcare Ready
Strategic National Stockpile
National Response Framework
Model Rules for Public Health Emergencies
The resource that serves as a guide to the federal government's emergency response is the National Response Framework (NRF).
The NRF is a comprehensive guide that provides guidance on how to respond to all types of emergencies, including natural disasters, terrorist attacks, and public health emergencies. The framework outlines the roles and responsibilities of different federal, state, and local agencies and organizations in emergency response, as well as the principles and practices for effective coordination and collaboration among them.
It also includes the Emergency Support Functions (ESFs), which provide a standardized structure for organizing resources and capabilities during an emergency. The NRF is regularly updated to reflect new threats, technologies, and lessons learned from past emergencies, ensuring that the federal government is prepared to respond to any emergency that may arise.
To know more about NRF visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/12702845
#SPJ11
for Unstable Angina mention its Clinical Intervention
Unstable angina is a type of chest pain that occurs when the heart is not receiving enough oxygen-rich blood. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention.
Clinical intervention for unstable angina typically involves a combination of medications and procedures to restore blood flow to the heart. The first step in clinical intervention for unstable angina is to stabilize the patient's condition. This may involve administering nitroglycerin to dilate the blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy may also be provided to increase oxygen levels in the blood. Once the patient is stabilized, further diagnostic tests such as an electrocardiogram (ECG), blood tests, and imaging tests may be conducted to determine the underlying cause of the unstable angina. Medications such as aspirin, heparin, and beta-blockers may be prescribed to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of further heart damage. In some cases, procedures such as angioplasty or coronary artery bypass surgery may be necessary to restore blood flow to the heart. These interventions can help to prevent future episodes of unstable angina and reduce the risk of heart attack and other complications. Overall, prompt and effective clinical intervention is essential for managing unstable angina and preventing serious health complications.
Learn more about oxygen here
https://brainly.com/question/26073928
#SPJ11
a junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. they learned that a new definition of copd leaves only one type of disorder within its classification. which of the following is part of that disorder?
Answer:
Patient and family teaching is an important nursing intervention to enhance self-management in patients with any chronic pulmonary disorder. To achieve airway clearance: The nurse must appropriately administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids and become alert for potential side effects
Chronic bronchitis.
Chronic bronchitis falls under the classification of COPD and is characterized by persistent inflammation of the bronchial tubes, leading to excess mucus production and recurrent coughing. Management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases, such as COPD, is an important topic for nursing students to understand.
Bronchitis is when the airways in your lungs, your bronchi, become inflamed. This irritation can cause severe coughing spells that bring up mucus, wheezing, chest pain and shortness of breath. There are two main types, acute and chronic.
Unlike acute bronchitis, which usually develops from a respiratory infection such as a cold and goes away in a week or two, chronic bronchitis is a more serious condition that develops over time. Symptoms may get better or worse, but they will never completely go away. These extended periods of inflammation cause sticky mucus to build up in the airways, leading to long-term breathing difficulties.
Along with emphysema, chronic bronchitis is one of the lung diseases that comprise COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). There are a number of treatments available to help control symptoms and ease breathing problems.
To know more Chronic bronchitis click this link-
brainly.in/question/5749981
#SPJ11
Which risk factors increase a client's risk for venous thromboembolism that may progress to a pulmonary embolism? Select all that apply.
A. Age 72 years
B. Admission weight of 290 lb (131.8 kg)
C. Ability to ambulate with assistance of one person
D. Presence of a central venous catheter
E. Nonsmoker
The risk factors that increase a client's risk for venous thromboembolism that may progress to a pulmonary embolism include:
A. Age 72 years
B. Admission weight of 290 lb (131.8 kg)
D. Presence of a central venous catheter
Factors C and E do not increase the risk for venous thromboembolism.
The risk factors that increase a client's risk for venous thromboembolism that may progress to a pulmonary embolism include:
These factors contribute to an increased risk of blood clot formation, which can lead to venous thromboembolism and potentially progress to a pulmonary embolism.
To know more about blood clot visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/11230651
#SPJ11
Ischemic strokes are the most common type of stroke.
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
You're welcome please consider giving me 5 stars
Describe the most common Hx and PE findings for pts with plantar fasciitis.
Plantar fasciitis is a common condition that affects the foot and causes pain and discomfort. The most common history (Hx) finding for patients with plantar fasciitis is pain in the heel or bottom of the foot that is worst in the morning or after periods of rest. The pain may also worsen after standing or walking for extended periods of time.
On physical examination (PE), the most common finding for patients with plantar fasciitis is tenderness and swelling in the heel area. The pain may also be elicited by dorsiflexing the toes and stretching the plantar fascia. Additionally, there may be limited ankle dorsiflexion and tightness in the Achilles tendon.
Other common PE findings may include redness, warmth, and crepitus (a cracking sound) in the affected area. In severe cases, there may be a noticeable limp and altered gait due to the pain and discomfort associated with the condition.
To know more about Plantar fasciitis visit:-
https://brainly.com/question/28535160
#SPJ11
What is the purpose of tocolysis in the event of threatened preterm labour?
