why the receptionist should never take patient information, demographic or clinical, at the front desk
Why the receptionist should never take patient information:
A patient's illness is confidential data between the patient and the doctor.So that the receptionist does not suspect the patient's diagnosis of illness.So that the receptionist is always neutral regardless of the patient's illnessHow is the receptionist job at the hospital?The responsibility of the receptionist at the hospital is to receive and examine information on guests who come to visit, listen to guest complaints, manage administrative records relating to outgoing or incoming guests, and receive and forward incoming letters to the intended party.
Receptionists are employees who have the task of greeting, serving, and providing information to visitors, customers, or interested parties regarding the desired destination.
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matthew received a pacemaker to help the arrhythmia he is experiencing with his heart. the pacemaker provides a continual stream of information that is monitored by specialists at the heart clinic and if they notice any indicators of concern, they contact matthew and he reports to the clinic for assessment. what is helping the heart clinic improve the quality of care matthew is receiving
to prevent further sickle cell crisis, the nurse would advise the parents of a child with sickle cell anemia to:
To prevent further sickle cell crisis, the nurse would advise the parents of a child with sickle cell anemia to notify a health care provider if the child develops an upper respiratory infection.
Pain that starts suddenly and lasts for a few hours to several days is known as a sickle cell crisis. Sickled red blood cells block the tiny blood capillaries that deliver blood to your bones, causing this to occur. It's possible for you to experience discomfort in your back, legs, arms, chest, or stomach.
Organs impacted by sickle cells that prevent blood flow are deprived of both blood and oxygen. In sickle cell, anemia blood oxygen levels are also abnormally low. This deficiency in oxygen-rich blood can be lethal and harm nerves and organs like the kidneys, liver, and spleen. The gene that aids in producing healthy red blood cells mutates or changes in sickle cell anemia.
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Which combining form curved?
The combining form curved is tropous is used as surfix meaning.
the nurse is cautiously assessing a client admitted with peptic ulcer disease because the most common complication that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients is:
The nurse is cautiously assessing a client admitted with peptic ulcer disease because the most common complication that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients is Hemorrhage.
What is Hemorrhage?
Blood is lost from a broken blood artery during a hemorrhage. Blood loss can be minimal or significant, and the bleeding may occur inside or outside the body.
What are the most typical reasons for bleeding?
Hemorrhage may have a variety of reasons, including:
usage of cigarettes, alcohol, or other drugs that is excessive or ongoing (bleeding in the brain).
problems of blood clotting.
Cancer.
complications that might arise during medical operations like delivery or surgery.
an internal organ is hurt.
diseases that can be passed down via families, such as hemophilia and hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia.
injuries include bone fractures, severe brain damage, or cuts and puncture wounds.
Physical abuse or acts of violence, such as a knife or bullet wound.
viruses like a viral hemorrhagic fever that target blood vessels.
Depending on the site or the reason, a hemorrhage may be referred to as
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how can the nurse most simply describe for distressed parents a rhabdomyosarcoma that has been found in their 5-year-old?
The nurse's most straightforward explanation to anxious parents is Consider it a tumor made of muscle.
What kind of work does a nurse do?Registered nurses (RNs) deliver and coordinate patient care, inform the public about various health issues, and offer patients' families emotional support and advice. In a variety of contexts, the majority of registered nurses collaborate with doctors and other healthcare professionals.
Can nurses perform surgery?Among the most difficult nursing home care, surgical nursing is found in the healthcare industry. They are in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, including postoperative care in surgery.
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the nurse is administering an intermittent tube feeding to a client via gravity using an open feeding bag system. what step would the nurse perform when the feeding bag is empty?
Add 30 mL of water to the feeding bag and flush.
What method of gravity tube feeding is proper?Remove the cap from the tubing tip of the gravity bag. Connect the tubing's tip to the feeding port. To begin feeding, slowly open the roller clamp. By changing the roller clamp, you can regulate the feeding rate.
To reduce the danger of backflow or aspiration if any reflux or vomiting should occur, the nurse should have the client sit up for at least 30 to 60 minutes after providing a tube feeding.
When handling feeding tubes, wear gloves and keep your hands away from can tops, container openings, spikes, and spike ports. Equipment labelling The patient's name, room number, and the formula type should all be listed on labels.
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Kaiya has been living in an assisted living facility after taking a fall in her house. She has actively participated in physical therapy and has shown an increase in her abilities to take care of herself. She really missed her freedom and being surrounded by people she knows and loves. She is extremely shy and does not like to be around strangers. So despite all her physical improvements, she remained very sad. Kaiya’s doctor should most likely
wait for six months and see if her attitude has changed.
arrange a transfer to Kaiya’s granddaughter, who is able to care for her.
discharge Kaiya to allow her the chance to find her own facility.
suggest to the nursing assistant, Dan, that he take her to more social events.
Answer:
arrange a transfer to Kaiya’s granddaughter, who can care for her.
Explanation:
if she's is doing better there is no medical reason to keep her.
the nurse caring for a newborn notes a distended abdomen approximately 24 hours after birth. which action should the nurse take after review of the medical record reveals an apparent healthy newborn at birth but no documentation of a bowel movement?
The nurse should prioritise to inform the RN and the primary care provider immediately as soon as she examines the newborn.
When a newborn is born it does not eat that much whatever it gets is the milk that it gets from its mother. If anything consumed anything to gain power it produces some waste that waste should must be eliminated from the body within a certified time. So if newborn is not showing any bowel movement then it is very much possible that he must be suffering from any serious condition.
The distended abdomen of the newborn is the sign that there is no Bowel moment in the child you can create future for the newborn so she should must inform immediately Care provider or the RN.
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the nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client who has been transported to the emergency room by ambulance. when the nurse observes that the client’s skin appears pale, with blue-tinged lips and oral mucosa, the nurse should document the presence of
The nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client who has been transported to the emergency room by ambulance. when the nurse observes that the client’s skin appears pale, with blue-tinged lips and oral mucosa, the nurse should document the presence of a great degree of Cyanosis.
Who are the nurse?A nurse is a well trained person who Dedicatedly work or assist with the doctor to make people healthy and keep them well.
They are person who completed their graduation in nursing and qualified all the necessary steps to become a nurse.
Nursing is a noble profession like doctors.
What is Cyanosis?Atypical blue staining of the skin and mucous membranes is referred to as cyanosis. The name comes from the Greek word kuaneos, which means deep blue.
Increased deoxygenated haemoglobin levels above 5 g/dL are what lead to cyanosis. In reality, anaemic people don't experience cyanosis until their oxygen saturation (also known as SaO2) drops below normal haemoglobin levels.
If oxygen saturation falls between 80 and 87%, adults with normal haemoglobin (13.5–18 g/dL for men and 11.5–16 g/dL for women) will experience core cyanosis.
Patients with reduced haemoglobin levels or anaemia claim that before cyanosis becomes clinically evident, the saturation level must go as low as 60%.
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is being treated with an anticoagulant for pulmonary embolism (pe). what patient assessment finding indicates that a heparin infusion would be stopped immediately
Heparin should be stopped as soon as platelet counts drop considerably (often by 50% of baseline), and if anticoagulation is required, direct thrombin inhibitors like lepirudin or argatroban should be started.
What is pulmonary embolism ?Damage to lung tissue may result from a pulmonary embolism (PE), which can reduce blood flow. It may result in low blood oxygen levels, which may harm more body organs. Large PEs or many clots in particular can soon result in major issues that can be fatal.
The majority of the time, blood clots from deep leg veins or, rarely, veins in other parts of the body that go to the lungs cause pulmonary embolism (deep vein thrombosis). Pneumoembolism poses a life-threatening risk because the clots prevent blood from reaching the lungs.When appropriately recognised and treated, a pulmonary embolism may dissipate on its own. But if ignored, it can become serious and result inLearn more about Pulmonary embolism here:
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which roles could the nurse assign to unlicensed assistive personnel in caring for a client with a cast
The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can help clients out of bed or to the bathroom, help with activities of each day dwelling, and function customers.
The RN is responsible for assessing the client and adhering to the nursing manner. Nurses can never assign affected person care sports to UAP; they are able to simplest delegate activities or duties. The nursing method itself cannot be delegated. The nursing obligations of evaluation, making plans and assessments, and the usage of nursing judgment stay completely within the scope of practice of the professional RN.
The UAP is answerable for accepting most effective the delegated acts for which they're capable to perform. only the implementation of an undertaking/hobby can be delegated. assessment, making plans, assessment, and nursing judgment can not be delegated.
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which factor would the nurse consider when planning activities for an older resident in a long term care facility
Planning activities for elderly residents in long-term care facilities:
Sports activities to maintain stamina and fitness.Prevention and control of infectious and non-communicable diseases. Integrated nutrition development of the elderly so that the elderly life quality.Mental health coaching improves the degree of mental health to be happy, independent, and productive. Brain stimulation to maintain cognitive function.What is the role of nurses in nursing efforts for the elderly?The role of nurses in the health status of the elderly is to improve the health status of the elderly and abilities of the elderly using treatment, prevention, helping to maintain the spirit of the elderly, and caring for the sick and disturbed elderly.
Long-Term Care is a process of providing long-term assistance and support to the elderly who are unable to care for themselves either partially or completely due to limitations in physical and mental aspects provided by professional and informal mentors.
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the community/public health nurse understands that the recovery phase of a disaster event is consistent with which timeframe?
The community/public health nurse understands that the recovery phase of a disaster event is consistent with the timeframe of long term after the response phase of the disaster event.
A disaster is outlined as a "sudden or nice misfortune" or just "any unfortunate event." a lot of exactly, a disaster is "an event whose temporal arrangement is surprising and whose consequences area unit seriously damaging." These definitions establish an incident that has 3 elements: precipitance, extraordinariness.
The recovery phase begins in real time once the threat to human life has subsided. The goal of the recovery part is to bring the affected space back to some extent of normalcy. Mitigation is that the effort to cut back loss of life and property by drop-off the impact of disasters and emergencies.
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a researcher is examining the quality of life for prisoners who are hiv-positive using surveys followed by interview. the irb must ensure that:
The researcher must ensure to maintain the confidentiality of the HIV-positive prisoner’s health status.
HIV usually develops into AIDS in 8 to 10 years if an HIV-positive person is not treated. The immune system is severely compromised when AIDS strikes. They will be more susceptible to illnesses than that of a person with a strong immune system wouldn't typically get. These are referred to as opportunistic cancers or opportunistic infections.
HIV-positive inmates may not have any secrecy or privacy regarding their status in various facilities. They might be isolated from other prisoners, kept apart from them, and prohibited from participating in certain job and leisure activities.
One of the basic responsibilities of the medical approach is confidentiality. Health care practitioners must keep patients' private health information confidential until and until the patient gives permission to reveal it. Confidentiality or the need to keep information private is moral.
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a nurse is completing a health history for a client who is at 8 weeks gestation. the client informs the nurse that she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. the nurse should advise the client that smoking places the client's newborn at risk for what complication?
The nurse who is attending to a client who is at 8 weeks gestation, the client informs that the nurse smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. The nurse should inform the client that smoking places the newborn at an increased rate of complication for Intrauterine growth restriction.
In the question, it is stated that a nurse is helping a client who is at 8 weeks gestation. The client further informs the nurse that she smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. It is the nurse's responsibility to advise the client about the increased rate of Intrauterine Growth restrictions complications.
Intrauterine Growth restrictions are a type of complication that is faced when the baby does not grow optimally and faces issues. Smoking has proven to be a major contributor in triggering Intrauterine Growth restrictions and hence be avoided.
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what should you do if the air quality is particularly poor, and you want to exercise?
If the air quality is particularly poor, and you want to exercise you should exercise in indoor facilities.
Consider the Air quality index as a scale that ranges from 0 to 500. The greater the air pollution level and the larger the health issue, the higher the AQI number. An AQI number of 50 or below, for instance, denotes good air quality, whereas one of over 300 denotes hazardous air quality.
An AQI value of 100 for each pollutant typically equates to an ambient air concentration at or below the short-term national ambient air quality threshold for protecting public health. In general, AQI scores at or below 100 are regarded as good. When AQI levels are above 100, the air is unhealthy, initially for some vulnerable groups of individuals and later, as AQI values rise, for everyone.
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1. What role does estrogen play in bone remodeling? (Be specific; discuss RANK, RANKL and OPG.)
2. What role(s) do glucocorticoids play in bone remodeling? (Be specific; discuss RANK, RANKL, and OPG.)
Both estrogen and glucocorticoids play an important part in remodeling.
The main impact of estrogen is to inhibit bone transforming, possible via the bone cell. steroid hormone additionally inhibits bone organic process, primarily by directs effects on osteoclasts, though effects of steroid hormone on osteoblast/osteocyte and T-cell regulation of osteoclasts possible additionally play a job.
Glucocorticoids cause profound effects on somatic cell replication, differentiation, and performance. Glucocorticoids increase bone organic process by stimulating osteoclastogenesis by increasing the expression of RANK matter and decreasing the expression of its decoy receptor, osteoprotegerin.
Bone remodeling is a long method wherever mature bone tissue is far from the skeleton (a method known as bone resorption) and new bone tissue is created.
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why are water-soluble vitamins less likely to be toxic compared to fat-soluble vitamins? group of answer choices
Fat-soluble vitamins are most likely to be toxic because they are stored in the tissues and are not easily excreated through urine.
What is the difference between water-soluble vitamins and fat-soluble vitamins?Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed immediately and enter the body. If there is any excess of these, the body can eliminate them immediately through the urine, so they cannot accumulate in excess, becoming toxic. While fat-soluble vitamins are dissolved in fat, they then tend to be stored in the liver and adipose tissue.
These are not as easy to remove so they can easily build up to toxic levels.
Therefore, we can confirm that fat-soluble vitamins are most likely to be toxic because they are stored in the tissues and are not easily excreated through urine.
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the nurse suspects a client has developed pericarditis after a week of cold-like symptoms. which of the client's signs and symptoms indicate pericarditis?
fever, chest discomfort, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are some signs and symptoms indicating pericarditis.
Pericarditis is an inflammation and swelling of the delicate, sac-like tissue around the heart (pericardium). Sharp chest pain is a common symptom of pericarditis. When the inflamed pericardium's layers rub against one another, chest pain results. The majority of the time, mild cases of pericarditis resolve on their own.
The classic signs and symptoms of pericarditis include fever, positional chest discomfort, nonspecific ST-segment elevation, elevated ESR, and pericardial friction rub. Low urine output secondary to left ventricular dysfunction lethargy, anorexia, heart failure and pitting edema, result from acute renal failure.
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The client is experiencing excessive amounts of discharge coming from their head. What is this condition called?.
The client is experiencing excessive amounts of discharge coming from their head, then it can be a indication of cerebrospinal fluid leak, brain hemorrhage, etc. depending upon the type of discharge.
What is the result of excessive discharge coming from the head?Excessive discharge coming from the head can result in various medical conditions which depends on the type, color, and consistency of the discharge. If the discharge is a clear liquid, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may be present which protects the brain and spinal cord by surrounding them.
Excessive CSF discharge results because of traumatic injury or a cerebrospinal fluid leak which is a medical condition. If the discharge is thick, yellow color and a person is experiencing symptoms, such as fever or headaches, then a person is experiencing sinus infection or a bacterial infection of the ears, nose, or throat.
If the discharge is bloody, it is an indication of a head injury, a nose bleed, or a brain hemorrhage which is a very serious medical condition.
Therefore, if the client is experiencing excessive amounts of discharge coming from their head, then it can be a indication of cerebrospinal fluid leak, brain hemorrhage, etc. depending upon the type of discharge.
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Answer: seborrhea
Explanation:
The prefix seb/o (meaning oil) and the suffix -rrhea (meaning discharge) combine to make the word seborrhea. It can be inferred that because the discharge is coming from the patient's head that it is coming from their sebaceous glands.
which instruction from the nurse to an 80 year old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer would be beneficial
Using the theories of nursing, we got that dress warmly in cold weather as the instruction from the nurse to an 80 year old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer.
Subcutaneous tissue, which is also known as hypodermis , is the innermost layer of skin. It's made up of the fat and the connective tissues that house larger blood vessels and nerves, and it acts as an insulator to help regulate the body temperature. The thickness of this subcutaneous layer varies throughout the body and also from one person to another person.
Hence, the instruction from the nurse to an 80 year old client with thinning of a subcutaneous layer would be beneficial is dress warmly in cold weather.
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a nurse is assisting with the resuscitation of a preterm newborn. which assessment would help assist the team in determining that the resuscitation efforts have been successful?
Rescuers should make sure that aided ventilation is being administered as ideally as possible before beginning chest compressions because ventilation is the most effective intervention in newborn resuscitation and because chest compressions are likely to compete with good ventilation.
What signs point to the need for infant resuscitation?Cardiac resuscitation should be started if the baby's heart rate is missing or if it doesn't reach 60 beats per minute after 30 seconds of efficient breathing. Stethoscope listening over the precordium or feeling for pulsations at the base of the umbilical cord are two ways to determine heart rate.
The first steps in performing resuscitation are to warm the baby by placing him or her under a radiant heat source, to open the airway by placing the baby's head in a "sniffing" position, to clear the airway if necessary using a bulb syringe or suction catheter, to dry the child, and to encourage breathing.
The careful ventilation of the lungs while limiting harm is one of the essential components of a successful newborn resuscitation.
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which intervention would the nurse take to ensure the wellbeing of a community dwelling older adult with dementia
Nurse inference for elderly dementia patients is therapeutic.
Therapeutic for dementia is the form of realizing that the condition experienced has an important value, guiding the recall of pleasant memories, actively involving patients in care, developing a treatment plan that involves the achievement of simple to complex goals, providing opportunities for patients and families to be involved with group support, creating an environment that facilitates the practice of spiritual needs.
An increase in the number of elderly people can cause problems in the process of decreasing the function of various organs such as cell count, activity, ability to smell, reduced sensitivity, and appetite so that they experience structural, physiological, brain function, thinking, and forgetfulness. This gives rise to physical and mental changes that are often called dementia.
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what component of tobacco smoke provides the flavor in cigarette smoke and is also a major source of its carcinogenicity?
Tar, benzene, arsenic, and other poisonous substances like formaldehyde, carbon monoxide, and nicotine.
What does smoking do to your body?In addition to emphysema and chronic bronchitis, smoking also increases the risk of developing cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung conditions, diabetes, or chronic obstructive (COPD). Smoking also raises the risk of developing tuberculosis, several eye conditions, and immune system issues, such as rheumatoid arthritis.
As to why people smoke,The nicotine addiction rate among habitual smokers is between 80 and 90 percent. Within 10 seconds of entering your body, nicotine makes its way to your brain. It results in the release of adrenaline from the brain, which produces a buzzing of pleasure & energy.
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During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is __________.
Growth hormone is the main trigger for epiphyseal plate activity in infancy and development.
What is growth hormone?Growth hormone is the most important thing for bone growth (epiphyseal plate activity) in babies and young children. Thyroid hormones can change how growth hormone works.
The anterior pituitary gland makes growth hormone, which makes cells called chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plate divide. Chondrocytes make cartilage, which osteoclast cells turn into bone. This makes the long bones longer.
The diaphysis of the bone can keep getting longer until early adulthood because of the epiphyseal plate. When growth stops, the cartilage on the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone. This is when the epiphyseal line is formed.
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a patient with no known drug allergies is receiving amoxicillin [amoxil] po twice daily. twenty minutes after being given a dose, the patient complains of shortness of breath. the patient’s blood pressure is 100/58 mm h
a patient is hospitalized for a frontal skull fracture from a blunt force head injury. thin bloody fluid is draining from the patient's nose. what action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Applying a loose gauze pad under the patient nose is the action by the nurse is most appropriate.
A frontal skull fracture might cause CSF rhinorrhea (clear or bloody discharge from the nose). If a loose collecting pad is put under the nose, the blood will coagulate and a yellow halo will appear if CSF is present. If there is clear discharge, testing for glucose will reveal the presence of CSF.
Because blood includes glucose, mixed blood and CSF will both test positive for glucose. If CSF rhinorrhea develops, the nurse should notify the doctor right away. To allow a tear to close, the head of the bed can be lifted. The nurse should not insert a dressing or tube into the patient's nasal cavity, and the patient should not sneeze.
Interventions for lowering or stabilizing ICP include raising the head of the bed to thirty degrees, maintaining a neutral neck posture, maintaining a normal body temperature, and avoiding volume overload.
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why are the four major assessment techniques performed in a different order for the abdominal system
The four major assessment techniques are performed in a different order for the abdominal system The abdominal can offer vital data approximately his inner organs.
Always follow this collection: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. changing the order of those evaluation techniques ought to alter the frequency of bowel sounds and make your findings less correct.
The belly exam consists of 4 primary additives: inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. it is essential first of all a general exam of the stomach with the patient in a very supine function.
In palpating the abdomen, one ought to first gently examine the stomach wall with the fingertips. this will display the crunching feeling of crepitus of the abdominal wall, a signal of gas or fluid in the subcutaneous tissues.
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the nurse researcher is reviewing a clinical question and identifies the group of patients with a particular health care problem that is being studied. this area of the clinical question is the
A hypothesis is a part of a clinical statement that can be tested through scientific research.
When testing a relationship between two or more variables, you should create a hypothesis before starting the experiment or data collection.
A hypothesis is a statement that can be tested through scientific research. If you want to test the relationship between two or more variables, you should formulate a hypothesis before starting the experiment or data collection.
This hypothesis is an important part of any scientific investigation. It represents what researchers expect in their studies and experiments. Research is valuable even in situations where the hypothesis is not supported by research. Such studies help us better understand how different aspects of the natural world relate to each other.It also helps us develop new hypotheses that we can test in the future.
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