The Mendelian inheritance principles are called the Law of Segregation, the Law of genetic Dominance and the Law of Independent Assortment.
What are the Mendelian genetic inheritance principles?The Mendelian genetic inheritance principles are a series of laws that dominate genetic patterns of inheritance which were discovered by Gregor Mendel who investigated inheritance in pea plants.
The Law of Segregation indicates that alleles separate in different gametes when they are not linked, and the law of dominance indicates that certain alleles mask the expression of recessive alleles in heterozygous individuals. Moreover, the Law of Independent Assortment is based on genes that are located on different chromosomes.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the Mendelian genetic inheritance principles are fundamental to understanding inheritance patterns and they were discovered by Gregor Mendel working with different traits in the pea plant.
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what role does a transcription factor play in a signal transduction pathway?
Answer:
Signal transduction pathways allow different types of cells to respond differently to the same signal molecule. Signal transduction pathways convert a signal on a cell's surface to a specific cellular response.
The targets of such signaling pathways frequently include transcription factors that function to regulate gene expression. Intracellular signaling pathways thus connect the cell surface to the nucleus, leading to changes in gene expression in response to extracellular stimuli.
Paleogenomics is based on the recovery and sequencing of dna from fossil remains of extinct species. True / False
an advantage of asexual reproduction is that it _____.
An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it involves only one parent and the offspring produced are exactly alike to the parents.
What is asexual reproduction?Asexual reproduction is a form of reproduction in which only one parent is involved in the production of offspring.
Asexual reproduction is the form of reproduction employed by many organisms such as microorganisms, some animals as well s some plants.
The several forms of asexual reproduction include:
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which drosophila melanogaster genotype is associated with the worst performance in an olfactory learning task?
Answer:
The answer would be Dunce, rutabaga double mutant.
Explanation:
H o p e t h i s h e l p s^^
3) what is the physical molecular basis for mendel’s law of segregation and law of independent assortment, in terms of the behavior of chromosomes?
Mendel's law of Independent assortment is one of the laws or principles of inheritance he proposed. It states that the alleles of a gene will get sorted into gametes independently of the alleles of another gene.
What is dihybrid cross?He came up with this principle when he performed a cross involving two genes called dihybrid cross. He has laid the foundation for this law in his law of segregation that a cell or gamete will contain only one form of gene (allele) for a particular trait.
He further stated in his law of independent assortment that a gamete is equally likely to contain the dominant allele of one gene and either the dominant or recessive allele of another gene.
He was able to prove this law when he got a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio for a dihybrid cross which is only possible if every allelic combination is represented in a gamete.
Therefore, Mendel's law of Independent assortment is one of the laws or principles of inheritance he proposed. It states that the alleles of a gene will get sorted into gametes independently of the alleles of another gene.
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N
What makes up
chromatin?
A. DNA only
B. DNA and proteins this
C. DNA and ribosomes
D. DNA and RNA
The option B is correct. Chromatin is made up of DNA and proteins.
What is chromatin?Chromatin refers to a mixture of DNA and proteins that form the chromosomes found in the cells of humans and other higher organisms. Many of the proteins — namely, histones — package the massive amount of DNA in a genome into a highly compact form that can fit in the cell nucleus.
The function of this complex, the chromatin, is to package and reduce the size of DNA/RNA (tightly wind it so it takes up less space), regulate DNA replication and gene expression and to protect the DNA from damage.
The chromatin structure is formed by the association of DNA and histones. With the help of histone proteins, chromatin organizes DNA into chromosomes. Histones are adaptor proteins that help the DNA structure. They form a complex structure around the DNA, giving the chromosome a more compact shape.
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Could someone explain the answer to this? Why does the product inhibit the enzyme by binding to the allosteric site and not the active site? What difference does it make??
Answer:
it is considered non-competitive mainly because the inhibitor does no resemble the substrate that is ae to fit into the active site so it binds to the allosteric site, if it bonds to the active site then it has competition from actual substrates to fit in the active site
Explanation:
and from the metabolic pathway, we know that most likely the size of molecule A is greater than that of E since A has to be broken down through several reactions before E is produced, from this we would know that E would not resemble the structure or size of A and hence would not be able to fit in the active site of the enzyme that catalyzed A to B. From this we can deduct that the only possible thing would have been that it inhibited the allosteric site and is therefore non- competitive
A cell expresses a transmembrane protein that is cleaved at the plasma membrane to release an extracellular fragment. The fragment binds to receptor proteins on nearby cells and activates signaling pathways resulting in altered gene expression patterns in the cells. What form of intercellular signaling does this represent?
a. Contact-dependent signaling
b. Paracrine signaling
c. Endocrine signaling
d. Synaptic signaling
When a cell releases a fragment of a transmembrane protein to the outside, where it binds to the cell and activates it is an example of paracrine signaling. Option B is true, as it activates the nearby cells.
What is paracrine signaling?
Signaling is classified into many types based on how it performs its functions: endocrine, paracrine, and autocrine etc. Paracrine signaling molecules (here the fragment) are released from one cell and activate another cell in close proximity. As here, the fragment is released and activates a nearby cell, so it must be paracrine. As here, no contact is mentioned between two cells, so it can't be a contact-dependent signal. Endocrine signaling can happen at a greater distance and synaptic signalling involves synapse.
Hence, the correct answer is that it is a paracrine signal.
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After Gerry mows his lawn, he often puts the grass clippings into his flower garden.
How will this affect his garden?
1. It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
2. It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
3. It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
4. It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
What Do Grass Clippings Mean?When you mow your lawn, the cut grasses that are left over or collected in a grass catcher are known as grass clippings. When you mow your lawn according to the "one-third" rule, the grass cuttings are brief (never mow more than one-third height off of your grass in a single mowing session).Utilizing mulch is one method of garden management since it reduces the amount of organic debris that comes into touch with the soil, giving the species more time to separate it. The mulch will eventually break down and release its nutrients into the soil, but this process happens very gradually and improves the soil's organic matter.To learn more about grass clippings refer to:
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Answer: D) It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
Explanation:
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Small-billed birds specialize in cracking soft seeds and large-billed birds specialize in
cracking hard seeds. If long-term climate change caused all seeds to become hard, which
of the following would occur?
O The small-billed bird population would become smaller.
O The small-billed bird population would grow in size.
O The large-billed bird population would not change.
O The large-billed bird population would become smaller.
Natural selection known as directional selection occurs when a species' phenotype, or its observable characteristics, tends toward one extreme rather than the mean phenotype or the opposite extreme phenotype.
What is Conditions Leading to Directional Selection?Ordinarily, environments that have changed over time exhibit the directional selection phenomenon. Directional selection may be influenced by changes in the climate, weather, or availability of food. The timing of sockeye salmon's spawn run in Alaska has recently been observed to change, most likely as a result of rising water temperatures, in a very timely example of climate change in action.A population bell curve for a specific trait that changes either further left or further right is evidence of directional selection in a statistical analysis of natural selection. The bell curve's height does not alter, in contrast to stabilizing selection. In a population that has experienced directional selection, there are significantly fewer people who are "average."To learn more about directional selection, refer to :
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What are staphylococci
Eh...
Based off what I know, it is any of several spherical bacteria of the genus Staphylococcus, occurring in pairs, tetrads, and irregular clusters, certain species of which, as S. aureus, can be pathogenic for humans.
Thanks!
Answer: I hope this is helpful mark me brainlist if correct then no if wrong Happy Thanksgiving
Explanation:
staphylococcus- a bacterium of a genus that includes many pathogenic kinds that cause pus formation, especially in the skin and mucous membranes.Staphylococcus is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria in the family Staphylococcaceae from the order Bacillales. Under the microscope, they appear spherical, and form in grape-like clusters. Staphylococcus species are facultative anaerobic organismsStaphylococcus (staph) is a group of bacteria. There are more than 30 types. A type called Staphylococcus aureus causes most infections. Staph bacteria can cause many different types of infections, including: Skin infections, which are the most common types of staph infections.
Which of the following statements about feedback regulation of a metabolic pathway is correct?
A) The compound that regulates the pathway acts as a competitive inhibitor or a positive allosteric regulator.
B) The enzyme that is regulated by feedback inhibition is usually the last enzyme in the metabolic pathway.
C) The final product of a metabolic pathway is usually the compound that regulates the pathway.
D) The products of the pathway become the reactants for a different reaction, and thus products are unable to accumulate.
E) Accumulation of the product of the pathway increases further formation of that product.
Answer:
Correct answer is: B) The final product of a metabolic pathway is usually the compound that regulates the pathway.
Explanation:
Feedback regulation of a metabolic pathway is a mechanism by which the end product of a pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an early step in the pathway, thus preventing the overaccumulation of the product. This is an example of negative feedback, which maintains homeostasis and optimizes the efficiency of the pathway.
For example, in the synthesis of the amino acid isoleucine from threonine, the final product isoleucine binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme in the pathway, threonine deaminase, and inhibits its activity. This reduces the rate of the pathway and prevents the excess production of isoleucine.
Drag the labels to the appropriate targets to identify where in the cell each process associated with protein synthesis takes place. View Available Hints)
At a, the ribosomal subunits are formed; at b, the attachment of an amino acid to the tRNA takes place; at c, the translation of the cytoplasmic protein takes place; at d, transcription and RNA processing take place; and at e, the translation of secreted proteins takes place.
What are the functions of the ribosomes?
The eukaryotic cell has two types of ribosomes, such as free ribosomes, that are present in the cytoplasm and carry out the translation for the cytoplasmic proteins, while the attached ribosomes to the rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesize the secreted proteins. The nucleolus forms the rRNAs that are required for the synthesis of the ribosomes, such as the small and large subunits. The charging of the tRNA with the amino acid takes place by the enzyme that is present in the cytoplasm.
Hence, at a, the ribosomal subunits are formed; at b, the attachment of an amino acid to the tRNA takes place; at c, the translation of the cytoplasmic protein takes place; at d, transcription and RNA processing take place; and at e, the translation of secreted proteins takes place.
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Which of the following events occurs during transcription?
Those segments of the RNA strand that do not actually code for the protein are removed.
A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
The message in mRNA is translated into a protein.
A cap is added to the RNA molecule.
mRNA binds to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
The event that occurs during transcription is as follows: A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA (option B).
What is transcription?Transcription is the synthesis of RNA molecule under the direction of DNA. The information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA).
This copy of RNA is called messenger RNA (mRNA) and it carries the gene’s protein information encoded in DNA.
In eukaryotic cells, the mRNA moves from the cell nucleus to the cell cytoplasm, where it is used for synthesizing the encoded protein.
Therefore, transcription involves the formation of mRNA from DNA.
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during a blood transfusion with packed red blood cells (rbcs), a client reports chills, low back pain, and nausea. what priority action should the nurse take?
If the client reports chills, low back pain, and nausea it may be a sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The action to be taken by the nurse is to immediately stop the transfusion.
What is a hemolytic transfusion reaction?The hemolytic transfusion reaction is a problem that occurs after a blood transfusion. What is generated is that there is a destruction of the red blood cells that are received in the transfusion, this process is called 'hemolysis'.
This happens when the blood type of the transfusion is different from that of the person receiving it, then the antibodies in the recipient's plasma will destroy the red blood cells that enter because they are different.
Then the patient will present dyspnea, fever, chills, pain in the lumbar region and facial flushing. If it continues to progress, it can end in shock that is followed by jaundice. It can end in kidney and liver damage.
Therefore, we can confirm that the best action that the nurse can take is to immediately stop the transfusion and accompany the treatment with paracetamol and fluid administration.
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What currents
are on the South Eastern and Eastern United States?
Answer:
The currents on the South Eastern and Eastern United States are the Gulf Stream, together with its northern extension the North Atlantic Drift.
Explanation:
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What were the options given by Francis Collins to reconcile evolution and faith?
The options given by Francis Collins to reconcile evolution and faith was in his argument that advances in science present “an opportunity for worship,” rather than a catalyst for doubt.
who is Francis Collins?Francis Collins is known as an American physician-geneticist who discovered the genes associated with a number of diseases and led the Human Genome Project.
Francis Collins believed in seeing God as the creator of the universe – in all of its amazing complexity, diversity and awesome beauty – then science, which is, of course, a means of exploring nature, also becomes a means of exploring God’s creative abilities.
Francis Collins wanted to reconcile faith and evolution, and has been lauded for showing how a religious believer can rise to the highest levels of the scientific establishment while keeping his faith intact and while integrating his faith with his science.
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Construct the correct sequence of events for meiosis I, starting at the top.
1. Separated homologues cluster at each pole.
2. Paired homologues align at the equator, microtubules attach to kinetochores of sister chromatids.
3. Microtubules shorten, chiasmata are broken, homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles.
4. Nuclear envelope re-forms around each daughter nucleus.
5. Chromosomes condense, forming of spindle apparatus begins, homologous chromosomes pair and crossing over occurs.
The correct sequence of events for meiosis I is 5, 2, 3, 1 and 4.
What is meiosis I?Meiosis I is one of the two parts in which haploid cells will be generated, in this part of meiosis the division of homologous pairs will be generated.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct sequence of events for meiosis is: 5. Chromosomes condense, forming of spindle apparatus begins, homologous chromosomes pair and crossing over occurs, 2. Paired homologues align at the equator, microtubules attach to kinetochores of sister chromatids, 3. Microtubules shorten, chiasmata are broken, homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles, 1. Separated homologues cluster at each pole and 4. Nuclear envelope re-forms around each daughter nucleus.
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A student is using dialysis bags to model the effects of changing solute concentrations on cells. The student places one dialysis bag that contains 25 mL of distilled water into each of two beakers that are filled with 200 mL of distilled water. The membrane of each dialysis bag membrane contains pores that allow small solutes such as monoatomic ions to pass through but are too small for anything larger to pass. After 30 minutes, 5 mL of a concentrated solution of albumin (a medium-sized, water-soluble protein) is added to one of the two beakers. Nothing is added to the other beaker. After two more hours at room temperature, the mass of each bag is determined. There is no change in the mass of the dialysis bag in the beaker to which no albumin was added. Which of the graphs below best represents the predicted change in mass over time of the dialysis bag in the beaker to which albumin was added?
Answer:
C I think
Explanation:
As the value of mass has increased after the adding of albumin which it says has the value of 5 ml. The shows an increase in mass after the albumine was added.
Divided by the total volume of the solution, is the solute quantity. Depending on the strength of the solvent employed and how easily the solute molecules separate, a solvent can dilute a solute to different degrees. Thus option C is correct.
What model effects of changing solute concentrations cells?The water will then diffuse out of the cell and plasmolyse it if there is a larger solute concentration nearby. If the solute concentration is higher inside the cell, the water will diffuse there and lyse the cell as a result. Both situations are harmful to the cell.
Concentration gradient: The concentration gradient has an impact on the osmosis process. According to the gradient, the solute concentration must be lowed the faster osmosis takes place in a solvent.
Therefore, After the albumin, which has a value of 5 ml, was added, the mass value increased. After albumin was added, the mass of the increases.
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Which of the following statements is true about appearance?
a. The physical appearance of a trait is referred to as the genotype of that trait
b. Alleles of a single gene are always present at different genetic loci
c. The phenotype of the recessive allele is seen in the progeny of a AAX Aa cross
d. The allele presence of a gene refers to the phenotype at that locus
e. The alleles of a single gene are present on homologous chromosomes
The alleles of a single gene are present on homologous chromosomes—option E.
Appearance of organismsThe physical appearance of living organisms is known as their phenotypes. The genotypes of living organisms, on the other hand, refer to the genetic composition of their cells. The genotype of individuals determines their phenotypes.
Genotypes are dictated by genes and each gene has two alleles. Genes are located on chromosomes in positions known as loci. Each homologous chromosome has two sister chromatids while each chromatid contains the complementary alleles of the same genes.
In a cross involving AA and Aa, the progeny from the cross will have one of AA or Aa as their genotype. Thus, there is n chance for the recessive allele to be expressed in the progeny.
In other words, the alleles of a single gene being present on homologous chromosomes is the only true statement from the list.
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how might difference in enzyme concentration affect rate of photosynthesis and respiration
Price of photosynthesis will increase as the quantity of collisions between enzymes and substrate will increase. this is the top-quality temperature. The enzymes begin to denature, so the fee of photosynthesis decreases.
Increase in enzyme attention will growth the charge of photosynthetic and respiratory reactions, furnished that there are substrates available to bind to. once all substrate is bound by enzymes, the reactions, the response will no longer increase, since there may be not anything for extra enzymes to bind to.
Enzymes are proteins that catalyze, or affect the fee, of chemical reactions without themselves being altered inside the process. precise enzymes catalyze every mobile reaction. the main position of enzymes at some point of the respiratory reaction is to help in transferring electrons from one molecule to some other.
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Explain how depression arises from a combination of both genetic and environmental factors.
Depression arises from a combination of both genetic and environmental factors because there are genes associated with these behavioral traits while environmental inputs may trigger depressive situations (e.g. a traumatic situation).
What is a complex multifactorial trait?A complex multifactorial trait is any phenotypic feature or behavior condition which is controlled by genes, the environment and also the interaction between genes and the environment.
Depression is a condition that may be categorized as a complex multifactorial behavioral condition because there are genes associated with this trait and also environmental triggers may lead to a depressive state such as occurs with traumatic situations (e.g., the death of a family member).
Therefore, with this data, we can see that depression is a complex multifactorial behavioral trait associated with the expression of certain gene variants or alleles in an individual as well as different environmental conditions.
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1. Which type(s) of immunity include(s) cells that are involved in the immune response to a specific antigenic epitope? Choose one or more:
A. innate
B. adaptive
C. humoral
D. cell-mediated
2a.T cells never bind to free-floating antigen. This statement is t/f
2b.T cells are activated only by antigen bound to another cell’s surface. This statement is t/f
2c. More than one type of major histocompatibility complex proteins is integral to T-cell physiology. This statement is t/f
3. Within the immune cell interaction shown in Part 1, which of the following types of immunity are shown? Choose one or more:
A. innate
B. adaptive
C. humoral
D. cell-mediated
Answer:
Explanation:
The question has more than one part. We can solve 1x1 The first one is about a problem with helper cells.
The moral immune response is activated and maintained by the two Sales. That means an immune response to extracellular parasites.
Two cells should be taught to make various cytokines such as aisle four, aisle five, and I'll be six. The strong antibody response is due to these cytokines. The question would cause a patient to be deficient in option C production.
The next question is coming. The goal of the first line of defense is what it is about. The first line of immune defense is to prevent the entry of diseases into the system.
The next part of the question is coming. Humans have a primary immune response and human memory.
That's right, Mhm. Human memory is different from the primary immune response. The direct immune response is followed by the secondary immune response.
The next part of the question is about the 2nd and 3rd lines of difference. Fargo psychosis and activation are related. There is a category of the second line of defense. Specific host defense is part of the third line of defense.
The third line of defense marks activity, George's specific pathogen, and the creation of memory. The answer is option D eight cents activated b cells coming to the last part of the question. It's about immunity. The incorrect statement has to be found here. An example is the transfer of antibodies. Mhm across the baby's uterus. Thanks a lot. This is not an example of accord immunity. The wrong statement was made about this being a natural process.
The geosphere contains the largest amount of stored carbon compared to any other place on Earth. This makes the geosphere the largest carbon
The geosphere contains the largest amount of stored carbon compared to any other place on Earth. The carbon is stored in the sediments below the ocean, and this portion can't be used by land animals.
What is a carbon cycle?
The carbon cycle passes through plants, animals, the atmosphere, decomposers, etc. The majority of the reserved form of carbon is present in the deep ocean in the sediments, and a small amount is used by animals and plants. Plants take carbon dioxide and photosynthesize to make glucose, which is then taken by animals. Then, during decomposition, this further goes into the soil. It is taken up by the soil and moves from one level to the next.
Hence, the geosphere contains the largest amount of stored carbon compared to any other place on Earth.
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Review Part C Which of the following student-drawn chromosome models show a correct depiction of genetic information in a replicated chromosome? Select all that apply.
The chromosomes part that show a correct depiction of genetic information in a replicated chromosome is in the 3rd image from the first picture and it is showing the image that is saying that is being shown in the diagram.
What is a replicated chromosome ?A replicated chromosome contains two identical double strands of DNA , the chromosomes that are joined at the centromere.
Chromosomes are coiled structures made of DNA and proteins. Chromosomes form after DNA replicates; prior to replication, DNA exists as chromatin. Chromosomes contain genes, which code for proteins.
Human cells normally is 46 chromosomes with two sets of chromosomes that is one set inherited from each parent.
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if the culture used to inoculate the biochemical tests in the previous question was contaminated with a second organisms, how would this effect the results?
When the culture used to inoculate the biochemical tests in the previous question was contaminated with a second organisms, it'll affect the results as it would not be possible to identify the organisms using those biochemical test results.
How to illustrate the information?The presence of such bacteria affects biochemical reactions used in biochemical tests. These biochemical tests are intended to measure the levels of bacterial enzymes, which can then be interpreted to accurately identify the species of bacteria that produced them.
Biochemical testing necessitates the determination of various parameters as well as the identification of the primary biological chemical compounds using molecular and biochemical tools.
This lab exercise makes use of a generic bacterial lysis buffer. That is, it effectively lyses common bacteria such as Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. This buffer contains lysozyme, which is used to degrade peptidoglycan. Thick layers of petidoglycan prevent the other components of the lysis buffer from accessing and destabilizing the cell membrane, reducing lysis efficiency.
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Complete question
The lysis buffer used in this lab exercise is a generic bacterial lysis buffer. That means it does a decent job lysing common bacteria, such as Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. Lysozyme is included in this buffer to degrade peptidoglycan. Thick layers of petidoglycan prevent the other components of the lysis buffer from being able to access and destabilize the cell membrane and, therefore, reduce lysis efficiency. There would be a minimal reduction in efficiency since both isolates were Gram negative. If the culture used to inoculate the biochemical tests in the previous question was contaminated with a second organisms, how would this effect the results?
The Movement of a Chemical Does
The Movement of a Chemical Occurs from High to Low Concentration.
The Movement of a Chemical Occurs from Low to High Concentration.
The Movement of a Chemical Requires Chemical Energy.
The Movement of a Chemical Does Not Require Chemical Energy.
12. Select All Correct Statements Pertaining to Primary Active Transport.
The Movement of a Chemical Requires a Transporter Protein.
Chomical Does Not Require a Transporter Protein.
The Movement of the Chemical Does Low to the High Concentration.
Chemical Behavior We are developing techniques to measure the behavior of various types of chemicals in the environment using a passive sampler. Passive samplers measure chemicals in the environment. Chemicals are ingested by his sampler passively in a manner similar to that ingested by humans and animals. A chemical is a substance with a defined composition. That is, chemicals are always made up of the same "things". Some chemicals are found in nature, such as water. A chemical reaction associated with, used by, or produced in chemistry or chemical phenomena. :Acting on or manipulated or manufactured by chemicals. A chemical fire extinguisher. :Detectable by chemical means.02-Nov-2022
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if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? check all that apply.
The correct prediction to this to occur as an opening of atrioventricular valves, atria contraction, and filling of ventricles with blood if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node.
So, the correct options are B, C &E.
What is the atrioventricular valves?The atrioventricular (AV) valves is known to separate the atria from the ventricles on each side of the heart and prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during systole.
In the ventricles, the action potential travels along the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, where it then spreads superiorly along the ventricle walls.
The right and left atria to have time to contract first (eject blood to the ventricles) before the ventricles contract, which is why the AV node delay is so crucial. The AV node is a modified myocardium.
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The complete question is:
If an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? select all that apply.
A. ventricles contract
B. atrioventricular valves open
C. atria contract
D. blood is pumped out of the ventricles
E. ventricles fill with blood
F. semilunar valves open
Humanistic psychologists maintain each of the following about self-disclosure except one. Which one? a. Self-disclosure allows people to better understand themselves. b. Knowing when to self-disclose and when to avoid disclosure is a sign of good personal adjustment. c Self-disclosure is an important part of the therapy process. d. Self-disclosure by a therapist can be useful in counseling.
Humanistic psychologists maintain each of the following about self-disclosure except b. Knowing when to self-disclose and when to avoid disclosure is a sign of good personal adjustment.
What is the role of Humanistic psychologists ?Humanistic psychology can be described as the perspective which focus on whole individual and stresses concepts such as free will, self-efficacy, and self-actualization.
It should be noted that they do focus on the individuals stress Rather than concentrating on dysfunction howver humanistic psychology do try to help individuals to fulfill their potential as well as maximize their well-being.
Therefore, the Humanistic psychologyfocus on the Self-disclosure becasue it is an important part of the therapy process and the Self-disclosure by a therapist is been used in the process of counseling.
Therefore, option B is correct.
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29. Generally, cheat curls are performed with ________________ more resistance than regular curls are.
5-10%
10-25%
30-35%
40-45%
Generally, cheat curls are performed with 5-10% more resistance than regular curls.
What is cheat curl?Cheat curls are ideal for this because you're already working with much more weight than you would with conventional curls. Eccentrics also allow the lifter to apply roughly 130% more load than they could during the concentric section.
This means that cheat curls are a fantastic way to stimulate muscular adaptation because the load is significantly more than what would be employed on a lighter concentric-based curl.
Therefore, the correct option is a, 5-10%.
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