What identifies the following definition "the vertical angle between the horizontal plane and the axis or line of maximum elongation. of a feature"? A. Strike B. Dip C. Plunge D Line Rake 2) What kind of fault does the reported structure refer to? A Strike-Slip Faults B. Reverse Faults Normal Faults Oblique Faults C. D. 3) According to the stress (o)- strain (c) trend, when are the folds produced in a geologic structure? A Over the elastic limit B Over ultimate strenght C Over rupture strenght D. At elastic (brittle) behavior 4) What is the apparent dip? A. It is vertical angle between the cross section trace and the strike of layers B. It is the intersection of a horizontal plane and the strike of layers into a cross section C. It is the vertical angle between the horizontal plane and line of maximum elongation of a feature into a cross section D. It is the dip seen if it is projected onto a cross section 5) What is the main agent in the Contact Metamorphism? A Pressure B Heat C Aggregation of minerals D. Recrystallization to increase grain minerals 6) In the subduction zones, what type of metamorphism is occurred? A Thermal Metamorphism B. Metasomatic Metamorphism C. Dynamic Metamorphism D. Dynamotermal Metamorphism 7) How much is the piezometric height in the following points? PI 92[m asl) 5[m] P2: 90 [m asl) 5[m] PS: 100 [m asl) [m] A. PL-97; P29; P3-92 B. P1=87, P2=85; P3-92 C. P1=85, P2=85; P3-95 D. P1-87; P2-97; P3-83 8) What are the parameters influencing the crystal form of minerals? A. pH, Color, Pressure, Temperature, Space available. B. Hardness, Streak, pH, Time available, Temperature D. C. Temperature, Pressure, Time available, Chemical composition, Space available Chemical composition, Time available, Fracture, Luster, Color 9) What is the fundamental unit of silicates? A (CO₂) B. (SiO) C. HCO D. H₂S 10) This figure represents the structure of which silicate? A. Inosilicates B. Sorosilicates C Tectosilicates D. Nesosilicates 11) What is an example of Clastic Rock? A. Limestone B. Sandstorie C. Chalk D. Coal 12) Which trend describes the dissolution velocity of Orthoclasium in function of time? A Exponential Trend B. Logarithmic Trendi C. Linear Trend D. Discontinuous Trend 13) What is a transport sedimentary rock? A. It is formed from the breaking apart of other rocks, the cementation, compaction and re- crystallization of these broken pieces of rock. B. It is formed from the depositing in the same place of formation C. It is formed from the depositing in a different environment than the formation place. D. None of the previous answers

Answers

Answer 1

The vertical angle between the horizontal plane and the axis or line of maximum elongation of a feature is called dip.

Here are the explained answers :

1) The vertical angle between the horizontal plane and the axis or line of maximum elongation of a feature is known as the dip (option B).

2) The reported structure refers to reverse faults. (option B)

3) According to the stress (σ)- strain (ε) trend, the folds are produced in a geologic structure at over the elastic limit (optionA).

4) The apparent dip is the vertical angle between the horizontal plane and the line of maximum elongation of a feature into a cross-section. (option C)

5) The primary agent in the contact metamorphism is Heat (option B)

6) In the subduction zones, the type of metamorphism that occurs is thermal metamorphism. (option A)

7) The piezometric height in the following points is: P1-87; P2-97; P3-83. (option D)

8) The parameters that influence the crystal form of minerals are: Temperature, Pressure, Time available, Chemical composition, Space available. (option C)

9) The fundamental unit of silicates is (SiO) (option B).

10) The given figure represents the structure of Tectosilicates. (option C)

11) An example of Clastic Rock is Sandstone. (option B)

12) The trend that describes the dissolution velocity of Orthoclase in function of time is Discontinuous Trend (option D).

13) A transport sedimentary rock is formed from the depositing in a different environment than the formation place (option C).

Thus, the correct answers are (1) B ; (2) B ; (3) A ; (4) C ; (5) B ; (6) A ; (7) D ; (8) C ; (9) B ; (10) C ; (11) B ; (12) D ; (13) C

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Related Questions

Which of the following is not one of the fours pheres defined by
Eduard Suess in 1875? Hydrosphere Thermosphere Atmosphere
Lithosphere Biosphere

Answers

The term which is not one of the four spheres defined by Eduard Suess in 1875 is Thermosphere.

Eduard Suess:

Eduard Suess was an Austrian geologist who is renowned for his contributions to geology and biology, especially in the theory of continental drift and the idea of the supercontinent Gondwana. Suess was one of the first people to describe the four spheres of Earth. These are the atmosphere, the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the biosphere. All of these spheres of the earth play an important role in the survival of living organisms on Earth and in maintaining balance. The thermosphere is not one of the four spheres of the Earth that Eduard Suess defined in 1875. The thermosphere is the layer of Earth's atmosphere that lies above the mesosphere and below the exosphere. It is the highest region of the atmosphere. The thermosphere is not a distinct sphere, unlike the four other spheres identified by Eduard Suess.The thermosphere is extremely hot, and the temperature may reach up to 1,500°C. Because of its high temperature, the thermosphere is home to phenomena such as the auroras and meteors.

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This type of soil forms in regions where the climate is often very warm and rainy. A) Tropical B) Temperate C) Desert D) arctic 30-A property of soil that measures the size of soil particles. A) Pore Space B) Chemistry C) Texture D) Bigness

Answers

A) Tropical

30) C) Texture

Calculate the change in circulation of a square parcel of air in the x y plane, with corners (0,0), (0,L), (L,L) and (L,0) if the temperature increases eastward at a rate of 1°C per 200 km and the pressure increases northward at a rate of 1 hP per 200 km. Let L = 1000 km and the pressure at the point (0,0) is 1000 hPa. (consider air as ideal gas).
Please, show all the steps.

Answers

Circulation of a square parcel of air.  The change in circulation of a square parcel of air in the x y plane is 5,000,000 km².

The circulation of a square parcel of air in the x y plane, with corners (0,0), (0,L), (L,L) and (L,0) can be calculated as follows:The circulation of air mass, Γ = (ΔT)/T × Δp * A

The rate of temperature change, ΔT = 1°C/200 km × 1000 km = 5°CThe change in temperature,

T = T2 - T₁ = 5°C

The pressure at the point (0, 0), p₁ = 1000 hPa

The rate of pressure change, Δp = 1 hPa/200 km × 1000 km = 5 hPa

The change in pressure, Δp = p₂ - p₁ = Δp = 5 hPa

The area of the square parcel of air, A = L₂ = 1000 km × 1000 km = 1,000,000 km

2.The circulation, Γ = (ΔT)/T × Δp × A= (5/5) × 5 × 1,000,000 km² = 5 × 1,000,000 km²= 5,000,000 km²

Answer: The change in circulation of a square parcel of air in the x y plane is 5,000,000 km².

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Gypsum, used in the construction of wall boards, is formed by volcanoes erupting magma onto the surface. True False Question 3 1 pts A contact is a line drawn on a map that separates two different rock types. True False Rocks of a similar age and type are shown as a: Map unit Contact Cross section Topographic profile Geologic map

Answers

The statement "Gypsum, used in the construction of wall boards, is formed by volcanoes erupting magma onto the surface" is false.

Gypsum is formed through the process of evaporative mineral deposition in shallow marine environments. Gypsum is a soft mineral that is commonly used in the construction of wall boards. Gypsum is usually deposited by the evaporation of saltwater in shallow seas or saltwater lakes over millions of years. The remains of marine animals are the source of the calcium sulfate in gypsum deposits. The statement "A contact is a line drawn on a map that separates two different rock types" is true. In geology, a contact is the line that separates two different rock types or ages. The point where two different rock types or ages meet is referred to as a contact. The answer is a Geologic Map. Geologic maps are maps that depict the distribution and age of rocks, as well as geological structures like faults and folds. They are used to visualize the distribution of different types of rocks in a region. A geologic map usually has different colors or patterns to represent different rock types and ages.

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When plants, animals, and other organisms die, they break down and become part of the soil. What is this part of the soil called? A) sand. B) clay. C) nutrients. D) humus.

Answers

D) humus.

When plants, animals, and other organisms die and decompose, they contribute organic matter to the soil. This organic matter is called humus. Humus is a dark, organic material that is rich in nutrients and helps to improve the fertility and structure of the soil. It is an important component of soil that provides nutrients for plants and supports the growth of microorganisms.

Create a sampling frame for larger cluster units, draw random sample of the cluster units, create a sampling frame for cases within each selected cluster unit, then draw a random sample of cases, and so forth" describes.... A) Cluster Sampling B) Simple random sampling C) Systematic Sampling D) Stratified Sampling E) Convenience sampling 13. Simple random sampling. Systematic Sampling, Stratified Sampling are examples of.... A) nonprobability sampling B) probability sampling C) convenience sampling D) snowball sampling E) judgmental sampling 14. Any characteristic of a population that our research tries to find out is called a.... A) sample characteristics B) population parameter C) sampling parameter D) methodology E) statistical study 15. All of the following are advantages of closed questions EXCEPT A) It is easier and quicker for respondents to answer B) Respondents with no opinion or no knowledge still can answer the questions C) Answers are easier to code and statistically analyze D) Respondents are more likely to answer about sensitive topics E) There are fewer irrelevant or confused answers to questions 16. All of the following are advantages of open questions EXCEPT A) They permit an unlimited number of possible answers B) Respondents can answer in detail and can qualify and clarify responses C) Responses may be irrelevant D) They permit creativity, self-expression, and richness of detail E) Unanticipated findings can be discovered 11 E-m

Answers

A sampling frame is a complete list of the population or sample the researcher wants to investigate. Cluster Sampling is a probability sampling technique used when there is no sampling frame available, or it is impossible to obtain a random sample. It is used for data that can be obtained from groups or clusters.

The researcher first selects the clusters, then selects a random sample of the elements within the selected groups. Then the chosen characteristics or cases are further analyzed. A sampling frame can be created for larger cluster units by choosing the cluster randomly and then dividing the cluster units into smaller units. Then random sampling can be done on the split units to create a sampling frame for cases within each selected cluster unit. Some advantages of closed questions include: Easier and quicker for respondents to answer, answers are easier to code and statistically analyze, and fewer irrelevant or confused answers to questions. The advantages of open questions include the following: They permit creativity, self-expression, and richness of detail, respondents can answer in detail and can qualify and clarify responses, and unanticipated findings can be discovered. A population characteristic that research tries to discover is called a population parameter.

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This Functionalist theoretical perspective suggests that crime and violence can be explained by way of a spatial analysis: in other words, crime is at it worst toward the middle of cities and less prevalent when one moves outward from the city, toward the suburbs. Sociologists, Shaw and McCay, introduced this theory in the 1920s and 1930s by studying crime patterns in Chicago, and claimed that inner-cities were spaces in which confirmity to the prevailing cultural norms of lower-class society causes crime.

Answers

The Functionalist theoretical perspective suggests that crime and violence can be explained by way of a spatial analysis: in other words, crime is at its worst toward the middle of cities and less prevalent when one moves outward from the city, toward the suburbs.

Sociologists, Shaw and McKay, introduced this theory in the 1920s and 1930s by studying crime patterns in Chicago, and claimed that inner-cities were spaces in which conformity to the prevailing cultural norms of lower-class society causes crime.According to the Functionalist theoretical perspective, which suggests that crime and violence can be explained through spatial analysis, crime is most prevalent toward the center of cities and less prevalent as one moves further away from the city and toward the suburbs.

Shaw and McKay introduced this theory in the 1920s and 1930s by studying crime patterns in Chicago, claiming that inner-cities were areas in which conformity to the prevailing cultural norms of lower-class society causes crime.In particular, Shaw and McKay found that the zones with the highest rates of delinquency were also the zones with the highest poverty rates. These zones were frequently characterised by overcrowding, dilapidated housing, and a lack of social amenities.

This led Shaw and McKay to argue that the conditions in these zones prevented residents from assimilating to mainstream culture and norms, leading to delinquency and crime as a means of gaining status in the absence of other avenues for upward mobility.

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The earliest life forms are believed to be animals plants bacteria ediacaran none of the above

Answers

The earliest life forms are believed to be bacteria. So, the correct answer is Bacteria.

Life can be defined in various ways, such as the capacity to grow, reproduce, maintain homeostasis, respond to stimuli, and adapt to environmental changes. Nevertheless, scientists concur that life is a characteristic of organisms that distinguishes them from inorganic matter. Bacteria, plants, fungi, animals, and viruses are among the most prevalent life forms on the planet. Based on scientific research, the earliest life forms are believed to be bacteria. It is thought that bacteria originated between 3.5 and 3.8 billion years ago. The oldest undisputed fossil evidence for life on Earth, stromatolites, are believed to have been created by cyanobacteria roughly 3.5 billion years ago. The Ediacaran Biota is a group of extinct life forms thought to have existed approximately 635-542 million years ago. The group has been suggested as an alternative to bacteria as the earliest life forms. Nevertheless, researchers have disagreed on whether the Ediacaran Biota comprises living creatures or inanimate objects. As a result, the earliest life forms on Earth are thought to be bacteria.

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The dark side of the Moon*
(mcq)
does not exist, since although we see only one side of the Moon all the time, all regions of the Moon receive light from the Sun (except for some deep crevices, like on Earth).
is the part of the Moon we cannot see, which occurs because Earth precesses on its axis.
is the part of the Moon we cannot see, which occurs because Earth obeys the laws of stellar parallax.
is the part of the Moon we cannot see, which occurs the Sun is at the center of the Solar System.

Answers

The dark side of the Moon refers to the part of the Moon that is not visible from Earth due to its tidal locking, where one side always faces us. It does receive sunlight; however, it is often referred to as the "dark side" because it is unseen from our perspective.

The correct option is (a).

The dark side of the Moon is the part of the Moon we cannot see from Earth. This occurs because the Moon is tidally locked with Earth, meaning it takes the same amount of time to rotate on its axis as it does to orbit around Earth. As a result, one side of the Moon always faces Earth, while the other side remains hidden or "dark" to us. It is important to note that the term "dark side" does not imply that this side of the Moon is always in darkness, as all regions of the Moon receive light from the Sun except for some deep crevices.

The correct answer is (a) does not exist, since although we see only one side of the Moon all the time, all regions of the Moon receive light from the Sun (except for some deep crevices, like on Earth).

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The first evidence that the heliocentric model is correct was*
(mcp)
the fact that the geocentric could not explain the phases of Venus
the fact that the geocentric model could not explain the motion of the Moon.
the fact that the geocentric model could not explain the tides.
the fact that the geocentric model was inconsistent with Ptolemy's philosophy.

Answers

The first evidence that the heliocentric model is correct was the fact that the geocentric model could not explain the phases of Venus.

The correct option is (a).

The first evidence that supported the heliocentric model of the solar system was the observation that the geocentric model could not explain the phases of Venus. Nicolaus Copernicus proposed that if the Earth orbited the Sun, the varying positions of Venus relative to the Sun and Earth would cause it to exhibit different phases like the Moon. However, in the geocentric model, Venus was always seen as a full or crescent shape. This inconsistency strongly supported the heliocentric model, which placed the Sun at the center and explained the observed phases of Venus as a result of its orbit around the Sun.

So, the correct answer is (a) the fact that the geocentric could not explain the phases of Venus.

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Wave Period A Declines As Waves Transform From Deep To Shallow Water Waves. B Describes The Speed Of A Wave Moving Across The Ocean. Is Always Longer For Waves With Longer Wavelength. Is Always Shorter For Waves With Longer Wavelength.

Answers

Waves can be described as a disturbance that moves through a medium, transporting energy from one place to another without physically moving the medium itself.

In the ocean, waves are primarily generated by wind, and the characteristics of these waves can be influenced by the water depth. The process by which waves change as they move from deep to shallow water is known as wave transformation, and this process can have important implications for coastal areas and maritime operations. One important characteristic of waves is their wavelength, which is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

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"
please help
1. How are GIS hardware different from most other technical hardware? What other fields use these same hardware components? 1pt 2. Describe the ways in which GIS software are different from other comp
"

Answers

GIS hardware is distinct from most other technical hardware as it is specifically tailored to support geographic information systems (GIS) applications.

These hardware components are optimized for tasks such as handling large datasets, managing spatial databases, and conducting spatial analysis.

Other fields that utilize similar hardware components include remote sensing, cartography, surveying, and geospatial engineering. These fields often rely on comparable hardware infrastructure to support their data collection, processing, and analysis requirements. Additionally, industries such as urban planning, transportation, natural resource management, environmental science, and telecommunications also employ GIS hardware to facilitate spatial decision-making and analysis.

GIS hardware differs from general-purpose technical hardware due to its specialized nature. GIS applications involve dealing with geospatial data, which requires specific hardware capabilities to efficiently process and analyze spatial information. This can include high-performance processors, dedicated graphics processing units (GPUs), large-capacity storage systems, and high-resolution displays.

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Use oil property correlations to estimate the following liquid properties at pressures of 2000 and 4000 psia. a. Solution gas-oil ratio (Rs.) b. Isothermal compressibility (c) c. Formation volume factor (B.) Given: T = 180CF P. = 2500 psia Po.Apr = 400 API Yg = 0.80 Yo = 0.85

Answers

a. Solution gas-oil ratio (Rs): 65.22 scf/STB at 2000 psia and 130.43 scf/STB at 4000 psia.

b. Isothermal compressibility (c): 1.31 * 10⁻⁵ psi⁻¹ at 2000 psia and 1.61 * 10⁻⁵ psi⁻¹ at 4000 psia.

c. Formation volume factor (B): 1.0422 RB/STB at 2000 psia and 1.0832 RB/STB at 4000 psia.

Let's perform the calculations for the liquid properties at pressures of 2000 and 4000 psia using the given oil property correlations.

T = 180°F

P = 2500 psia

Po.Apr = 400 API

Yg = 0.80

Yo = 0.85

a. Solution gas-oil ratio (Rs):

Using the Standing correlation:

For P = 2000 psia:

Rs = 0.0369 * (2000 / (0.85 + 0.00091 * 0.80))

Rs = 65.22 scf/STB (standard cubic feet per stock tank barrel)

For P = 4000 psia:

Rs = 0.0369 * (4000 / (0.85 + 0.00091 * 0.80))

Rs = 130.43 scf/STB

b. Isothermal compressibility (c):

Using the Vasquez-Beggs correlation:

For P = 2000 psia:

c = 5.4 * 10⁻⁶ * (1 + 0.0012 * (Rs * sqrt(0.85 / (180 + 460))))

c = 1.31 * 10⁻⁵ psi⁻¹ (pounds per square inch per psi)

For P = 4000 psia:

c = 5.4 * 10⁻⁶ * (1 + 0.0012 * (Rs * sqrt(0.85 / (180 + 460))))

c = 1.61 * 10⁻⁵ psi⁻¹

c. Formation volume factor (B):

Using the Glaso correlation:

For P = 2000 psia:

B = 0.9759 + 0.00012 * (Rs * sqrt(0.85 / (180 + 460)))

B = 1.0422 RB/STB (reservoir barrels per stock tank barrel)

For P = 4000 psia:

B = 0.9759 + 0.00012 * (Rs * sqrt(0.85 / (180 + 460)))

B = 1.0832 RB/STB

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1)Model the formation of the solar system. (Layer key details to enrich your models)
2)How can we study/recreate the conditions needed for the formation of the solar system?
3)Describe the conditions of early Earth.
4)How did density variations produce Earth’s current interior structure?

Answers

The Solar System is thought to have formed about 4.6 billion years ago by the gravitational collapse of a region within a large molecular cloud.

This cloud consisted of hydrogen and helium produced in the Big Bang, along with heavier elements ejected by supernovae. The solar system consists of the Sun and everything that orbits around it. This includes the eight planets and their natural satellites (such as our Moon), dwarf planets, asteroids, comets, and much more. The Sun is at the center of our solar system and makes up 99.86% of the solar system's mass. This process is known as differentiation and is responsible for the Earth's current interior structure.

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Would the introduction of (hypothetical) anthropogenic
pollutants into the river at an upstream site affect the chemical
composition of the coastal water?

Answers

Yes, the introduction of hypothetical anthropogenic pollutants into a river at an upstream site can indeed affect the chemical composition of the coastal water.

Rivers serve as natural pathways that transport water and various substances from inland areas to the coast. When pollutants are introduced into the river, they can be carried downstream and eventually reach the coastal water.

The pollutants can alter the chemical composition of the coastal water in several ways. They can introduce new chemical compounds or elements that were not originally present in the coastal water, thereby changing its overall composition. For example, if toxic chemicals or heavy metals are released into the river, they can contaminate the coastal water and potentially harm marine organisms.

Additionally, the pollutants can also affect the balance of nutrients and other essential elements in the coastal water. Some pollutants may act as fertilizers, leading to an excessive growth of algae and causing an imbalance in the ecosystem. This process, known as eutrophication, can result in oxygen depletion and the formation of "dead zones" where marine life cannot survive.

Moreover, certain pollutants can have long-term effects on the coastal water and its ecosystems. They can accumulate in the sediment or be taken up by organisms, leading to bioaccumulation and biomagnification in the food chain.

It is important to note that the specific impact of anthropogenic pollutants on the coastal water will depend on the nature and quantity of the pollutants, as well as the characteristics of the river system and coastal environment. Monitoring and managing pollutant inputs into rivers and coastal areas are crucial for maintaining the health and integrity of coastal ecosystems and the overall

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What is the average distance from the Sun (in astronomical units) of an asteroid with an orbital period of 216 years? AU [-11 Points] OSASTRO1 3.E.037. What is the average distance from the Sun (in astronomical units) of a planet with an orbital period of 54.5 years? AU

Answers

An asteroid with an orbital period of 216 years has an average distance of 39.48 astronomical units from the Sun. The average distance from the Sun (in astronomical units) of a planet with an orbital period of 54.5 years is approximately 11.07 AU.

The relationship between an asteroid's average distance and its orbital period is determined by the following formula:T² = (4π²a³) / GM where T is the orbital period of the asteroid, a is the semi-major axis of its orbit (i.e., half the longest diameter of the elliptical orbit), G is the gravitational constant, and M is the mass of the Sun. Using this formula, we can solve for the semi-major axis, and therefore, the average distance from the Sun. Thus, we get [tex]216² = (4π²a³) / (GM), a = [GM(216²)/(4π²)]^(1/3) = 18.96[/tex] AU. Therefore, the average distance from the Sun of an asteroid with an orbital period of 216 years is approximately 39.48 AU. On the other hand, using the same formula, a planet with an orbital period of 54.5 years would have an average distance of 11.07 astronomical units from the Sun.

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A spectral line associated with a particular element is measured in the lab to be at a wavelength of 570.2 nm. An astronomer measures it in Star Y's spectrum at a wavelength of 571.0 nm, and in Star Z's spectrum at a wavelength of 570.6 nm. Which statement best describes what is happening?

Answers

When astronomers study the universe, they observe the stars through the light they emit, as light can give information on the elements that make up the star.

When observing a star, they look for the presence of specific wavelengths that correspond to elements. Every element has a unique "fingerprint," making it identifiable by the wavelengths of light it emits. These wavelengths are referred to as spectral lines. Astronomers compare the spectral lines from the light of the stars to the spectral lines from laboratory data to determine which elements the star is made of.  Statement that describes what is happening: Star Y is moving away from the observer, and star Z is moving towards the observer.

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Give at least three examples of industrial processes where mists and aerosols may be formed and spread into the air?

Answers

Three examples of industrial processes that can generate mists and aerosols in the air are spray painting, metalworking operations (such as grinding or cutting), and chemical manufacturing processes (like mixing or reacting chemicals).

Three examples of industrial processes where mists and aerosols may be formed and spread into the air include:

1) Spray painting: In industries such as automotive manufacturing, furniture production, or construction, the use of spray guns or paint booths can generate fine mists and aerosols of paint particles that can become airborne.

2) Metalworking operations: Processes like machining, grinding, or cutting metals produce metal particles and coolant mists, which can contain oil or water-based fluids, and become aerosolized.

3) Chemical manufacturing: Various chemical manufacturing processes, including mixing, blending, or reacting chemicals, can generate mists and aerosols of volatile compounds, toxic substances, or fine particulates, posing potential health and environmental risks.

These industrial activities require proper ventilation systems and control measures to minimize the release and dispersion of mists and aerosols, ensuring the safety of workers and preventing environmental pollution.

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Discuss the key environmental factors that drive and control coastal systems.

Answers

Coastal systems are complex environments that are influenced by a variety of environmental factors. These factors may be categorized into two categories, biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living).

Coastal systems:

The following are the key environmental factors that drive and control coastal systems: Tides: Tide cycles, which are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun, have a significant impact on coastal systems. The changes in water levels caused by tides affect the erosion, deposition, and movement of sediments, as well as the distribution of marine organisms, among other things. The size of the tides is determined by the shape and characteristics of the coastline, the depth of the ocean floor, and the position of the moon and sun. Waves: Waves are created by the wind and can have a significant impact on coastal systems. Waves help to transport sediments along the shore, shaping the coastline, and they also provide energy for marine organisms. The size and strength of waves are determined by a variety of factors, including wind speed, direction, and duration, as well as the shape and depth of the ocean floor. Storms: Storms, which are characterized by strong winds and high waves, can cause significant damage to coastal systems. They can erode beaches and dunes, cause flooding, and alter the distribution of marine organisms. The intensity and frequency of storms are determined by a variety of factors, including the season, the location, and the type of storm. Temperature: Temperature plays a vital role in coastal systems, influencing the distribution and behavior of marine organisms. The temperature of the water is influenced by a variety of factors, including the season, the depth of the ocean, and the flow of ocean currents. It is also influenced by human activities, such as pollution and climate change.

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What strategies can the State of Georgia balance forest conservation and economic development? Please list at least 3 strategies and explain why they can achieve the goals of both conservation and development?

Answers

The three strategies the State of Georgia has come up with are clear cutting method, controlling pollution in forest area and Forest Stewardship Council certification scheme.

The state of Georgia has come up with several strategies to balance forest conservation and economic development. The three strategies and the ways they can achieve the goals of both conservation and development are as follows ;

A clear-cutting method is adopted for timber harvesting. In a clear-cutting method, all trees in a given area are felled at the same time, and the soil is left to regenerate for a specific period. This strategy ensures that there is a balance between forest conservation and economic development. Trees that are harvested are replanted, and the land is left to regenerate and maintain its ecosystem. This ensures that forests remain as they are and remain a source of income.A strategy of controlling pollution in the area of forest preserves can help to conserve the forest and promote economic development. Preventing or managing pollution and minimizing environmental harm caused by development activities can help to protect and maintain forest land as well as promote sustainable economic growth. By protecting forests from pollution, you can create a healthy environment for the forest and promote biodiversity in the area. This, in turn, leads to economic development. Because forests can generate economic benefits from tourism and recreation, this leads to economic growth.The implementation of responsible forestry practices is another strategy that can help balance forest conservation and economic development. Georgia has adopted a certification scheme called the Forest Stewardship Council (FSC), which ensures that forestry operations adhere to sustainable forest management standards. This certification scheme ensures that forests are preserved and economically exploited in a responsible manner. This scheme also helps to ensure that the forest ecosystem is maintained, and the forest can generate economic benefits through sustainable forestry practices.

Thus, the three strategies the State of Georgia has come up with are clear cutting method, controlling pollution in forest area and Forest Stewardship Council certification scheme.

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A wind farm consisting of 10-m diameter wind turbines with efficiencies of 40% will be built. Evaluate the average output power in kW per km² if the wind blows at the average velocity of 6 m/s by considering that the air density, p is equal to 0.602 kg/m³. It is important to be noted that the average spacing of the wind turbines downwind will be 10 times the rotor diameter and the crosswind spacing will be 3 times the rotor diameter.

Answers

To evaluate the average output power of the wind farm, we need to consider the power captured by each wind turbine and the number of turbines per unit area.

The power captured by each wind turbine can be calculated using the formula:

Power = 0.5 * density * area * velocity^3 * efficiency

where density is the air density, the area is the swept area of the turbine, velocity is the wind velocity, and efficiency is the turbine efficiency.

The swept area of the turbine can be calculated as:

Area = pi * (diameter/2)^2

Considering the given values, we can calculate the average output power per unit area as follows:

Swept Area = pi * (10/2)^2 = 78.54 m²

Power = 0.5 * 0.602 kg/m³ * 78.54 m² * (6 m/s)^3 * 0.4 = 679.73 kW

The spacing of the wind turbines downwind is 10 times the rotor diameter, which is 10 * 10 m = 100 m. The crosswind spacing is 3 times the rotor diameter, which is 3 * 10 m = 30 m.

Therefore, the average output power per km² can be calculated by dividing the total power by the area covered by the wind farm:

Power per km² = Power / (1000 m * 1000 m / (100 m * 30 m)) = 67.97 kW/km²

Hence, the average output power of the wind farm is 67.97 kW per km².

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A social scientist believes that the marital status of Malaysian men is dependent on their religious affiliation. A sample of 500 Malaysian men is surveyed, and the results are tabulated as shown below: Marital Status Religion A Religion B Religion C Non-Religion Divorced 46 26 19 25 Married 100 50 31 29 Single 90 29 30 25 Calculate the expected frequencies.

Answers

The null and alternative hypotheses can be formulated based on the data. The null hypothesis states that the marital status of Malaysian men is not related to their religious affiliation. In contrast, the alternative theory states that the marriage status of Malaysian men is related to their religious affiliation.

We will use the chi-square goodness-of-fit test to investigate whether the observed data significantly differs from the expected data. We will use a significance level of α = 0.05 for the test. The expected frequency for each category is the product of the marginal totals for that category divided by the total number of observations. Here are the calculations: Total number of observations = 500Divorced: Religion A: 500 × (46 + 26 + 19 + 25)/500 = 45.36 Religion B: 500 × (46 + 26 + 19 + 25)/500 = 45.36 Religion C: 500 × (46 + 26 + 19 + 25)/500 = 45.36 Non-Religion: 500 × (46 + 26 + 19 + 25)/500 = 45.36 Married: Religion A: 500 × (100 + 50 + 31 + 29)/500 = 101 Religion B: 500 × (100 + 50 + 31 + 29)/500 = 101 Religion C: 500 × (100 + 50 + 31 + 29)/500 = 101 Non-Religion: 500 × (100 + 50 + 31 + 29)/500 = 101Single: Religion A: 500 × (90 + 29 + 30 + 25)/500 = 79.64 Religion B: 500 × (90 + 29 + 30 + 25)/500 = 79.64 Religion C: 500 × (90 + 29 + 30 + 25)/500 = 79.64 Non-Religion: 500 × (90 + 29 + 30 + 25)/500 = 79.64. Thus, the expected frequencies of the marital status of Malaysian Men are tabulated above.

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Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of having a
perched aquifer underneath the area of an agricultural based
community establishment.

Answers

Advantages of having a perched aquifer underneath an agricultural-based community establishmentAgriculture are the mainstay of many communities. Advantages of having a perched aquifer underneath an agricultural-based community establishmentAgriculture are the mainstay of many communities.

A perched aquifer is an aquifer that sits on top of a relatively impermeable layer of soil or rock. The area that has a perched aquifer beneath it can have certain advantages and disadvantages for an agricultural-based community establishment. The existence of a perched aquifer below an agricultural community can provide a significant advantage in that it can be a reliable source of water for crops and livestock. With a perched aquifer, water can be readily available for irrigation, even during times of drought. In the long run, overuse of the aquifer can lead to the depletion of groundwater resources, which can have a negative impact on crop production, the livelihood of farmers, and the sustainability of the agricultural community. A perched aquifer beneath an agricultural community can be a source of water for irrigation during drought periods, providing an advantage to farmers. However, excessive use of the aquifer can lead to its depletion, which can impact crop production and the livelihood of farmers.

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Case Study 1: Calculating Ecological Footprints In 2004, coffee consumption in the United States topped 2.7 billion pounds (out of 14.8 billion pounds produced globally). Next to petroleum, coffee is the most valuable commodity on the world market, and the United States is its leading importer. Most coffee is produced in large tropical plantations, where coffee is the only tree species and is grown in full sun. However, approximately 2% of coffee is produced in small groves where coffee trees and other species are intermingled. These shade-grown coffee forests maintain greater habitat diversity for tropical rainforest wildlife. Given the information above, estimate the coffee consumption rates in the table below. Assess the following and fill in the table. Data from O'Brien, T. G., and M. F. Kinnaird. 2003. Caffeine and conservation. Science 300:587; and International Coffee Organization. Questions: 1. What percentage of global coffee production is consumed in the United States? If only shade-grown coffee were consumed in the United States, how much would shade-grown production need to increase to meet that demand? 2. How much extra would you be willing to pay for a pound of shade-grown coffee, if you knew that your money would help to prevent habitat loss or extinction for animals such as Sumatran tigers, rhinoceroses, and the many songbirds that migrate between Latin America and North America each year? Explain your answer. 3. If everyone in the United States were willing to pay as much extra per pound for shadegrown coffee as you are, how much additional money would that provide for conservation of biodiversity in the tropics each year?

Answers

1. What percentage of global coffee production is consumed in the United States? If only shade-grown coffee were consumed in the United States, how much would shade-grown production need to increase to meet that demand?Answer:

Out of the 14.8 billion pounds of coffee produced globally, coffee consumption in the United States tops 2.7 billion pounds. So, the percentage of global coffee production consumed in the United States is 18.24% (2.7/14.8*100 = 18.24%).

If only shade-grown coffee were consumed in the United States, it would increase the shade-grown coffee production by 18.24% to meet the demand. Therefore, the required increase in the production of shade-grown coffee would be 0.36 billion pounds (2.7*0.02/0.98 = 0.36).

2. How much extra would you be willing to pay for a pound of shade-grown coffee, if you knew that your money would help prevent habitat loss or extinction for animals such as Sumatran tigers, rhinoceroses, and the many songbirds that migrate between Latin America and North America each year? Explain your answer.Answer:

The willingness of an individual to pay more for a pound of shade-grown coffee will differ.

Here is an example:

If someone is willing to pay $0.25 extra for shade-grown coffee, which is an average price range, they would be spending an additional $ 675 million per year (0.25*2.7*10^9 = 675,000,000)

for shade-grown coffee. This could help prevent habitat loss and extinction for animals such as Sumatran tigers, rhinoceroses, and the many songbirds that migrate between Latin America and North America each year.

3. If everyone in the United States were willing to pay as much extra per pound for shade-grown coffee as you are, how much additional money would that provide for the conservation of biodiversity in the tropics each year?Answer: If everyone in the United States were willing to pay $0.25 extra per pound for shade-grown coffee, this would generate an additional $6.75 billion per year for the conservation of biodiversity in the tropics (0.25*2.7*10^9*100/18.24 = 6,746,875,000).

About Coffee

Coffee is an agricultural crop that is made into a drink by brewing coffee beans that have been roasted and ground into powder. Coffee is a commodity in the world that is cultivated in more than 50 countries. Two species of coffee trees that are commonly known are Robusta Coffee and Arabica Coffee.

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What are the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)? Which SDGs can you relate to the Value Co-Creation and Circularity article (Gerke, 2020), and why? (250 Words) Tip: You can use bullet points to answer this question.

Answers

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a set of 17 objectives established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 to achieve a more sustainable future for all. These objectives include various targets that must be met by 2030 to address challenges such as poverty, climate change, and inequality.

The following are some of the SDGs that relate to the Value Co-Creation and Circularity article (Gerke, 2020), as well as a brief explanation of why they are relevant:

1. SDG 12: Responsible Consumption and Production - This objective aims to promote sustainable production and consumption patterns, which are closely linked to the concept of circularity.

2. SDG 13: Climate Action - The circular economy model aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, which is essential for combating climate change.

3. SDG 14: Life Below Water - Circularity and value co-creation can play a significant role in reducing the impact of waste on our oceans and other bodies of water.

4. SDG 15: Life On Land - Similarly, circularity and value co-creation can also help to address the issues of deforestation, desertification, and other land degradation problems.

5. SDG 17: Partnerships for the Goals - Finally, value co-creation is inherently a collaborative process, and this objective emphasizes the importance of working together to achieve sustainable development.

Overall, the Value Co-Creation and Circularity article (Gerke, 2020) aligns well with the goals of the SDGs, as it promotes sustainable production and consumption patterns, reduces greenhouse gas emissions, and encourages collaboration and innovation towards a more sustainable future.

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Explain in your own words subglacial sediment
deformation, outlining under what conditions it occurs and the
endogenic and exogenic processes that may be associated with
it

Answers

Subglacial sediment deformation occurs when the weight and movement of ice cause the sediment beneath a glacier or ice sheet to compact and rearrange, resulting in the formation of landforms and processes such as subglacial till and erosion by meltwater.

Subglacial sediment deformation refers to the mechanical processes that occur within the sediment beneath a glacier or ice sheet. It happens when the weight and movement of the overlying ice cause the sediment to deform and rearrange. This process occurs under specific conditions where the ice exerts pressure on the sediment, causing it to compact and deform. Endogenic processes associated with subglacial sediment deformation include the formation of subglacial till, which is a mixture of sediment and water and the development of subglacial landforms such as drumlins and eskers. Exogenic processes can include erosion, transportation, and deposition of sediment by meltwater flowing at the base of the glacier. Overall, subglacial sediment deformation is a dynamic process that plays a significant role in shaping the landforms and geological history of areas covered by glaciers and ice sheets.

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During which era did the earliest dinosaurs appear? A) Paleozoic B) Precambrian C) Mesozoic D) Cenozoic 14- What type of animal lived only during the Mesozoic Era? A) Dinosaurs B) Reptiles C) Mammals D) Birds

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During the Mesozoic Era, the earliest dinosaurs appeared.

14- A) Dinosaurs. Dinosaurs were a type of reptile that lived during the Mesozoic Era. They were the dominant terrestrial vertebrates during this era and exhibited great diversity in size, shape, and behaviour. Reptiles (option B) in general were present during the Mesozoic Era, but dinosaurs specifically were unique to that time period. Mammals (option C) and birds (option D) also existed during the Mesozoic Era, but they were not as dominant as dinosaurs.

A eruption that produced fountaining lava usually produces a Shield volcano Cinder cone Composite cone Parasitic cone

Answers

An eruption that produced fountaining lava usually produces a Shield volcano.

What is a Shield volcano?

A shield volcano is a wide volcano that has gently sloping sides and is formed by the slow flow of basaltic lava from a central crater. Shield volcanoes are named after their shape, which resembles a Roman shield lying on the ground.

What are the characteristics of a Shield volcano?

Shield volcanoes have the following characteristics: They are composed of a wide, flat cone with gently sloping sides that are formed by the slow flow of basaltic lava from a central crater. They are frequently found in oceanic settings and are mostly composed of basaltic lava. They are very large and may cover several hundred square kilometers. For instance, Mauna Loa, which is the largest volcano on Earth, covers an area of around 2,035 square miles (5,271 square kilometers).They are not usually explosive. However, they can create fissure eruptions that can cause significant destruction and damage to the environment. They have a more gradual, passive flow of lava that typically does not travel far from the volcano.

How do Shield volcanoes erupt?

When a shield volcano erupts, it spews out lava, which flows down the sides of the volcano in rivers or streams. The lava is typically very fluid and has a low viscosity. As a result, it can flow long distances and may travel several kilometers away from the volcano.Shield volcanoes can also have explosive eruptions, particularly if water or other volatile substances come into contact with the lava. These explosions can create pyroclastic flows, which are hot, fast-moving clouds of ash and gas that can be very dangerous to people and animals in the vicinity of the volcano.

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The evolution of the Sun ends up as I. Planetary nebula II. White dwarf III. Supernova explosion IV. Neutron star V. Black hole O O O O O both I and II both I and III III both both III and IV III and V

Answers

The Sun's evolution involves the stages of a planetary nebula and a white dwarf.

The correct option is (a).

The evolution of the Sun involves several stages. First, it undergoes the stage of a planetary nebula, where it expands and sheds its outer layers, creating a glowing cloud of gas and dust. This is followed by the formation of a white dwarf, which is the remaining core of the Sun after the planetary nebula phase. The Sun does not go through a supernova explosion, neutron star, or black hole formation. These latter stages are characteristic of more massive stars. Therefore, the correct options for the evolution of the Sun are I. Planetary nebula and II. White dwarf.

The correct answer is (a)  both I and II.

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1. a) Elaborate FIVE (5) differences between seismic reflection and seismic refraction. [10 marks] b) Give ONE (1) example of seismic processing method using data of geological model and ideal seismic response to process seismic acquisition data. [4 marks] c) Illustrate ONE (1) example of hot spot formation using appropriate sketch. [6 marks] d) Give TWO (2) examples of basin development from crustal deformation.

Answers

a) The five (5) differences between seismic reflection and seismic refraction are given below:
i. Seismic reflection: It measures the time taken for sound waves to reflect off subsurface boundaries and return to the surface. Seismic refraction, on the other hand, measures the time it takes for sound waves to pass through different layers of rock or sediment. ii. Seismic reflection provides information about subsurface layers' geometry and structural features, whereas seismic refraction provides information about the depth and velocity of subsurface layers. iii. Seismic reflection can be used to locate oil and gas reserves, while seismic refraction is used to detect geologic formations such as faults and folds. iv. Seismic reflection uses high-energy sources such as dynamite or air guns, while seismic refraction uses small energy sources like hammer blows or weight drops. v. Seismic reflection is more accurate in shallow waters, while seismic refraction is more accurate in deep waters.

b) One example of a seismic processing method that uses data of geological model and ideal seismic response to process seismic acquisition data is seismic inversion. Seismic inversion is the method of constructing a geological model from seismic data. It is used to estimate rock and fluid properties from seismic data. It converts seismic data into quantitative rock property estimates, such as porosity, lithology, and fluid content.

c) The example of hot spot formation can be illustrated using the following sketch: Image: https://imgur.com/x2tUwTJ The sketch shows a mantle plume rising from the Earth's core-mantle boundary, heating up the overlying rock and forming a hot spot. As the tectonic plates move over the hot spot, they create a trail of volcanic islands and seamounts. An example of a hot spot is the Hawaiian-Emperor seamount chain in the Pacific Ocean.

d) The two (2) examples of basin development from crustal deformation are given below: i. Rift Basin: It is formed by the extensional forces that pull apart the Earth's crust, creating a series of faults and fissures. These basins are often associated with volcanic activity and are found along the edges of tectonic plates, such as the East African Rift. ii. Foreland Basin: It is formed by the compression of the Earth's crust due to the collision of tectonic plates. The basin is located in front of the mountain range, and it is filled with sediments eroded from the mountains. An example of a foreland basin is the Persian Gulf Basin.

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Complete the following information for each issue and present it in column format:Usability Issue - List the issueSeverity Rating (High, Medium, or Low) - Rate the severity of the issue into one of three categories:High severity - Issues that prevent the user from completing tasks efficiently.Medium severity - Issues that impede ease of use and understanding.Low severity - Issues that do not prevent users from completing tasks, but inconvenience the user.Rationale - Describe the usability issue. Discuss the severity you assigned to the issue. Why is this an issue? How does it tie to the project resources and/or research? Justify your severity rating.Recommendation - Recommend a path of action to address the usability issue. How can the issue be fixed or corrected? Consider the following vector field. F(x, y, z) = 7yz lnxi + (8x 6yz)j + xyz k (a) Find the curl of F evaluated at the point (3, 1, 5). (b) Find the divergence of F evaluated at the point (3, 1, 5). 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