Answer:
A narrative review is a type of literature review that provides a summary and synthesis of the existing research on a particular topic. It is based on the analysis of existing literature and does not involve any primary research.
Explanation:
A narrative review is the type first-year college students often learn as a general approach. Its purpose is to identify a few studies that describe a problem of interest. Narrative reviews have no predetermined research question or specified search strategy, only a topic of interest.Answer:
Explanation:
An injection contains 5 million international units (MIU) of interferon alpha-n3 (ALFERON N) proteins per milliliter. The recommended dose is 0.05 mL. The literature states that the activity of interferon alpha-n3 is approximately equal to 2.6 × 108 international units/mg of protein.
Calculate (a) the number of international units and
(b) the micrograms of interferon alfa-n3 proteins administered per dose.
An injection contains 5 million international units (MIU) of interferon alpha-n3 (ALFERON N) proteins per milliliter, so the calculated values are:
(a) 250000 IU present in 0.05ml ordered dose.
(b) 890.3 mg is present in 0.05 ml ordered dose.
What is interferon alpha-n3?interferon alpha-n3 is a purified form of human interferon used to stimulate innate antiviral response to treat genital warts caused by human papilloma virus.
Given that,
Available dose ( Injection) = 5MIU / ml
(interferon alpha-n3 known as ALFERON N proteins per milliliter. )
Ordered dose = 0.05 ml
Activity of Interferon Alpha n3 = 2.6 ×108 IU /mg of protein.
a)
Given that,
5 million IU = 1 ml
5× 0.05 × 10⁶ IU = 0.05 ml
25 × 10⁴ IU = 0.05 ml
Hence, 250000 IU present in 0.05ml ordered dose
b)
Given that,
5 × 10⁶ IU = 1 ml
1 IU = 1/ (5 × 10⁶) ml
and
Given that,
2.6 ×10⁸ IU = 1 mg
or, (2.6 ×10⁸)/( 5 × 10⁶ ) ml = 1 mg
or, 1 ml = (5 × 10⁶)/(2.6 ×10⁸) mg
or, 1 ml = 17806 mg
Now,
0.05 ml = 17806 × 0.05 mg
0.05ml = 890.3 mg
Hence, 890.3 mg is present in 0.05 ml ordered dose.
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which statement by a pregnant client who is human immunodeficiency (hiv) positive indicates her understanding of the risk to her newborn during delivery?
Although the newborn may be asymptomatic at birth, there is a possibility of transmission from HIV-positive moms to their child.
A virus known as the human immunodeficiency virus is what causes AIDS (HIV). When a person contracts HIV, their immune system is harmed and compromised. As the immune system declines, the likelihood of developing cancer and other severe diseases increases. As a result, there is a disease called AIDS.
HIV can transmit to a fetus or unborn child during pregnancy, childbirth, or nursing.
25 to 30 percent of infants born to mothers who are HIV positive will also become unwell if they are not treated. However, if moms are aware of their HIV infection and are undergoing treatment at the same time as their infants, the risk of an infant contracting HIV is less than 2%.
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write a detailed project proposal on the dissemination of information and prevention of HIV prevence and incidence among students
Answer:
The true prevalence of HIV and other sexually transmitted diseases among street children in Nepal is virtually unknown while information on related behavioural risk factors in this population is non-existent. The risk of HIV infection among street children and adolescents may be especially high due to their marginalized social and economic conditions. This study was conducted to determine the prevalence of HIV infection among a sample of street children and youth of Kathmandu and to identify risk factors associated with HIV infection in this group.
A sample of street children and youth was recruited based on the purposive sampling of ten streets in Kathmandu, Nepal, known to have a high density of street children and youth. A total of 251 street children (aged 11–16 years) and youth (aged 17–24 years) were enrolled, with informed consent, from November, 2008 through June, 2009. Most of the participants (95%) were male. Case status was determined by serological assessment of HIV status; data on risk factors were obtained using structured survey interviews. HIV prevalence and rates of a number of behavioural risk factors suspected to play a role in HIV transmission among street children and youth were determined, including unprotected sex, intravenous drug use, and other risky sex and substance use behaviours.
Among the 251 children and youth, we found an overall HIV prevalence of 7.6%. As the sample size of females was small (n = 13) and the behavioural risk factors are likely to be quite different for boys and girls, we conducted separate analyses by gender. As our small sample of females is unlikely to be representative and lacks power for statistical testing, our report focuses on the results for the males surveyed. The strongest behavioural risk factor to emerge from this study was intravenous drug use; 30% of the male subjects were injecting drug users and 20% of those were HIV positive. Furthermore, frequency of drug injection was a highly significant predictor with a dose–response relationship; males reporting occasional injection drug use were nearly 9 times more likely to be HIV positive than never users, while weekly drug injectors had over 46 times the risk of non-users, controlling for exposure to group sex, the only other significant risk factor in the multivariate model.
This sample of street children and youth of Kathmandu has a nearly 20-fold higher prevalence of HIV infection than the general population of Nepal (0.39%). The children and youth engage in number of high risk behaviours, including intravenous drug use, putting them at significant risk of contracting HIV and other sexually transmitted infections.
chase was walking to class when suddenly he felt short of breath and dizzy. his heart started pounding quickly and he briefly had thoughts that he was going to die. chase is most likely suffering from what?
With shortness of breath, dizziness, and a pounding heart, Chase is most likely suffering from panic.
Panic is a sudden feeling or sensation of intense fear. It tends to prevent logical thinking, instead replacing it with intense anxiety and agitation.
Some symptoms of panic are:
SweatingThroat feeling tightShortness of breathShakingPounding heart rateLightheadedness or dizzinessFear of loss of control Sense of impending doomWhile a panic attack is not dangerous on its own, it can be very uncomfortable for the victim and may even get worse without treatment. It's usually caused by major stress or a sensitive temperament.
To treat panic attacks, one can start breath in and our deeply and slowly. Some people find that counting steadily from one to five or ten also helps.
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native hawaiians consume noni (indian mulberry) as a juice for renal problems, hypertension, diabetes. true false
It is true that native Hawaiians use noni juice (an indian mulberry) for diabetes, hypertension, and kidney issues.
Chronic disorders like type-2 diabetes (T2D) are on the rise, which has rekindled interest in complementary and alternative therapies like herbal products. Pacific Islanders have used Morinda citrifolia (noni) for centuries to treat a variety of illnesses. Since 1996, commercial noni juice has been promoted as a nutritional supplement. Among noni’s several health benefits, others and we have demonstrated the anti-diabetic effects of fermented noni fruit juice in animal models. Because noni goods are "natural," they are thought to be safe.
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the nurse is caring for a client prescribed a tocolytic agent. the nurse takes immediate action based on what assessment finding?
The client is receiving tocolytic therapy from the nurse. Based on the auscultation's detection of bilateral crackles, the nurse acts right away.
Labor contractions are stopped by tocolytics. Pulmonary edema is the side effect that occurs most frequently after using these medications. When there are bilateral crackles on lung auscultation, there is pulmonary edema and immediate treatment is needed. Although it should be reported, a blood glucose level of 170 mg/dL (9.4 mmol/L) is not life-threatening but is elevated.
With bounding arterial pulsations, tachycardia and increased cardiac output are possible side effects of tocolytics. A peripheral pulse strength of +2 denotes a level that is marginally below average but not immediately concerning.
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which clinical action plan is most appropriate for a patient in stage 3 of chronic kidney disease? hesi
Your eGFR is in the range of 30 to 59 if you have stage 3 CKD. Protein in your urine is another possibility (i.e., your pee). Your kidneys are damaged, which affects how well they function, and you may start to experience symptoms.
You can take a lot of steps to prevent further kidney damage even though this damage is typically irreversible.
Your kidneys have mild to moderate damage at this stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD), which makes it harder for them to filter waste and fluid from your blood. In your body, this waste can accumulate and start to impair other systems, such as your bones, blood pressure, and anemia. Uremia describes this waste accumulation.
Your eGFR determines the stage of chronic kidney disease you are in: Stage 3a means your eGFR is between 45 and 59, and Stage 3b means your eGFR is between 30 and 44.
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Which risk factors can be controlled or modified in a client at risk for coronary artery disease?
The lifestyle factors that are managed (modified) include high blood pressure, high cholesterol, smoking, diabetes, being overweight or obese, not exercising enough, eating poorly, and stress.
What cholesterol levels fall within the usual range?
The ranges for adults' total cholesterol are as follows: Normal: not 200 mg/dL or less. High-risk levels: 200 to 239 milligrams High: 240 mg/dL or higher.
What level of cholesterol is too high?
If a person's total bad cholesterol is more than 240 mg/dL, their LDL levels are greater over 2g (190 mg/dL would be even higher risk), and their HDL level is lower than 40 mg/dL, they are regarded to be at high risk of developing heart disease.
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what can you measure using an emg (electromyography) concerning the recruitment of motor units?
Using an EMG (electromyography) the measurement required is the number of active motor units recruited, the applied force generated and the firing frequency of an individual motor unit.
Why is EMG required during recruitment?The assessment of motor unit recruitment at low levels of muscle contraction is an important part of an EMG study.
The goal is to determine the recruitment pattern by calculating the firing rate of the first few recruited MUAPs. The force, number of active motor units, and frequency of individual motor units will also be measured. The grip strength produced by squeezing is used to calculate force.
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translational research/science takes laboratory findings for development for use with patients at the bedside.
Translational research/science takes laboratory findings for development for use with patients at the bedside. This is true.
Translational research aims to translate basic research findings into outcomes that directly benefit humans. The term is used in science and technology, particularly biology and medicine. Translational research is thus a subset of applied research.
Translational scientists seek to understand the fundamental scientific and operational principles underlying each stage of the translational process in order to develop novel medical interventions that vastly improve their efficiency and efficacy.
T1 phase translational research includes drug development, some studies of disease mechanisms, such as proteomics, genomics, genetics, metabolomics, and animal models.
Translational research aims to produce more meaningful, applicable outcomes that benefit human health directly. The goal of translational research is to translate (move) basic science discoveries into practice more quickly and efficiently.
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when an infant with pyloric stenosis is admitted to the hospital, which aspect of the plan of care should the nurse implement first?
when an infant with pyloric stenosis is admitted to the hospital, the plan of care should the nurse implement first is to weigh the infant.
After birth, infants get thinner, however when they are a fortnight old, most children will have recovered their introduction to the world weight.
Gauging the child is significant on the grounds that should the child neglect to meet these standards, it can reflect issues with the child's health - as is a crucial piece of determination.
At the point when the child is weighed upon entering the world - and a low birth weight is analyzed he/she might be in danger of complexities.
Low birth weight can be related with an untimely birth, and it very well may be hard to isolate between the two if so. Overall nonetheless: the lower the child's introduction to the world weight, the more prominent the gamble they will confront.
As per the World Health Organisation, children with a low birth weight have a higher gamble of kicking the bucket in the initial 28 days of life.
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When administering an opioid antagonist drug to a client, the primary goal of the therapy is to provide?
When administering an opioid antagonist drug to a client, the primary goal of the therapy is to provide a return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. The correct option is a.
What is an opioid antagonist drug?A substance known as an antagonist binds to opioid receptors without activating them, blocking the effects of opioids. Antagonists inhibit full agonist opioids while having no opioid action. Naltrexone and naltrexone are two examples.
The client's respiratory depression is the main factor driving the use of an opioid antagonist. As a result, raising the client's respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth is the main objective. Pharmacological therapy does not include any of the alternative possibilities.
Therefore, the correct option is a. A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
a. A return to normal respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth.
b. A reduction in the client's rating of their pain.
c. Promote alertness and improve memory function.
d. Management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
which of the following is the most important antigen presenting cell for activation of naive cd4 t cells in lymph nodes?
Dendritic cells are the most important antigen-presenting cell for the activation of naive CD4+ T cells in lymph nodes.
A special type of immune cell that is found in tissues, such as the skin, and boosts immune responses by showing antigens on its surface to other cells of the immune system. A dendritic cell is a type of phagocyte and a type of antigen-presenting cell. The master regulators of the immune response serve this function by linking the microbial sensing features of the innate immune system to the exquisite specificity of the adaptive response. Dendritic cells produce cytokines and other factors that promote B cell activation and differentiation. After an initial antibody response has occurred due to an invading body, DCs found in the germinal center of lymph nodes seem to contribute to B cell memory by forming numerous antibody-antigen complexes.
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the nurse is preparing to administer medications to the client. which identifiers will the nurse use? select all that apply.
The nurse is getting ready to give the client their pills. The nurse uses your name, bracelet, and birthdate.
What purposes do medicines serve?Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid there in diagnosis of illness. Doctors can now save and treat numerous diseases thanks to modern medicine. Nowadays, there are numerous sources for drugs.
The purpose of drug use by patients:It is necessary to take my prescription exactly as prescribed for the treatment of immediate problems, the management of chronic conditions, and general long-term wellbeing. Drug compliance depends on your ability to connect with your pharmacist or physician on a personal level.
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the nurse needs to conduct a procedure on a preterm newborn. which measures would be most effective in reducing pain? select all that apply.
The most effective measures for reducing pain for a preterm newborn are:
Swaddling the newborn closely.Offering a pacifier before the procedure,Encouraging kangaroo care during the procedure.Based on the guideline by The American Academy of Pediatrics and the Canadian Pediatric Society (AAP/CPS), each healthcare facility should establish a neonatal pain control program. This program usually includes:
Performing routine assessments.Reducing the number of painful procedures.Preventing or treating acute pain from bedside invasive procedures.Avoiding repetitive pain and/or stress during care.One thing that's usually done to reduce pain is kangaroo care. Kangaroo care is skin-to-skin contact, used for warmth and bonding while decreasing mortality. It decreases crying time and stress on the newborn.
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The nurse is performing an assessment of the peripheral vascular system and notes edema in one of the lower extremities. Which are causes of unilateral edema of the lower extremities?
a. Prolonged presence of a cast on the extremity
b. Venous stasis and obstruction
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Prolonged standing position
The causes of unilateral edema of the lower extremities is Venous stasis and obstruction
What is meant by peripheral vascular system ?The peripheral vascular system is made up of peripheral arteries, which are in charge of supplying all body parts with oxygenated blood from the heart, and peripheral veins, which transport deoxygenated blood from the extremities back to the heart.
The peripheral circulation is responsible for the movement of blood, distribution of blood flow, communication between blood and tissue, and blood storage (venous system).
Any tool that enters data and commands into a computer for storage or processing, including sensors and to provide the processed data to a human operator is referred to as a peripheral device. This term is also used to refer to computers.
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Venous stasis and obstruction are the causes of unilateral edema of the lower extremities.
What is unilateral edema?Unilateral edema is the presence of excess fluid in the lower extremity, resulting in swelling of the feet and extending upward.Deep venous thrombosis, venous insufficiency, or lymphedema are the most common causes of unilateral lower extremity edema below the knee. The underlying etiology, which is frequently of vascular origin, is frequently revealed by the patient history, physical examination, and lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound.DVT or trauma are the most common causes of acute unilateral lower extremity edema. Chronic unilateral lower extremity edema is most commonly caused by venous insufficiency and, less frequently, by primary or secondary lymphoedema.Bilateral swelling is typically caused by systemic conditions (e.g., cardiac failure), whereas unilateral swelling is frequently caused by local trauma, venous disease, or lymphatic disease.To learn more about unilateral edema refer to :
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.the intent of hipaa is to promote large health care providers get faster service since their volume of claims is larger than small rural providers true or false
“HIPAA intends to promote large health care providers get faster service since their volume of claims is larger than small rural providers.” This statement is: True.
What are HIPAA's purposes?HIPAA, which stands for The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, is a federal law that sets several standards to improve the efficiency of healthcare services and the protection of clients’ health information. HIPAA's main purposes are as follows:
To reduce the paperwork burden and pave the more efficient way to process checks, bills, payments, and other operations.To protect clients’ data and privacy.Prohibits the tax deduction of interest on life insurance loans.Hence, the statement above is true because faster service is one of the three main purposes of HIPAA.
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a client who is admitted to the health care facility has been diagnosed with cerebral edema. which intravenous solution needs to be administered to this client?
Hypertonic solution needs to be administered to this client.
Cerebral edema is an abnormal accumulation of fluid (edema) in the brain's intracellular or extracellular spaces. This usually results in impaired nerve function, increased pressure within the skull, and, eventually, direct compression of brain tissue and blood vessels. Headaches, nausea, vomiting, seizures, drowsiness, visual disturbances, dizziness, and, in severe cases, coma and death are common symptoms.
Cerebral edema is commonly seen in ischemic stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, subdural, epidural, or intracerebral hematoma, hydrocephalus, brain cancer, brain infections, low blood sodium levels, high altitude, and acute liver failure. Serial neuroimaging confirms the diagnosis based on symptoms and physical examination findings (computed tomography scans and magnetic resonance imaging).
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69. A 32-year-old woman returns to her physician for follow-up of hypertension that has been poorly controlled in spite of numerous antihypertensive medications. It is decided to evaluate the patient for possible "secondary"hypertension. Which of the following is a well-known cause of secondarv hvpertension?
A. Ethnicity B.Obesity C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Smoking E. Stress
under which circumstances may an updated entry be added to a patient's health record in place of a complete history and physical?
Entries should be made as soon as possible after an event or observation is made. An entry should never be made in advance. Entries should always be dated and should be done at the same time as patient care.
The information that the PHR has gathered, processed, exchanged, and stored. Examples include a person's medical history, test results, imaging examinations, and medicines. Infrastructure. The system that manages data processing, storage, and exchange.PERSONAL HEALTH RECORDS AND. THE HIPAA PRIVACY RULE. A personal health record (PHR) is a new type of health information technology that allows patients to take an active role in their own care, enhancing its effectiveness.
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As soon as an occurrence or observation is made, entries should be made. Never make an entry ahead of time. Always date entries, and complete them concurrently with patient care.
The data that the PHR collected, processed, shared, and archived. A person's medical history, test outcomes, imaging results, and medications are a few examples. Infrastructure. the system in charge of controlling data processing, exchange, and storage. RECORDS OF PERSONAL HEALTH AND. A PRIVACY RULE UNDER HIPAA. An innovative form of health information technology called a personal health record (PHR) enables individuals to actively participate in their own care, improving the efficacy of such care.
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a nurse is preparing an education program about renal disease. which risk factor should the nurse include when teaching? select all that apply.
The threat factors for the renal disorder encompass immobility, sickle-mobile anemia, and spinal twine damage.
The maximum realistic exams for assessing renal characteristic are to estimate the glomerular filtration rate and to test for proteinuria. The fine typical indicator of glomerular function is the glomerular filtration charge. Diabetes and high blood pressure are the most common reasons of her CKD in adults.
Different chance factors include heart sickness weight problems circle of relatives history of CKD hereditary kidney sickness previous kidney harm and older age. you could preserve your kidneys wholesome by controlling your blood sugar and blood pressure. The glomerular filtration price is the pleasant average indicator of renal function.
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during routine preconception counseling, a client asks how early a pregnancy can be diagnosed. what is the nurse's best response?
you might get a positive result from an at-home test as early as 10 days after conception.
Using a sample of your blood or urine, a pregnancy test can determine whether you are pregnant by looking for a certain hormone. Human chorionic gonadotropin is the name of the hormone (hCG). When you can do a pregnancy test, high levels of hCG are a sign of pregnancy. Most pregnancy tests are usable starting on the first day after a missing period. Do the test at least 21 days after your last incident of unprotected intercourse if you are unsure of when your next period will start. In the early stages of your pregnancy, when hCG levels are still rising, your first morning urine will give you the best chance of having sufficient hCG levels built up. Some very sensitive pregnancy tests can be used even before you miss a period.
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which statement by a client who is pregnant indicates to the nurse an understanding of the role of protein during pregnancy?
A client whom are pregnant stating that protein aids in the development of the fetus shows the nurse that she is aware of the need of protein throughout pregnancy.
Explain what proteins are:The big, intricate molecules known as proteins are used by the body for a variety of crucial tasks. They perform the majority cytokine their work inside cells and are essential for the development, functionality, and regulation of the brain and other organs.
I need how much protein?How much protein should you consume? You should get between 10% and 35% of the calories from proteins. Therefore, 50-175 g of protein, or 200-700 calories, will be plenty if you need 2,000 calories. For a typical sedentary adult, the suggested dietary allowance is 0.8 grams each kilogram of body mass.
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the ophthalmologist suggested the patient seek lasik treatment to eliminate eyeglasses and correct vision caused by irregular curvature of the cornea or lens, or
The ophthalmologist suggested the patient seek lasik treatment to eliminate eyeglasses and correct vision caused by irregular curvature of the cornea or lens, or astigmatism.
An ophthalmologist is a doctor who focuses on the identification and management of eye conditions. Eye illnesses can be treated by ophthalmologists using medication and surgery in addition to prescribing and fitting eyeglasses and contact lenses. Doctors who treat patients with eye disorders are called ophthalmologists. They employ medical and surgical knowledge to identify, treat, and prevent diseases of the eyes and visual system. Optometrists and ophthalmologists have different levels of training and a range of diagnoses and treatments available to them. An ophthalmologist is a medical doctor with a licence to practise both medicine and surgery who has finished college and at least eight more years of medical school.
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a nursing student studying pharmacology is focusing on drugs used to treat tuberculosis (tb). this student correctly identifies the classifications of antitubercular drugs as which of the following?
The FDA has approved antitubercular medications to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections, including rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.
What is antitubercular drugs?Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). TB bacteria typically attack the lungs, but they can attack any part of the body, including the kidney, spine, and brain.Antitubercular medications are a type of antibiotic that is used to treat tuberculosis. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M-TB), an acid-fast aerobic bacteria that can grow as either gram-positive or gram-negative on gram stain.Antitubercular drugs work by inhibiting the growth of the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). They work by inhibiting reversibly DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which in turn inhibits bacterial protein synthesis and transcription.Second-line drugs are TB drugs that are used to treat drug-resistant TB.To learn more about drugs refer to :
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which term describes the expected outcomes for a client who is admitted for a recurrent mental health problem
Measurable objectives expected outcomes are measurable and realistic and reflect desirable projected responses to therapeutic interventions that consider the client's present and potential capabilities
generally, each short-term and lengthy-time period desires are blanketed inside the care plan. A variance takes place when a patron's response to interventions isn't like what commonly is expected. A medical pathway is a written standardized manner that info essentials steps for care and describes the anticipated scientific route. predicted patron effects are a aspect of a medical pathway.
purchaser safety is constantly the priority concern in disaster intervention therapy. The disequilibrium of crisis predisposes the customer to awful thinking. None of the other alternatives have priority over client safety.
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a group of diverse medical and health care systems, practices, and products that are not generally considered part of conventional medicine
The group of medical care system practices is known as Complementary and Alternative Medicine.
Taiji, massage, acupuncture, and green tea consumption are examples of complementary and alternative medicine procedures. Integrative medicine is a method of treating patients that blends traditional medical treatment with CAM procedures that have been scientifically proven to be secure and efficient. The patient's preferences are frequently emphasized, and this method makes an effort to address the mental, physical, and spiritual facets of wellness. People with cancer may turn to complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) to help them deal with the side effects of cancer treatments, such as nausea, pain, and fatigue, to comfort themselves, to ease their concerns about cancer treatment and related stress, to feel like they are contributing to their own care, or to try to treat or cure their cancer.
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a client is receiving rifampin and isoniazid in combination for treatment of tuberculosis. what would the nurse need to monitor closely?
Patients who take rifampin and isoniazid together as in RIFAMATE should be cautiously watched for hepatotoxicity.
What happens during hepatotoxicity?Hepatotoxicity is the term used to describe harm to the liver or a reduction in its capacity brought on by exposure to xenobiotics such as medications, food additives, alcohol, chlorinated solvents, peroxidized fatty acids, fungal toxins, radioactive isotopes, environmental toxins, and even some medicinal plants.Your liver is harmed by toxic liver disease. It is also known as toxic hepatitis or hepatotoxicity. If you don't get help, it could result in serious symptoms or liver damage. Hepatotoxicity can be brought on by drugs, herbal supplements, chemicals, solvents, and alcohol, among other things.Although uncommon, few individuals who used benzbromarone and experienced hepatotoxicity experienced severe liver failure that need a liver transplant right away. There were fatal cases. Since hepatotoxicity frequently returns, it is not advisable to challenge again.To learn more about Hepatitis refer :
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which category of drugs includes common household or commercial products that are often used by young people who can't afford illicit drugs?
Inhalants category of drugs includes common household or commercial products that are often used by young people can't afford illicit drugs.
Inhalants include a wide range of common and industrial chemicals whose pressurized or volatile vapors may be condensed and inhaled through the mouth or nose to cause intoxication, contrary to what the manufacturer intended.
They do not include medications that are sniffed after burning or heating; instead, they are breathed at room temperature by volatilization (in the case of gasoline or acetone) or through a pressurized container (such as nitrous oxide or butane).
For instance, whereas smoking tobacco, cannabis, and crack are breathed as smoke or vapor, inhalants such as amyl nitrite (poppers), nitrous oxide, and toluene - a solvent commonly found in contact cement, permanent markers, and some forms of glue - are not.
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Full Question: Which category of drugs includes common household or commercial products that are often used by young people who can't afford illicit drugs?
a) Stimulants
b) Inhalants
c) Recreational drugs
d) Depressant
which are the major restrictive lung diseases? select all that apply.chronic bronchitispneumothoraxemphysemapulmonary fibrosisbronchiectasis
Pneumothorax and Pulmonary fibrosis are the major restrictive lung diseases. Thus correct option are (c) and (d).
Lung disease refers to a variety of illnesses or conditions that impair the function of the lungs. Lung disease can impair respiratory function, or the ability to breathe, as well as pulmonary function, or how well the lungs work.
There are several lung disorders that can be caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. Other lung diseases, such as asthma, mesothelioma, and lung cancer, are linked to environmental factors.
Chronic lower respiratory disorders include chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Chronic lower respiratory disorders are a primary cause of mortality in the United States when combined.
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Full Question: Which are the major restrictive lung diseases? Select all that apply.
Chronic bronchitis
Pneumothorax
- Emphysema
- Pulmonary fibrosis
- Bronchiectasis
