what is the basic arguement in The Threads of Organizational Theory: A Phenomenological Analysis. Written by Sunday Tunde Akindele et al..

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Answer 1

"The Threads of Organizational Theory: A Phenomenological Analysis" by Sunday Tunde Akindele et al. presents a phenomenological analysis of organizational theory.

The article explores the fundamental argument that organizational theory should take into account the lived experiences and subjective perspectives of individuals within organizations, emphasizing the importance of understanding the human aspect of organizational dynamics.

In the article, Akindele et al. argue that traditional approaches to organizational theory often overlook the subjective experiences and interpretations of individuals within organizations. They propose a phenomenological approach that focuses organizational commitment on understanding the lived experiences of individuals, including their thoughts, feelings, and perceptions, in relation to organizational phenomena. By incorporating phenomenology into organizational theory, the authors aim to shed light on the complex and dynamic nature of organizational behavior.

The article emphasizes the need to move beyond abstract models and theories and to embrace a more human-centric perspective in organizational analysis. Akindele et al. argue that by incorporating the phenomenological approach, researchers and practitioners can gain deeper insights into the intricacies of organizational dynamics, improve organizational effectiveness, and promote employee well-being. The article's central argument is that a phenomenological analysis adds valuable dimensions to the understanding of organizational theory, emphasizing the significance of the subjective experiences of individuals within organizations.

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Related Questions

1. What was the worst experience you ever had with conflict? What was so bad about it? (15 Points) 2. What are some of the things that caused the conflict? Was the conflict ever resolved/? (15 Points)

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Conflicts can arise from various sources and can have different levels of intensity and consequences. The severity and impact of a conflict depend on the specific circumstances and individuals involved. Here is some general information regarding the causes of conflicts and their resolution:

1. Causes of conflict:

Differences in opinions, values, or beliefs: Conflicting viewpoints on various subjects can lead to disagreements and conflicts.Limited resources: Competition for limited resources, such as money, power, or territory, can lead to conflicts.Miscommunication or misunderstandings: Lack of effective communication or misunderstandings can escalate conflicts.Power imbalances: Power struggles or unequal distribution of power can be a significant source of conflicts.Personal or interpersonal issues: Conflicts can arise from personal conflicts, personality clashes, or past grievances between individuals or groups.

2. Conflict resolution:

Negotiation and compromise: Conflicting parties can engage in negotiations to find common ground and reach a mutually acceptable resolution.Mediation: A neutral third party can facilitate communication and assist in finding a resolution that satisfies all parties involved.Collaboration and problem-solving: Working together to identify the underlying issues and finding creative solutions can help resolve conflicts.Conflict management strategies: Implementing effective conflict management strategies, such as active listening, empathy, and assertive communication, can contribute to resolving conflicts.

Whether a conflict is resolved or not depends on various factors, including the willingness of the parties involved to find a resolution, the nature of the conflict, and the effectiveness of the chosen conflict resolution strategies. Some conflicts may be resolved through open dialogue and negotiation, while others may persist or escalate if not properly addressed.

About Conflicts

Conflict comes from the Latin verb "configure". It means hitting each other. Sociologically, conflict is defined as a social process between two or more people. Where one party tries to get rid of the other party by destroying it.

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FILL THE BLANK.
Adolescent smoking is influenced more by ____. romantic partners than by peers siblings than by peers parents than by siblings peers than by parents For both men and women, marriage is positively related to life satisfaction psychological well-being Ojob satisfaction Ophysical well-being

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Adolescent smoking is influenced more by peers than by parents, romantic partners, or siblings.

What is smoking?

Smoking is an addiction, which can be very detrimental to an individual's health. It is a deadly habit that can cause lung cancer, heart disease, respiratory diseases, and a host of other health issues. Peer pressure is one of the most common reasons for adolescents to begin smoking.

Adolescents who smoke are often doing so in order to feel like they belong to a particular social group and to gain the acceptance of their peers. In most cases, teenagers begin smoking in order to be "cool," to experiment, or to cope with stress.

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What distinguishes a formal region from a functional region? Are geographic regions obvious and self-evident on the face of the globe, or are they the inventions of geographers? When engaging in geographic analysis, why is it useful to divide the world into discrete regions?

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A formal region and a functional region are two different types of geographic regions. A formal region is a geographical area with a shared feature or characteristic that can be used to differentiate it from other areas. A functional region, on the other hand, is a geographical area defined by a particular set of social, economic, or political activities that occur within it.

What distinguishes a formal region from a functional region?A formal region is defined by a particular attribute or characteristic that is shared by all the people or places within it, such as a language, religion, or political affiliation. In contrast, a functional region is defined by the social, economic, or political activities that take place within it. These activities typically involve the movement of goods, services, or people, and they tend to be centered on a particular node or hub.

Geographic regions are not self-evident on the face of the globe; rather, they are the inventions of geographers. Geographers use various criteria to define and delineate regions, including physical features, human activities, and cultural practices. The criteria used to define a region will depend on the purpose of the analysis and the questions being asked.

Dividing the world into discrete regions can be useful for a number of reasons. First, it can help to simplify complex geographic phenomena by breaking them down into more manageable pieces. This can make it easier to analyze and understand spatial patterns and relationships.Second, it can help to highlight similarities and differences between different parts of the world. By comparing and contrasting regions, geographers can identify commonalities and differences in culture, politics, economics, and the environment.Lastly, dividing the world into regions can help to facilitate communication and collaboration between researchers and policymakers. By defining regions, geographers can provide a common language and framework for discussing complex geographic phenomena.

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QUESTION 1 Writing about and researching leadership is O a. less popular in the business area than in social sciences b. a universally appealing topic O c. declining in popularity O d. simplistic rath

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Writing about and researching leadership is less popular in the business area compared to the social sciences. Option A is the correct answer.

While leadership is a widely discussed and studied topic, it tends to receive more attention and emphasis in the social sciences, such as psychology, sociology, and organizational behavior. In these fields, there is a strong focus on understanding leadership theories, styles, and their impact on individuals and groups. On the other hand, in the business area, leadership is often seen as a practical aspect of management, where the emphasis may be more on its application rather than extensive academic research.

Option A is the correct answer.

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iii. How can borrowing the Brazilian real from a Brazilian bank limit the subsidiary's exposure to political risk the result from government regulations? (4 marks)

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Borrowing the Brazilian real from a Brazilian bank can limit a subsidiary's exposure to political risk resulting from government regulations.

When a subsidiary operates in a foreign country, it is exposed to political risks arising from government regulations. These risks can include changes in policies, regulations, or legal frameworks that may adversely affect the subsidiary's operations and profitability.

By borrowing the Brazilian real from a Brazilian bank, the subsidiary can reduce its exposure to political risk in two ways. Firstly, using the local currency for borrowing eliminates the need to convert currencies, reducing the risk of losses due to exchange rate fluctuations. Political changes or government regulations that lead to currency devaluation can significantly impact the financial position of a subsidiary if it has borrowed in a foreign currency.

Secondly, borrowing from a local bank strengthens the subsidiary's relationship with the local financial institutions, which can provide support and assistance in navigating potential political risks. Local banks may have a better understanding of the regulatory environment and can offer guidance or tailored financial solutions to mitigate risks.

Overall, by borrowing in the local currency from a local bank, the subsidiary can limit its exposure to political risks resulting from government regulations, enhancing its financial stability and resilience in the foreign market.

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Residents living in a highly contaminated area of Hunters Hill, NSW were exposed to radiation from buried Uranium and Thorium over the course of many years. Their health symptoms (attributed to the exposure) include non-heritable bowel cancers and rashes. Which of the following hazards encompass the symptoms of these environmental contaminants?
A. Carcinogenic and teratogenic
B. Mutagenic and carcinogenic
C. Cytotoxic and mutagenic
D. Carcinogenic and cytotoxic
E. All of the above

Answers

The health symptoms reported in the residents exposed to radiation in Hunters Hill, NSW, are encompassed by hazards that are both carcinogenic and cytotoxic (Option D).

The symptoms of non-heritable bowel cancers and rashes indicate the presence of harmful effects caused by the environmental contaminants, uranium, and thorium. Carcinogenic hazards refer to substances or agents that have the potential to cause cancer in exposed individuals. In this case, the residents' development of bowel cancers suggests a carcinogenic effect of the radiation exposure.

Additionally, cytotoxic hazards refer to substances or agents that are toxic to cells, causing damage or death. The presence of rashes in the residents exposed to radiation indicates a cytotoxic effect, as the radiation can cause damage to the skin cells.

Considering these symptoms, the hazards that encompass the environmental contaminants in this scenario are both carcinogenic and cytotoxic. Therefore, the correct answer is option D: Carcinogenic and cytotoxic. These hazards reflect the harmful effects observed in the residents, including non-heritable bowel cancers and rashes.

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Describe the two types of climate hypothesis that
involve interactions between CO2 and weathering.
Explain one difference between these two hypotheses?

Answers

The two types of climate hypotheses that involve interactions between CO[tex]_{2}[/tex] and weathering are the silicate weathering feedback hypothesis and the carbonate-silicate weathering feedback hypothesis.

One difference between these two hypotheses is the source of alkalinity released during weathering. In the silicate weathering feedback hypothesis, alkalinity is primarily released from the weathering of silicate rocks, whereas in the carbonate-silicate weathering feedback hypothesis, alkalinity is released from the weathering of carbonate rocks.

The silicate weathering feedback hypothesis suggests that when CO  [tex]_{2}[/tex] levels increase, it accelerates the weathering of silicate rocks. This weathering process releases alkalinity, which reacts with CO[tex]_{2}[/tex] to form bicarbonate ions and removes CO[tex]_{2}[/tex] from the atmosphere, acting as a negative feedback mechanism on climate change.

In contrast, the carbonate-silicate weathering feedback hypothesis focuses on the weathering of carbonate rocks. Increased CO[tex]_{2}[/tex] levels lead to the weathering of carbonate rocks, releasing alkalinity. This alkalinity can then react with silicate rocks, promoting further weathering and CO[tex]_{2}[/tex] removal from the atmosphere.

The key difference between these two hypotheses lies in the source of alkalinity. The silicate weathering hypothesis emphasizes the weathering of silicate rocks as the primary source, while the carbonate-silicate weathering hypothesis highlights the weathering of carbonate rocks as the initial step in releasing alkalinity.

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TRUE / FALSE. N2. Though American courts follow precedent, it is entirely possible that practices that have been deemed constitutional can later be determined not to be so. In this light, Brown v. Board of Education overturned Plessy v. Ferguson and thus made "separate but equal" unconstitutional.

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The statement "Though American courts follow precedent, it is entirely possible that practices that have been deemed constitutional can later be determined not to be so" is true because the American court system is based on the principle of stare decisis, which means that judges must follow the precedents set by higher courts.

However, it is possible for courts to overturn previous decisions if they determine that the earlier ruling was incorrect or if there have been significant changes in the law or societal norms.

This is what happened in the case of Brown v. Board of Education, which overturned the earlier decision in Plessy v. Ferguson that upheld the constitutionality of "separate but equal" facilities for African Americans and whites.

The Brown v. Board decision found that segregation was inherently unequal and thus violated the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment.

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state four aims for conducting campaigns.

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Four aims for conducting campaigns Raise Awareness ,Change Attitudes and Behaviors, Mobilize Support and Action  Influence Policy and Decision-making Campaigns are organized efforts aimed at achieving specific goals or outcomes. They can be conducted in various fields, including politics, marketing,

1. Raise Awareness: One key aim of campaigns is to increase awareness about a particular issue, cause, product, or event. By effectively communicating messages and information, campaigns seek to educate and inform the target audience. This can be done through various mediums such as advertisements, social media, public events, and partnerships with influencers or key stakeholders. Raising awareness helps to generate interest, spark conversations, and create a foundation for further engagement.

2. Change Attitudes and Behaviors: Many campaigns aim to influence and change people's attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors regarding a specific topic. Whether it is promoting sustainable practices, encouraging healthy lifestyles, or advocating for social change, campaigns strive to create a shift in mindset and encourage individuals to adopt new behaviors or viewpoints. .

3. Mobilize Support and Action: Campaigns often aim to mobilize individuals, communities, or organizations to take action and support a cause. This can involve fundraising efforts, volunteer recruitment, signing petitions, participating in events or demonstrations, or contacting policymakers.

4. Influence Policy and Decision-making: Some campaigns focus on influencing policy decisions at the governmental or organizational level. They aim to bring attention to specific issues, propose policy changes, and advocate for their implementation. These campaigns often involve lobbying, engaging with policymakers, conducting research and analysis, and building alliances with like-minded organizations or individuals

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Compared to the strength of Earth's gravity at its surface r=R E

where R E

is the radius of the Earth, how much weaker is gravity at a distance of r=15R E

? (Enter your answer as a number of times.) times How much weaker is gravity at a distance of r=20R E

? (Enter your answer as a number of times.) times [-11 Points] SEEDSFOUNDATIONS14 5.P.013.NVA What would be the escape velocity at the surface of an asteroid 22 km in radius with a mass of 5×10 17
kg ? m/s A major league fastball travels 90mph. Could a major league pitcher throw a baseball off of the asteroid? Yes No

Answers

No matter how hard they throw, it could never exceed the escape velocity required to launch off the asteroid.

At a distance of r=15R E

, gravity is 81 times weaker than at Earth's surface.

At a distance of r=20R E

, gravity is 256 times weaker than at Earth's surface.

The escape velocity at the surface of an asteroid 22 km in radius with a mass of 5×10 17

kg is 3.37 m/s.

No, a major league pitcher could not throw a baseball fast enough off the asteroid. The escape velocity is 3.37 m/s, which is much slower than 90 mph.

Therefore, no matter how hard they throw, it could never exceed the escape velocity required to launch off the asteroid.

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Discuss how performance management system can have a significant impact on the employee and business

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A performance management system can have a significant impact on both employees and the business.

A performance management system is designed to improve employee performance and productivity by setting clear goals, providing regular feedback, and evaluating individual and team performance. It helps employees understand their roles and responsibilities, provides clarity on expectations, and aligns their efforts with the strategic objectives interpersonal skills of the organization. This alignment ensures that employees are working towards the same goals, leading to increased efficiency and effectiveness.

Effective performance management systems also include regular feedback and recognition mechanisms. By providing constructive feedback, managers can help employees understand their strengths and areas for improvement, enabling them to enhance their skills and performance. Recognition for achievements and milestones boosts employee morale, motivation, and job satisfaction, leading to increased engagement and loyalty.

Furthermore, a performance management system facilitates continuous improvement by identifying training and development needs, addressing performance gaps, and encouraging learning and growth. It supports the implementation of performance improvement plans and provides opportunities for skill enhancement, career advancement, and personal development.

In summary, a performance management system impacts both employees and the business by aligning individual and organizational goals, providing feedback and recognition, promoting continuous improvement, and driving overall business success. It creates a positive work environment, enhances employee engagement and productivity, and contributes to the achievement of organizational objectives.

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This paper is intended to help you reflect and synthesize the experiences that you've gained in our Psychology course this Spring semester. It’s an opportunity to consider ways that the course has helped you gain insight into human behavior, whether it be others or yourself. You can write about anything that you wish to reflect on regarding the course: How do you think this class helped you move forward in life? You can write about what you gained from the presentation, skills developed as a result of any in-class class project. You can reflect on any your study skills or class preparation behaviors, or any improvements you noticed from any changes you had to make to your study habits. You can write about cognitive or behavioral changes from any material that you learned about in class or in the book chapters, etc. What are some new things that you learned in class that you didn't know before. Are there any myths that were dispelled for you in this class? Please write a 2.5-page self-reflection on 'what you gained from this course.'

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This self-reflection paper aims to explore the personal growth and insights gained from the Psychology course during the Spring semester. It encourages the writer to reflect on various aspects, including the impact of the class on their life, skills developed through projects, study habits, cognitive or behavioral changes, new knowledge acquired, and dispelled myths.

Throughout the Psychology course, I have gained valuable insights and experiences that have contributed to my personal growth and understanding of human behavior. This class has helped me move forward in life by providing me with a deeper understanding of the complexities of the human mind and behavior.

Through engaging presentations and class discussions, I have learned to view people and situations with a more empathetic and open-minded perspective. The course has enhanced my interpersonal skills, allowing me to communicate and relate to others more effectively.

One of the highlights of this course was the opportunity to participate in various in-class projects. These projects not only fostered collaboration and teamwork but also honed my critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. Working with my classmates on these projects provided a platform for diverse perspectives, encouraging me to think outside the box and consider alternative viewpoints.

These experiences have equipped me with valuable skills that are applicable not only in academic settings but also in real-life situations.

Another aspect that significantly impacted my learning experience was reflecting on my study habits and class preparation behaviors. I realized the importance of consistent and structured studying, as well as the value of actively engaging with the course materials.

By implementing effective study strategies, such as creating comprehensive study guides and actively participating in class discussions, I noticed a significant improvement in my retention and comprehension of the subject matter. These changes in my study habits have not only positively influenced my performance in this course but will also benefit me in future academic pursuits.

Moreover, the course introduced me to a wealth of new knowledge and concepts that I was previously unaware of. Learning about different psychological theories, research methodologies, and the intricacies of human cognition and behavior has broadened my understanding of the world around me. It has also enabled me to critically evaluate information and question preconceived notions.

Furthermore, this course debunked several myths and misconceptions I had regarding psychology, challenging my prior assumptions and providing a more accurate understanding of human behavior based on scientific evidence.

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Examine the ecological benefit of fire in relation to plant population and dominance of grass in the savanna biome

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The savanna biome is one of the most susceptible to fire, which plays a crucial role in regulating the ecosystem. When fires occur in the savanna biome, they affect plant populations and grass dominance and provide ecological benefits as well.

This is how fire provides ecological benefits in relation to plant population and grass dominance in the savanna biome:

1. Fire promotes seed germination: In the savanna biome, some plants, such as grasses, have underground storage organs that store nutrients and energy during the dry season. These storage organs can sprout new plants after a fire, which creates opportunities for new growth.

2. Fire eliminates competition: In the savanna biome, fire helps eliminate invasive and exotic plants, creating an opportunity for native plants to grow and thrive. This increases the diversity of plant populations and prevents the dominance of one species over another.

3. Fire controls pest infestation: Some insects, such as the bark beetle, can destroy entire tree populations in the savanna biome. However, fire helps eliminate these pests, which promotes healthy tree growth.

4. Fire recycles nutrients: In the savanna biome, dead plant material accumulates quickly during the dry season, which can become a fire hazard. However, when fires occur, they help break down this material and release nutrients back into the soil, promoting the growth of new plants.

Fires can help maintain the savanna biome's ecological balance by regulating plant populations and promoting grass dominance. They play an important role in the survival of the savanna ecosystem and the wildlife that depend on it.

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Concerning aromatherapy the Food and Drug Administration
(FDA):
Question options:
Controls all ingredients used
Requires practitioners to be licensed
Has no involvement in controlling i

Answers

Concerning aromatherapy, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has no involvement in controlling it.

Aromatherapy is the use of essential oils or aromatic plant extracts to enhance a person's mental and physical health. The essential oils, which are extracted from plants, can be applied to the skin, inhaled, or ingested. The oils are believed to have healing properties that can help with a variety of physical and mental illnesses. Concerning aromatherapy, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has no involvement in controlling it. The role of the FDA in aromatherapy. The FDA does not regulate aromatherapy. It is considered an alternative medical practice that is not overseen by the FDA. As a result, there are no regulations in place to ensure the safety or effectiveness of aromatherapy products. Aromatherapy practitioners do not require a license to practice. They can make and sell aromatherapy products without FDA approval, but they must adhere to labeling laws.

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Instructions. For each proposition, determine the truth value based on the assumption that A,B, and C are True and X,Y, and Z are false. These are modeled on Hurley's 6.2, part III. Be sure to show your work, Example A&X, since A is T and X is F, it works out to T \& F, the conjunction is False 1. B &∼Y Answer: 2.Xv∼ Answer: 3. C∨Z Answer: 4.B>∼Z Answer:

Answers

1. The conjunction of B and the negation of Y is True.

2. The disjunction of X and the negation of Y is True.

3. The disjunction of C and Z is True.

4. The conditional statement of B implies the negation of Z is False.

1. B is True and the negation of Y is True, so the conjunction of B and ∼Y is True.

2. X is False and the negation of Y is True, so the disjunction of X and ∼Y is True.

3. C is True and Z is False, so the disjunction of C and Z is True.

4. B is True, and the negation of Z is True, so the conditional statement of B implying ∼Z is False.

In logic, conjunction (represented by &) is True only when both statements being combined are True. In proposition 1, B is True and ∼Y is also True, so their conjunction is True. Disjunction (represented by v) is True if at least one of the statements being combined is True. In proposition 2, X is False, but ∼Y is True, so their disjunction is True. In proposition 3, C is True and Z is False, making their disjunction True. Conditional statements (represented by >) are False only when the antecedent is True and the consequent is False. In proposition 4, B is True and ∼Z is True, so the conditional statement is False.

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Exercise 4-14A (Algo) Single-step and multistep income statements LO 4-6 The following information was taken from the accounts of Green Market, a small grocery store, at December 31, Year 1 . The accounts are listed in alphabetical order, and all have normal balances. Dollar amounts are given in thousands. Required: Prepare an income statement for the year using the single-step and multistep approach. Note: Enter values in thousands of dollars. Amounts to be deducted and losses should be indicated with a minus sign. Single-step Multistep

Answers

Income Statement in One Step for Green Market, First Year:

Loss (net income): $0 multistep Income Statement for the First Year of Green Market:

Loss on operating income: Zero net profit (loss): $0 Since the total expenses are not included in the single-step income statement, it is not possible to determine Green Market's first-year net income or loss.

Since the operating expenses are not included in the multistep income statement, it is impossible to ascertain the operating income (loss). Similarly, the net income (loss) cannot be calculated without the non-operating items. Subsequently, both the working pay (deficit) and overall gain (misfortune) are $0 in the multistep pay proclamation.

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Horizontal motion of air across the Earth's surface. Created by uneven heating of Earth. Named by where they come from. Your answer should be ONE WORD. When visiting the beach, Kai observed that a breeze blew in from the ocean during the day and out toward the ocean at night. Which factor is most responsible for the direction of land and sea breezes in coastal regions? the daily rise and fall of tides in a regular pattern the revolution of Earth around the Sun the uneven heating between the land and water the gravitational pull of Earth on the atmosphere The Coriolis Effect deflects wind direction. How does this process impact ocean surface currents? The wind deflects the currents to the right in both hemispheres. The wind deflects the currents to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The wind deflects the currents to the left in both hemispheres. The wind deflects the currents to the left in the Northern Hemisphere and to the right in the Southern Hemisphere. Coriolis effect does not affect ocean currents Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 900mb 1000.3mb 29.80 inches 15psi 1013.2mb Wind speed is measured with a/an analemma thermometer anemometer altimeter barometer A rapid change in atmospheric pressure (steep pressure gradient) will show the isobars on a weather map as absent close together evenly spaced far apart High pressure cells in the Northern Hemisphere are anticyclonic, diverging counterclockwise anticylonic, diverging clockwise stationary, and do not rotate cyclonic, converging counterclockwise cyclonic, converging clockwise

Answers

The horizontal motion of air across the Earth's surface that is created by uneven heating of Earth and named by where they come from is called "Winds".

When visiting the beach, Kai observed that a breeze blew in from the ocean during the day and out toward the ocean at night. The factor most responsible for the direction of land and sea breezes in coastal regions is the uneven heating between the land and water.The Coriolis Effect deflects wind direction.

The impact of this process on ocean surface currents is: The wind deflects the currents to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.Wind speed is measured with an anemometer. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is measured in mb (millibars). A rapid change in atmospheric pressure (steep pressure gradient) will show the isobars on a weather map as close together. High pressure cells in the Northern Hemisphere are anticyclonic, diverging clockwise.

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Question 1 Experiencing symptoms of tolerance and withdrawal is consistent with hallucinogens. a near-death experience. memory disruption. substance use disorder. 1 pts

Answers

Experiencing symptoms of tolerance and withdrawal is consistent with substance use disorder. Option d is correct.

Substance use disorder is a condition where an individual keeps using a substance despite the negative consequences that come with using it. Substance use disorder is a medical condition characterized by the continued use of a substance despite the harm that comes from using it. Substance use disorder may include tolerance and withdrawal symptoms.  

Tolerance occurs when a person needs a higher dose of the substance to achieve the desired effect they once obtained at a lower dose. Withdrawal symptoms may occur when the person stops using the substance abruptly. These symptoms are uncomfortable and can be life-threatening.

Therefore, d is correct.

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The orbital radius of Ganymede is 2631 km and the albedo of Jupiter is 0.34. Given this information, determine how much maximum Jupiter-shine lands on the equatorial surface of Ganymede.

Answers

The maximum Jupiter-shine that lands on the equatorial surface of Ganymede is approximately 3.227 x 10^15 watts.

The maximum Jupiter-shine that lands on the equatorial surface of Ganymede can be calculated using the equation:

Maximum Jupiter-shine = (Solar Constant) * (Jupiter's Albedo) * (Ganymede's Orbital Radius^2)

The Solar Constant is the average solar irradiance received at Earth's distance from the Sun, which is approximately 1361 watts per square meter.

Using the given values:

Solar Constant = 1361 watts per square meter

Jupiter's Albedo = 0.34

Ganymede's Orbital Radius = 2631 km (which needs to be converted to meters)

Converting the orbital radius from kilometers to meters:

2631 km = 2631 * 1000 = 2,631,000 meters

Now, we can substitute these values into the equation:

Maximum Jupiter-shine = (1361) * (0.34) * (2,631,000^2)

Calculating the result:

Maximum Jupiter-shine = (1361) * (0.34) * (6,913,361,000,000) = 3.227 x 10^15 watts

Therefore, the maximum Jupiter-shine that lands on the equatorial surface of Ganymede is approximately 3.227 x 10^15 watts.

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Compare and contrast social bonding theory to the general theory
of crime. What has recent research on these theories found
regarding gender differences?

Answers

Recent research on social bonding theory and general theory of crime has found gender differences in their impact on criminal behavior.

Social bonding theory and general theory of crime are two prominent criminological theories that explain criminal behavior. Social bonding theory emphasizes the importance of social bonds and attachments in preventing individuals from engaging in criminal activities. On the other hand, general theory of crime posits that low self-control is the underlying cause of criminal behavior.

Recent research has explored the role of these theories in understanding gender differences in criminal behavior. Findings suggest that social bonding theory may have a stronger influence on females, as they tend to be more influenced by social bonds and attachments. In contrast, general theory of crime may have a stronger association with male criminal behavior, as they are more likely to exhibit low self-control.

Therefore, recent research supports the notion that gender differences exist in the impact of social bonding theory and general theory of crime on criminal behavior.

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What was Robert dahl's theory of democracy (Pluralism) about?
500 words

Answers

Robert Dahl's theory of democracy, known as pluralism, emphasizes the distribution of political power among multiple groups and the ability of these groups to influence decision-making processes.

Robert Dahl's theory of democracy, known as pluralism, offers an alternative perspective to traditional theories that focus on elite or majority rule. According to Dahl, pluralism recognizes the existence of diverse interest groups within a society and highlights their role in shaping political outcomes.

In pluralism, power is seen as dispersed among various groups rather than concentrated in the hands of a few elites. These groups represent different interests, such as labor unions, business associations, advocacy groups, and so on. Each group has the ability to influence policy decisions through activities such as lobbying, advocacy, and collective action.

Dahl argues that in a pluralistic democracy, political decisions are the result of bargaining and compromise among these competing interest groups. No single group or individual holds all the power, and policy outcomes are determined through negotiation and accommodation of different perspectives.

This theory emphasizes the importance of a vibrant civil society and a competitive marketplace of ideas. It suggests that a healthy democracy requires active participation from a wide range of groups, fostering a dynamic exchange of viewpoints and preventing the domination of any single interest.

Dahl's pluralist theory has been influential in shaping the understanding of democracy and has sparked debates and critiques. Some argue that pluralism overlooks structural inequalities and the unequal distribution of resources and power among groups, limiting the effectiveness of citizen participation. Others contend that it provides a realistic portrayal of democratic politics by acknowledging the complexities of power dynamics in society.

In conclusion, Robert Dahl's theory of democracy, pluralism, emphasizes the role of diverse interest groups and their ability to shape political outcomes through bargaining and compromise. It highlights the importance of inclusiveness, participation, and the distribution of power in democratic decision-making processes.

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5. Marianne is a 34-year-old female showing signs of disorganized thought and flat affect. She says that she hears voices telling her to do things. She believes that her behavior is being controlled by other people and she thinks that all her former friends have formed a conspiracy and are out to get her. She also tends toward repetitive, highly ritualized behavior. a. Major Depressive Disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Bipolar Disorder d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder 6. Zachary is a 17-year-old male who appears boastful, conceited, and arrogant. When someone accuses him of being that way, he flies into a rage. He shows little care for others and is often envious when others are recognized for their achievements. He is also prone to daydreaming and fantasizing about the success that awaits him. a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder b. Antisocial Personality Disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Bipolar Disorder 7. Sandy feels dirty unless she bathes and changes clothes at least four times a day, and she is fastidious about the house as well. Every room is scrubbed at least twice a week and the bathroom is taken care of daily. a. Major Depressive Disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder 8. Although he was not personally injured, Harry has had problems since the earthquake two years ago. He is listless and quarrelsome and sleeps fitfully, reliving the quake in nightmarish dreams. a. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder d. Acute Stress Disorder 9. Emily often drinks too much, especially at parties. She has gotten two DUI tickets after leaving parties. She is also in danger of losing her job because she often misses work on Monday due to a hangover after partying on the weekend. a. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder b. Substance Abuse Disorder c. Hypochondriasis d. No diagnosis, just likes to party 10. True or False? The DSM-5 is the most recent diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders. What Type of Psychotherapy? Multiple Choice: Identify the type of psychotherapy represented by each statement below: 11. The theme of hostility toward authority figures occurs over and over again in his dreams and free associations, yet he claims that he and his father had a close and affectionate relationship. a. Behavioral b. Psychodynamic c. Cognitive Don't forgot, no hard copies of the project are accepted. d. Family in order to earn credit on this assignments, you must submit your answers online!

Answers

1. The symptoms described in the scenario indicate schizophrenia.

2. The behavior and characteristics described in the scenario point to narcissistic personality disorder.

3. The obsessive-compulsive behavior and compulsive cleanliness described suggest obsessive-compulsive disorder.

4. The symptoms of reliving the traumatic event, listlessness, and quarrelsomeness suggest post-traumatic stress disorder.

5. The excessive drinking, DUI tickets, and work absenteeism indicate substance abuse disorder.

6. True. The DSM-5 is the most recent edition of the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders.

1. Marianne's symptoms of disorganized thought, flat affect, auditory hallucinations, delusions of control, and paranoid beliefs are characteristic of schizophrenia.

2. Zachary's symptoms of boastfulness, arrogance, lack of empathy, rage, and daydreaming about personal success are indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.

3. Sandy's excessive cleanliness and obsessive behaviors, such as frequent bathing and cleaning rituals, are consistent with obsessive-compulsive disorder.

4. Harry's symptoms of listlessness, quarrelsomeness, sleep disturbances, and nightmares related to the traumatic earthquake indicate post-traumatic stress disorder.

5. Emily's excessive alcohol consumption, DUI tickets, and negative consequences in her personal and professional life suggest substance abuse disorder.

6. True. The DSM-5, published in 2013, is the most recent edition of the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders, which provides criteria for the diagnosis of various mental health conditions.

It's important to note that these are brief summaries based on the information provided and should not be considered a comprehensive diagnostic assessment. A qualified mental health professional would conduct a thorough evaluation to determine an accurate diagnosis.

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TRUE / FALSE.
"The authors argue that prejudice against overweight or obese
individuals is evidenced by the lack of legal protections extended
to those individuals on the basis of their weight.

Answers

The statement "The authors argue that prejudice against overweight or obese individuals is evidenced by the lack of legal protections extended to those individuals on the basis of their weight" is true because overweight or obese individuals are still subjected to discrimination, despite the fact that it is not legally recognized as a protected class in the United States.

They are also often denied access to certain jobs, housing, and healthcare due to their weight, which is evidence of prejudice against them. In addition, overweight or obese individuals are often stereotyped as lazy, unmotivated, and lacking in willpower, which further contributes to the discrimination they face.

The authors of the article are trying to highlight the fact that overweight or obese individuals face numerous challenges in their daily lives that are often overlooked. They argue that legal protections should be extended to these individuals to help combat prejudice and discrimination against them.

This could include protections against weight-based harassment, discrimination in the workplace, and access to healthcare services.

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Section II. Short Answer 4. Please explain the difference between an independent samples t-test and a one-way analysis of variance and a two-way analysis of variance. 5. Why would we run a two-way analysis of variance and what effects would we look at for interpretation (hint: there are 3 effects total)? 6. When we estimate to the population from sample data (as we do with inferential statistics), why are we so worried about Type I error? 7. What is the key difference between an independent and a dependent samples t-test?

Answers

An independent samples t-test is used to compare the means of two independent groups, while a one-way analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to compare means across three or more independent groups. A two-way ANOVA, on the other hand, examines the influence of two independent variables on a dependent variable and explores interaction effects.

An independent samples t-test is used when we want to compare the means of two distinct groups or conditions that are unrelated to each other. It assesses whether there is a significant difference between the means of the two groups based on the assumption of independent observations.

A one-way ANOVA is employed when we have three or more independent groups and wish to compare their means. It determines whether there is a significant difference in means among the groups. It calculates an F-statistic by examining the between-group variability relative to the within-group variability.

A two-way ANOVA is utilized when we want to investigate the influence of two independent variables on a single dependent variable.

It examines main effects, which indicate the individual effects of each independent variable on the dependent variable, as well as interaction effects, which indicate whether the combination of the independent variables produces a different effect on the dependent variable compared to what would be expected from their individual effects.

When running a two-way ANOVA, we are interested in exploring three effects: the main effect of the first independent variable, the main effect of the second independent variable, and the interaction effect between the two independent variables. These effects provide insights into the impact of each independent variable individually and whether their combination produces a synergistic or antagonistic effect.

In inferential statistics, we estimate population characteristics based on sample data. Type I error refers to the incorrect rejection of a true null hypothesis, which means concluding there is a significant effect when there is none.

We are concerned about Type I error because it leads to false positives and can result in incorrect conclusions or decisions. To minimize this error, researchers often set a significance level (alpha) and aim to gather sufficient evidence before rejecting the null hypothesis.

The key difference between an independent samples t-test and a dependent samples t-test lies in the nature of the data. In an independent samples t-test, the two groups being compared are unrelated, and the observations in one group are not dependent on the observations in the other group.

In contrast, a dependent samples t-test (also known as a paired samples t-test) is used when the observations in one group are related or paired with the observations in the other group. This could occur when measuring the same individuals or entities under different conditions or at different time points.

The dependent samples t-test assesses the differences between paired observations within each group to determine if there is a significant difference between the means.

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What elements do YOU think influenced the development of
culture and society in the early civilizations? Which do YOU think
is the most significant and why?

Answers

The development of culture and society in the early civilizations was influenced by various elements, including geography, climate, agriculture, trade, and technology. The most significant of these elements is geography.

Geography influenced the development of culture and society in the early civilizations by determining the available resources, climate, and terrain. For instance, the Mesopotamian civilization, located in the fertile valley between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers, developed an irrigation system that made it possible to grow crops in an otherwise dry and arid region. The civilization also developed the wheel, which facilitated transportation and trade.

Geography also determined the defense mechanisms employed by the civilization. The Himalayas and the Thar Desert, for instance, prevented invasions from the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent. The Nile River also acted as a natural defense system for Egypt. Other factors that influenced the development of culture and society in the early civilizations include trade and technology.

Trade facilitated the exchange of goods and services, which led to cultural diffusion and the spread of new ideas and innovations. Technology, on the other hand, facilitated the development of new tools and methods of production, leading to increased productivity and economic growth.

In conclusion, geography is the most significant factor that influenced the development of culture and society in the early civilizations. It determined the resources, climate, and terrain of the region and influenced the development of defense mechanisms and irrigation systems. It also facilitated the development of trade and transportation through the use of the wheel.

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When would you use MIRR as a capital budgeting method in the
sport industry?

Answers

MIRR (Modified Internal Rate of Return) is used in the sport industry as a capital budget method when evaluating investment projects with unconventional cash flow patterns or multiple internal rates of return.

It considers both the reinvestment rate and the financing rate.

In the sport industry, there are often investment projects with unique cash flow patterns, such as significant upfront costs followed by intermittent or irregular cash flows. MIRR takes into account the reinvestment rate, assuming that cash flows are reinvested at a specific rate, and the financing rate, which reflects the cost of capital or required rate of return.

By using MIRR, the sport industry can overcome the limitations of the traditional Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method, which assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the project's internal rate of return. This assumption may not be realistic in certain situations, especially when the reinvestment opportunities differ from the project's return rate.

MIRR provides a more accurate measure of the profitability of investment projects in the sport industry by considering the cost of capital for financing and the actual reinvestment rate for cash flows. It helps decision-makers compare and rank investment opportunities more effectively, enabling them to make informed choices about which projects to pursue.

Overall, MIRR is a valuable tool in the sport industry's capital budgeting process, particularly when dealing with projects that have unconventional cash flow patterns or multiple internal rates of return. It offers a more comprehensive evaluation of investment opportunities, leading to better-informed investment decisions.

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Every week in UNIV 1001, you will complete a Learning Journal assignment. In this class, your Learning Journals are composed of two parts - a reflection topic, and an APA exercise. Your reflection topic should be at least 300 words but no more than 500 words.
Reflection Topic: College Success
Write about what college success means to you. How will you define success, and what strategies will you use to achieve success? Be sure to be specific.
Do you have any concerns or worries about how you will manage your course assignments or expectations? Your journal entry will only be seen by you and your instructor, so feel free to share any questions and worries you have

Answers

College success is defined differently by individuals, and it involves achieving personal and academic goals.

College success is a subjective concept that varies from person to person. To define success, one may consider achieving academic goals, such as earning high grades, completing a degree, or gaining knowledge and skills in their field of interest. Additionally, personal goals, such as personal growth, networking, Reflective essays and extracurricular involvement, can contribute to overall college success.

Strategies for achieving success in college may involve setting specific and measurable goals, breaking them down into actionable steps, and tracking progress. Effective time management is crucial to balance academic and personal commitments, including creating schedules, prioritizing tasks, and avoiding procrastination. Seeking support from professors, advisors, and classmates can provide guidance and assistance when facing challenges.

Having concerns or worries about managing course assignments or expectations is common among college students. To address these concerns, it is important to communicate with instructors and seek clarification on assignments or expectations. Utilizing campus resources such as tutoring services, writing centers, or academic workshops can also help improve skills and manage workload effectively. Practicing effective time management techniques, such as setting deadlines and creating a study schedule, can reduce stress and enhance productivity.

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(10 pts) A 10-year averages (1981-91) for a groundwater inventory for the San Fernando Basin are as follows: Recharge from precipitation and other sources, 79.3×106 m³,recharge from injection wells 38×106 m³, groundwater inflow, 1.01×106 m³, groundwater pumping, 120.55×106 m³, groundwater outflow 0.521×106 m³, and base flow to stream, 3.8×106 m³. Perform a water balance for the groundwater component based on these 10-year averages.

Answers

The net change in groundwater storage in the San Fernando Basin over the 10-year period (1981-1991) is an increase of approximately 112.979×106 m³.

Based on the given data, the water balance for the groundwater component in the San Fernando Basin over the 10-year period (1981-1991) can be summarized as follows:

The total recharge into the groundwater system is the sum of recharge from precipitation and other sources (79.3×106 m³) and recharge from injection wells (38×106 m³), which equals 117.3×106 m³.

The total outflow from the groundwater system is the sum of groundwater outflow (0.521×106 m³) and base flow to the stream (3.8×106 m³), which equals 4.321×106 m³.

Therefore, the net change in groundwater storage can be calculated by subtracting the total outflow from the total recharge:

Net change in groundwater storage = Total recharge - Total outflow

Net change in groundwater storage = 117.3×106 m³ - 4.321×106 m³

Net change in groundwater storage = 112.979×106 m³

In conclusion, based on the 10-year averages, there was a net increase in groundwater storage in the San Fernando Basin over the given period, with a total increase of approximately 112.979×106 m³.

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write an editorial on why victim-survivor voices should or
should not be prioritized in law and policy reform.

Answers

Victim-survivor voices should be prioritized in law and policy reform as they are the ones who have experienced the effects of the system.

Victim-survivor have a deep understanding of the realities of what has occurred and can help guide reform in the right direction. Their stories help illustrate the complexities of the issue at hand, and their experiences should be a crucial factor in decision-making. Moreover, by prioritizing their voices, it shows that the legal system and the policymakers value their input and that their suffering is not in vain. It creates a more human-centered system that understands the needs of its people. It’s a system that is working with the people it serves, rather than one that merely works for them.

On the other hand, some people might argue that victim-survivor voices should not be prioritized in law and policy reform. They might argue that their stories are not representative of the general population, and their experiences could be manipulated by special interest groups.

However, this is where a fair and thorough process of gathering voices and feedback is essential. The stories of all victims and survivors should be heard, and their experiences should be considered to create a more just and equitable legal system and policy reform.

In conclusion, prioritizing victim-survivor voices in law and policy reform creates a more just and equitable system that understands the needs of its people. By valuing their input, the legal system and policymakers can create a more human-centered approach that addresses the complexities of the issues at hand. It’s a process that needs to be done with care, with the input of everyone who has been affected by the issue at hand.

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After connecting with people, how do you generally
proceed to "exploring" (using the CLEAR model)?

Answers

After establishing a connection with people, the next step in the CLEAR Model for exploring conversations involves delving deeper into their thoughts, feelings, and experiences.

This can be done by asking probing questions, actively listening to their responses, and exploring different perspectives or potential solutions.

Once a connection has been established, exploring conversations using the CLEAR Model entails diving deeper into the subject matter. This is achieved by asking probing questions that encourage individuals to reflect, share their opinions, and provide more detailed insights.

Active listening plays a crucial role in the exploration phase. It involves giving full attention to the speaker, using appropriate verbal and nonverbal cues to show interest, and demonstrating empathy and understanding. Actively listening to the responses allows for a deeper understanding of the person's perspective and fosters a more meaningful exchange of ideas.

Exploring conversations also involves exploring different perspectives or potential solutions. This may include encouraging individuals to consider alternative viewpoints, brainstorming ideas together, or discussing possible approaches to address challenges or achieve goals.

Overall, the exploration phase in the CLEAR Model involves a curious and open-minded approach, where individuals actively engage in conversation, delve deeper into the topic, and explore various aspects to gain a comprehensive understanding and generate new insights.

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Other Questions
John Airline, one of the largest airlines in terms of passenger numbers, has enjoyed fast growth since its establishment in 1985. It has 199 Boeing B-737, with 113 backorders. Assume that a new B-737 NG costs $80 million and generates after-tax cash inflows of $10 million for each of the next ten years.a. Find the NPV if the airline uses an 8 percent opportunity cost of capital.b. What is the IRR?c. What is the payback period?d. Write a paragraph summarizing your findings in terms of making a capital budgeting decision to either pursue or reject the project. A firm is considering three capacity alternatives: A, B, and C. Alternative A would have an annual fixed cost of $105000 and variable costs of $30 per unit. Alternative B would have annual fixed costs of $126000 and variable costs of $25 per unit. Alternative C would have fixed costs of $84000 and variable costs of $31 per unit. Revenue is expected to be $56 per unit. Compute all three Breakeven Points. What is the value of the lowest break-even quantity? A (No Commas) Compute the Profit for 12000 units for all three alternatives. What is the highest profit that could be made for an annual output of 12000 units? A) (Leave off Dollar Sign ... No Commas) For each alternative, compute the volume required to generate a profit of $60000. What is the lowest volume of output required to generate an annual profit of $60000? (No Commas) major issues of national action plan of tourism 1992 in India During the design phase of the canal, a stability check was required on loading case (c). Use the GEOSOLVE program WALLAP to examine loading case (c) to ensure that the safety factor on the theoretical passive earth pressure of the sheet piling is not less than 3.00. In so doing, you need to determine the most economic choice of pile length and depth of anchor to be installed during the construction phase an explanation of your choice is required. 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