What is the most commonly used temperature for growing bacteria quizlet?.

Answers

Answer 1

Most pathogenic bacteria thrive at temperatures between 41 and 135 degrees Fahrenheit.

Incubators are essential in clinical laboratories because temperature is a crucial physicochemical component that impacts the bacterial habitat and enzymes and thus have a great impact on the metabolic activity of bacteria. Temperatures between 35 and 37 degrees Celsius are ideal for human diseases to proliferate. In general, bacteria can grow more readily up to a certain point the higher the temperature. Both extremely high and very low temperatures block the enzyme reactions that are necessary for bacteria to live.

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What are some examples of chronological order?.

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Some examples of chronological order: Chronological, Sequential, and Consecutive Order.

Chronological order is listing, describing, or discussing when events happened as they relate to time. Basically, it is like looking at a timeline to view what occurred first and what happened after that.A chronological pattern of organization arranges information according to a progression of time, either forward or backward.

In a chronological sequence the author uses the order of events, or chronology, to inform readers about events or content. The events may be organised by time or date, by arranging events as a series of steps or by following a list-like structure. Chronological sequencing is commonly used in nonfiction texts.

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What are substitution mutations in DNA?.

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A substitution mutation is whilst one nucleotide is swapped out for another. these sorts of mutations are the least dangerous of all DNA mutations.

Substitution, as associated with genomics, is a kind of mutation in which one nucleotide is replaced via a distinct nucleotide. The time period can also discuss as the substitute of one amino acid in a protein with a distinct amino acid.

Substitution mutations are a form of mutation in which a single nucleotide is substituted with a one-of-a-kind nucleotide. Examples of (base-pair) substitutions: a purine is substituted with an exclusive purine (A → G) or a pyrimidine, for a different pyrimidine (C → T).it may occur either via outside agents or inner mismatches. Base substitutions are the most fundamental level of alteration, and they occur while one nucleotide is swapped for any other all through DNA replication. as instance, a thymine nucleotide is probably substituted for a guanine nucleotide at some stage in replication.

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Which dna fingerprinting technique examines the length variation of dna repeat sequences in human dna?.

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mtDNA (mitochondrial DNA) analysis examines the length variation of DNA repeat sequences in human DNA.

What is DNA fingerprinting?

DNA fingerprinting, also known as DNA typing, DNA profiling, gene fingerprinting, genotyping or identity testing, is a procedure in genetics for isolating and identifying variable elements within the base pair sequence of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid). The technique was developed in 1984 by British geneticist Alec Jeffries. He found that certain sequences of highly variable DNA (known as minisatellites) are repeated within genes that do not contribute to gene function. Jeffreys recognized that each individual has its own pattern of minisatellites (the only exception being multiple individuals from a single fertilized egg, such as identical twins).

Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) analysis is used by forensic scientists when collecting samples such as teeth, bone, and hair without follicles (roots) from crime scenes and disaster areas. mtDNA is also used when the amount of nuclear DNA is very low or severely degraded and a complete STR profile cannot be obtained.

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What 3 products are produced in cellular respiration?.

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Three merchandise are produced in cellular respiratory: power (or ATP), carbon dioxide, and water. the products of breathing or respiratory, come from the reactions of cellular breathing.

Cellular respiration converts oxygen and glucose into water and carbon dioxide. Water and carbon dioxide are by means of- products and ATP is a strength that is converted from the procedure.

Cellular breathing is the system by way of which organisms combine oxygen with meal molecules, diverting the chemical energy in those materials into existence-maintaining activities and discarding, waste merchandise, carbon dioxide, and water. for the duration of cell breathing, the reactants—glucose (sugar) and oxygen—integrate collectively to shape new merchandise: carbon dioxide molecules and water molecules. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is produced as the shape of strength that may be used for other mobile approaches.

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people with neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease; this is because of the genetic principle of:

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Genetic flaws (mutations) are passed down from a parent or develop spontaneously after conception are what lead to neurofibromatosis.

Depending on the kind of neurofibromatosis, particular genes like NF1 may be involved. NF1 is a gene that can be found on chromosome 17. This gene makes the neurofibromin protein, which aids in controlling cell growth. A family history of neurofibromatosis is the main risk factor for the condition. About half of those with NF1 and NF2 received the condition from a parent who had it. People with NF1 and NF2 who do not have affected relatives are more likely to have a novel gene mutation.

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what part of the respiratory system helps regulate the temperature of air before it reaches the lungs?

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Sinuses help regulate the temperature of the air before it reaches the lungs.

Above and below your eyes, in the bones of your head, are hollow spaces called Sinuses that are linked to your nose by tiny openings. The temperature and humidity of the air we breathe are controlled by the sinuses.

The maxillary sinuses are situated on either side of the nose.The frontal sinuses are found above the eyes, usually close to the forehead.The ethmoid sinuses are located close to the eyes, on either side of the nose's split.The sphenoid sinuses are located deep inside the skull, behind the eyes.

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A person eats a piece of food that is contaminated by bacteria. Which response will most quickly remove the bacteria from the body?.

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Vomiting would quickly remove the bacteria from the body if a person eats a piece of food that is contaminated by bacteria.

What effect does bacteria have on human body?

Bacteria are single-celled organisms that are living entities. They have shapes like rods, balls, or spirals under a microscope. A line of 1,000 of them could fit across the eraser of a pencil since they are so tiny. The majority of don't make you ill. Many kinds are beneficial. Some of them provide the body with essential vitamins, aid in food digestion, and eliminate disease-causing cells. Additionally, bacteria are employed to create nutritious foods like yoghurt and cheese.

But contagious microorganisms can give you a disease. Within your body, they multiply rapidly. Many emit toxins—a class of chemicals that can harm tissue and make you ill. Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and E. coli are a few types of bacteria that can lead to infections.

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a breeder crosses a true-breeding black cat with a true-breeding white cat. all of the kittens are white. assuming this is an autosomal trait that exhibits mendelian inheritance, what can the breeder conclude from this?

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A breeder can conclude that for color, White is dominant by getting all white offsprings of true breed white and black cat breeding.

The ability to express itself in both the homozygous and heterozygous conditions is what is known as a dominant characteristic. Only the homozygous recessive situation allows for the expression of the recessive characteristic.

When a white cat crosses a black cat, the cross will appear as follows:

The genome for pure-breed white cats is: WW

The genome for puree-breed black cats is: ww

Crossbreeding of both cats can get the following results:

           W        W

w          Ww     Ww

w           Ww     Ww

Here all offspring will be of Ww heterogenous trait where the color white is dominant and black is recessive.

Thus all the offspring will be white.

The complete question is:

A breeder crosses a true-breeding black cat with a true-breeding white cat. all of the kittens are white. assuming this is an autosomal trait that exhibits mendelian inheritance, what can the breeder conclude from this?

(A). For color, White is dominant

(B). For color, black is dominant

(C). The white kittens are homozygous

(D). The black parents are heterozygous

(E). None of the above

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for each pair of compounds, predict the one with a higher boiling point. cis-1,2-dichloroethene or cis-1,2-dibromoethene

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Dipole-dipole interactions determine what isomeric substances' boiling temperatures, and cis-isomers have a higher dipole moment (and are therefore more polar) than trans-isomers.

What number of isomers does dichloroethene possess?

The 1,2-dichloroethene molecule exists in both cis and trans isomers. The two forms have a high vapour pressure and vapour that is heavier than air, which are two crucial features (HSDB 1995).

What substances have the highest boiling points?

The relationship between a solution's boiling point and its ion production is direct. Because CaCl2 produces the most ions, it has the greatest boiling points. Chloroethane is a known carcinogen.

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during normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having 9 chromosomes will produce 2 daughter cells that have how many chromosomes?

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Diploid cells divide mitotically to form diploid cells. Therefore, if the parent cell has four chromosomes, each daughter cell will have four as well.

Which of the following cell cycle stages does not take place during mitosis?

The single option that does not take place during mitosis is crossing across, as explained. Genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes during crossing over, which takes place during prophase I of meiosis.

For 64 cells, how many generations of mitosis are needed?

The following is another way to put it: 1⟶2⟶4⟶8⟶16⟶32⟶64 . This indicates that after each round of mitosis, all cells within a generation create twice as many daughter cells. Therefore, following six generations of mitotic division cells create 64 daughter cells.

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What are the 2 main functions of textual aids?.

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The 2 fundamental capabilities of textual aids: Are visual aids that assist readers to better understand the texts they are.

Help readers beautify their studying as they study thru the cloth.

Textual Aids: are instructional devices, tools, or materials that provide guidance and facilitate information in texts. those are maximum of the time graphical outlines or images that offer well-known ideas. maximum useful organizer since it may be carried out to all situation areas.

There are many aspects to literary writing, and lots of methods to examine it, however, four primary categories are descriptive, narrative, expository, and argumentative. The time period text processing refers to the automation of reading digital textual content. This allows system learning fashions to get established statistics about the textual content to use for analysis, manipulation of the text, or to generate new textual content.

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What are the similarities and differences between a sperm cell and ciliated epithelial cell

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Answer:

Egg and sperm cells are sex cells and are referred to as gametes. Ciliated epithelial cells They have tiny hair-like projections called cilia that move in a wave-like motion. These cells are usually found in our breathing passages like our trachea and nose.

Egg and sperm are examples of gametes, which are sexual cells. ciliated epithelial cells They have cilia, which are tiny hair-like projections that move in waves. These cells are typically located in the trachea and nose, which are parts of our respiratory tracts.

What are gametes?

Gametes are defined as reproductive, cell with only one set of chromosomes, or cell with only half the genetic material needed to make a whole organism.  In humans, gametes are haploid cells with 23 chromosomes one of each chromosomal pair found in diploid cells and are hence haploid.

Motile cilia are found on the surface of ciliated epithelial cells lining the respiratory airways, the ventricles of the brain, and the oviduct as well as in single copies in sperm and specialized epithelial cells in the embryonic node.

Thus, egg and sperm are examples of gametes, which are sexual cells. ciliated epithelial cells They have cilia, which are tiny hair-like projections that move in waves. These cells are typically located in the trachea and nose, which are parts of our respiratory tracts.

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Which cranial nerve is in charge of the motor control of the muscles that move the tongue?.

Answers

The hypoglossal nerve allows tongue movement.

Which of the following makes a copy of DNA to serve as the pattern for genetic code and protein synthesis?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. RNA polymerase

Answers

The RNA that makes a copy of DNA to serve as the pattern for genetic code and protein synthesis is mRNA. Option C.

What is mRNA?

The mRNA is otherwise known as messenger ribonucleic acid. It is the mRNA that is directly synthesized from a DNA template through a process known as transcription.

During transcription, the gene to be expressed is transcribed into mRNA. The resulting mRNA is processed before being transported into the cytoplasm. It contains the triplet codes of the genetic codes, otherwise known as codons. The codons are 3 nucleotide bases that each code for an amino acid.

During translation, each codon on the mRNA is translated to its respective protein and individual amino acids are linked with peptide bonds. This is otherwise known as protein synthesis.

The mRNA binds to the ribosome in the cytoplasm and a tRNA carrying the anticodon for the start codon on the mRNA binds to the ribosome for the translation complex to be formed and form protein synthesis to begin.

In other words, the substance responsible for making copies of DNA to serve the pattern for genetic code and protein synthesis is the mRNA.

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\a joe exotic tiger has 38 chromosomes. how many chromosomes will be in a primary oocyte? how many will be in a secondary oocyte?

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An exotic tiger with 38 chromosomes will have 16 pairs of autosomal diploid chromosomes in the primary oocyte. While secondary oocytes make 16 single haploid chromosomes.

Primary and secondary oocytes are the results of processes needed to make mature female gametes. It is part of oogenesis.

One diploid oogonium cell to one diploid primary oocyte.Meiosis I: one diploid primary oocytes cells to two haploid secondary oocyte cells.Meiosis II: each of one haploid secondary oocyte cell multiplies into two haploid cells.

Oogenesis is a process from one single diploid oogonium into one ovum and 3 polar body cells.

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which of the following statements concerning racial factors for cardiovascular disease (cvd) risk are true? -high rates of CVD in a family may be related to genetics-high rates of CVD in a family may be related to lifestyle-a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age may signify a genetic link

Answers

the following statements concerning racial factors for cardiovascular disease CVD  risk are true :

high rates of CVD in a family may be related to genetics and high rates of CVD in a family may be related to lifestyle.

What is CVD?

The term "cardiovascular disease" (CVD) is used to refer generally to conditions that affect the heart or blood vessels. Reduced blood flow to the body, brain, or heart can be brought on by: fatty deposits accumulate inside an artery, causing a blood clot (thrombosis), which causes the artery to harden and narrow (atherosclerosis)

Future research is required to better understand the mechanisms via which perceived CVD risk or FH of CVD can influence changes in health-related behavior. It seems that in high-risk populations, FH and perceived personal risk for CVD are both required but insufficient factors to alter health-related behavior. Future research should examine interventions that enable those with an FH of CVD attach more personal risk to themselves for acquiring the disease while offering strategies for lifestyle control to reduce that risk.

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Which bacteria can grow at high temperatures?.

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Thermophiles can survive at high temperatures, whereas other bacteria or archaea would be damaged and sometimes killed if exposed to the same temperatures. The enzymes in thermophiles function at high temperatures.

Some bacteria thrive in extreme heat or cold, while others can survive under highly acidic or extremely salty conditions. Most bacteria that cause disease grow fastest in the temperature range between 41 and 135 degrees F, which is known as THE DANGER ZONE.

one key adaptation of animals was the evolution of a(n) blank, a fluid-filled gap between the outer wall of the body and the outer wall of the digestive system.target 1 of 6 2. all animals except sponges have blank, groups of cells that work together to perform a specific function.

Answers

The evolution of a body cavity, a space filled with fluid between the outer walls of the body and the digestive system, was a crucial adaptation for animals.

Describe a body cavity.

An internal body cavity is a space filled with fluid that houses and safeguards internal organs. Membranes and other structures divide the human body's cavities. The dorsal cavity and ventral cavity of the human body are its two biggest cavities. There are smaller body cavities that divide these two body cavities.

The two primary body cavities in a human are. The first cavity, known as the ventral cavity, is a sizable space that sits ventrally to the spine and houses all of your internal organs, from your pelvis to your throat. The mesoderm that forms in this cavity during human embryogenesis is the true coelom.

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which energy system is primarily responsible for resynthesizing atp during submaximal exercise lasting longer than three minutes?

Answers

For longer than three minutes of submaximal exercise, the energy system is primarily responsible for producing ATP is phosphorylation through oxidation.

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

oxidative phosphorylation is the name given to the final stage of cellular respiration. It occurs in the mitochondria and is associated with the electron transport chain procedure. The electrons are transferred from one link in the transport chain to the next by a series of redox reactions. A chemical reaction known as an energetic process will cause a positive energy flow from the system to the environment. The term "exergonic" also refers to chemical processes that happen on their own. A series of enzymes uses very little energy to work to transfer the electrons from the NADH to the oxygen.

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signs that asthma is probably getting worse include which of the following? (select all that apply.)

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Having an allergic disease, having a parent with asthma, having experienced a severe respiratory infection as a child, having a parent with asthma, and being exposed to specific chemical irritants or industrial dusts at work are the most prevalent risk factors for getting asthma.

Which of the following factors causes asthmatic wheezing?

Exposure to airborne allergens, such as pollen, mold, animals, or household dust, can cause wheezing in people with asthma. Additionally, viral diseases can exacerbate asthma symptoms. Inflammation of the bronchial tube lining is referred to as bronchitis.

What action is typically regarded as being the most crucial in preventing allergic reactions and minimizing symptoms?

Your doctor will give you advice on how to identify and avoid allergy triggers. Usually, taking this step is the most important one if you want to avoid adverse reactions.

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stretch receptors and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to which location in the brain?

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stretch receptors and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to  medulla.

Afferents connect chest wall receptors to the medulla. Inhalation istopped as a result of vagal afferents being activated by pulmonary stretch receptors. These receptors, which are more sensitive and detect tiny changes in arterial pCO 2, are found in the brainstem's medulla oblongata. Our respiratory system is constantly controlled by these chemoreceptors, which constantly start negative feedback loops: Ventilation increases in response to an increase in pCO2.Chemoreceptors in the periphery. These receptors, which are found in both the carotid body and the aortic body, notice significant pO 2 changes as the arterial blood supply departs from the heart.

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a leg nerve was transected in two mice. a graft was placed to bridge the distance between the two nerve segments in each mouse (arrows). after two weeks, the nerves were examined for regrowth. which statement best explains the difference between the two nerves?

Answers

The mouse on the right was forced to exercise over the course of the two weeks while the mouse on the left did not.

What types of nerves regulate the legs?

The femoral nerve, one of two main nerves that supply the lower limbs with motor (movement) and sensory functions. The sciatic nerve serves the back of the leg, while the femoral nerve is responsible for the front of the leg.

Anywhere along the nerve's course can experience sciatica pain. It is particularly likely to travel from the low back to the buttock, the back of the thigh, and the calf. The discomfort can be anything from a dull ache to a sharp, burning pain. It can occasionally feel like a jolt or electric shock.

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Which lane contains the dna fragments produced by digestion of the plasmid with enzyme x only?.

Answers

Lane K contains the DNA fragments produced by digestion of the plasmid with enzyme x only.

What is plasmid ?Plasmids are small extrachromosomal DNA molecules within cells that are physically separated from the chromosomal DNA and capable of independent replication.They are usually found as small circular double-stranded DNA molecules in bacteria. However, plasmids can be present in archaea and eukaryotes.  Plasmids are small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that are  distinct from the chromosomal DNA of cells. Genes contained in plasmids often provide bacteria with genetic advantages, such as antibiotic resistance. Plasmids are small circular molecules of DNA  found in bacteria and  other microscopic organisms. Plasmids are physically separated from the chromosomal DNA and replicate independently.

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lateral curvature of the spinal column g. bat-shaped cranial bone behind the eyes r. large process below the neck of the femur s. end of a long bone l. flexible connective tissue at joints j. bone break at the wrist o. round process on both sides of ankle b. forms the back and base of the skull t. poor development of bone n. pertaining to the smaller lower leg bone d. hip socket c. thin, delicate cranial bone; supports the nasal cavity - formation of bone marrow - malignant bone tumor f. upper part of the hip bone h. forward vertebral subluxation i. bone is splintered or crushed q. heel bone m. elbow bone e. clubfoot a. osteogenic sarcoma b. occipital bone c. ethmoid bone d. acetabulum e. talipes f. ischium g. sphenoid bone h. spondylolisthesis i. comminuted fracture j. colles fracture k. myelopoiesis l. cartilage m. olecranon n. peroneal o. malleolus p. scoliosis q. calcaneus r. trochanter s. epiphysis t. osteodystrophy

Answers

We relate the terms with their correct meanings:

Lateral curvature of the spinal column. Correct answer: Scoliosis (N).Bat Shaped cranial bone behind the eyes. Correct answer: Sphenoid Bone (C).Large process below the neck of the femur. Correct answer: Trochanter (B).End of the long bone. Correct answer: Epiphysis (O).Flexible connective tissue at joints. Correct answer: Cartilage (J).Bone break at wrist. Correct answer: Colles Fracture (S).Round process around the ankle. Correct answer: malieolus (M).Forms the back and base of the bone. Correct answer: Occipital Bone (D).Poor development of the bone. Correct answer: Osteodystrophy (F).Pertaining to the smaller lower leg bone. Correct answer: Peroneal (G).Hip socket, Correct answer: acetabullum (L)Thin, delicate cranial bone; supports the nasal. Correct answer: ethmoid bone (A).formation of bone marrow. Correct answer: myelopoyesis (E).Malignant bone tumor. Correct answer: osteogenic sarcoma (R).Upper part of the hip bone. Correct answer: ischium (T).Forward vertebral subluxation. Correct answer: spondyiolisthesis (H).Bone is splintered of crushed. Correct answer: comminuted fracture (I).Heel bone. Correct answer: calcaneus (Q).Elbow bone. Correct answer: olecranon (K).Clubfoot. Correct answer: talipes (P).

What are anatomical terminologies?

Anatomical terminologies are the names of the various parts of the body. These names are used to describe the location, function, and structure of the body parts.

Anatomical terminologies are important in medicine, as they provide a common language for doctors and other medical professionals to communicate with each other. Without these terms, it would be very difficult for medical professionals to communicate effectively with one another.

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The bicoid gene product is directly responsible for _____ in a developing drosophila embryo.

Answers

The bicoid gene product is directly responsible for the establishment of the anterior-posterior axis in a developing drosophila embryo. Correct answer: Letter D.

This is because the bicoid gene product is secreted from the anterior pole of the embryo and forms a concentration gradient along the anterior-posterior axis. This gradient determines where different body parts will form by controlling the expression of specific genes in different regions of the embryo.

What is the bicoid gene product?

The bicoid gene product is a transcription factor that regulates the expression of other genes involved in establishing the body plan of the developing Drosophila embryo.

The bicoid gene product is directly responsible for _____ in a developing Drosophila embryo.

A) the establishment of the right-left axis

B) vulval development

C) flower development

D) the establishment of the anterior-posterior axis

E) apoptosis

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in the presence of adh, what happened to the urine concentration as the interstitial gradient concentration was increased?

Answers

The urine volume will decrease and the concentration will increase.

The medullary collecting ducts open up to water and solute readily when ADH is present. Because of this, the fluid entering the ducts (on its way to the renal pelvis and subsequent elimination) takes on the concentration of the medulla's interstitial fluid, resulting in concentrated urine. The fluid in the lumen, from which some solute has been removed, remains less concentrated than plasma, i.e. the urine is dilute, whereas in the absence of ADH, the collecting ducts are impermeable to solute and water.

Hence, urine concentration is decided by presence of ADH and interstitial gradient.

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Restriction enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of dna called.

Answers

Restriction enzymes recognize and cut a specific sequence of DNA. Thus the correct answer is option (B).

Bacteria manufacture special proteins called restriction enzymes that cut DNA at specific locations. The restriction enzymes on live bacteria defend them from bacteriophages. As soon as the bacteriophage is identified, its DNA is cleaved at its restriction points. Restriction enzymes are crucial in genetic engineering. They are useful in laboratories and can be identified from bacteria. The recognition sequences, which are short and distinct nucleotide sequences, are recognized by restriction enzymes in DNA. When a DNA sequence is recognized, the restriction enzyme hydrolyzes the bond between neighboring nucleotides and cleaves the DNA molecule. The bacteria prevents the degradation of its own DNA sequences by adding the methyl group at the adenine or cytosine bases within the recognition sequence with the help of the enzyme methylases.

The complete question is:

What is the name of the class of enzymes that recognizes and cuts a specific sequence of DNA?

a) helicases

b) restriction enzymes

c) primases

d) DNA polymerases

e) topoisomerases

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What text structure gives readers a chronological of events or a list of steps in a procedure?.

Answers

Order/Sequence is the text structure gives readers a chronological of events or a list of steps in a procedure.

Readers can view a timeline of events or a list of steps in a method thanks to this text structure. An example of this would be the events that led up to the war in a novel on the American revolution. The steps involved in gathering blue crabs might be described in another book.

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What is the main function of interest groups?.

Answers

A group of people who get together with similar interests to influence government (PETA)

1) Encourage public affairs interest

2) represent their members based on similar values rather than geographic proximity;

3) offer government agencies specialised knowledge.

4) serve as "vehicles" for political engagement.

5) Offer more checks and balances

6) compete against one another in politics (i.e., Environment Groups vs. Oil Companies)

7) the environment interest groups, which are frequently the first organisations to publicise a problem and work to influence the media, the public, and ultimately regulators.

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What are the 5 steps of AI?.

Answers

The 5 steps for the AI process are as follows: (1) Problem Scoping (2) Data Acquisition (3) Data Exploration (4) Modelling and (5) Evaluation.

Data acquisition consists of sensors that perform the function of converting physical parameters into electrical signals. It is the process of sampling or measuring real-world phenomena and converting them into digital form so that they can be manipulated by a computer.

Modelling is the development and shaping of machine learning programs or algorithms that make logical decisions, generally made by human brains. This algorithm contains a set of data trained to recognize certain kinds of fixed patterns.

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This question hasn't been solved yetAsk an expert3. A keypad needs to be interfaced with a computer. The keypad has a 4-bit output K representing the encoding of the key that was pressed and a single-bit output E that changes from 0 to 1 when a key is pressed. The computer has a corresponding 4-bit input CK and single-bit input CE. However, sometimes the computer is busy with other tasks and takes some time to receive the key, so it has an output Crec that it sets to 1 for one clock cycle when the key value has been received. The system diagram below shows a system S between the keyboard and computer that can buffer up to 32 key values while the computer is busy.Fill in the blanks in HLSMs for each processor. How do you gather evidence in an essay?. What caused World War I to begin using the information from the lesson and the readings respond to this question in one to two paragraphs?. mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the f1 generation reappeared in the f2 generation by proposing that (fill in the blank) 4. review the third capture file (project part ii-b) and determine what is happening with the ppp traffic that you are investigating in this capture. what else is involved? a. research one of the protocols relating to ppp and describe it here. d. describe the traffic: what packets are involved and what is happening? (include source, destination, time of capture) e. take a screenshot of the actual packets within the capture file that you observed this behavior. the amount of energy found in the snail in terrarium 1 was determined to be 358 kilocalories. explain why the number of kilocalories in the plant matter would be estimated to be 3,500 kilocalories. What happens to the force between two objects if the distance is halved?. What is the meaning of Frederick Douglass 4th of July speech?. business data goes through a cycle that includes data collection, data , data correction, data processing, data storage, and documentation production. What is the kinetic energy of a 1000 kg car traveling at 30 m s?. Witch hazel solution, an astringent for skin,contains 14% ethyl alcohol, CH5OH, by volume.How many mL of ethyl alcohol are contained in a16 fluid ounce bottle of witch hazel? What is Hamlet's emotional state in Act 1?. which of the following is not true about the implications for cost and revenue and market segmentation? How do political parties influence public policy quizlet?. match the type of alliance (on the left) with its definition (on the right). non-equity alliance non-equity alliance drop zone empty. equity alliance equity alliance drop zone empty. joint venture FILL IN THE BLANK. your buyer client is following your advice and has obtained title insurance. the policy is from __ and shows the legal description of the property and the standard items it covers, such as encumbrances of record. What is one enduring issue on Hellensitic age? How does the enduring issue you selected demonstrate the importance and impact of the Hellenistic Age throughout history? A retaurant chef ha 3/4L of trawberry yrup. He ue 1/40L in each deert he i making. How many deert can he make? according to the graph, suvs use more total energy compared to light rail. according to the graph, suvs use more total energy compared to light rail. 1.5 times 2.5 times 3 times 4 times What themes are linked to the theme of revenge in Hamlet?.