What is the purpose of a chronological?.

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Answer 1

While a person's biological age is determined by epigenetic changes and DNA methylation, which indicate how capable and functional she is as well as if she has illnesses associated with aging, a person's chronological age relates to the actual period of time they have been alive.

Developmental study searches for variations to time  or changes in behavior that are connected to age. It is possible to approximately ensure the equality of elements like physical experience, social contact, learning, and acculturation by using chronological age with time constraint.

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Related Questions

Which one of the following reasons is not typically why athletes strive for lower body weight and lower body fat?.

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To improve appearance is the the following reasons is basically not typically why the athletes strive for the lower body weight and the lower body fat

Body fat Typically, male athletes will have between 6-13% body fat, and female athletes will have 14-20% body fat. In this post, discover how to calculate body fat percentage as well as the typical body fat percentages of different athletes. Men and women need different amounts of fat. For a man, 2–5% fat is essential, 2–24% fat is considered healthy, and more than 25% classifies as obesity. For a woman, 10–13% fat is essential, 10–31% fat is healthy, and more than 32% classifies as obesity.  The reduction of non-essential body fat contributes to the development of muscle and cardiorespiratory endurance, speed and agility. Added body weight (in the form of non-essential fat) increases the athlete's resistance to movement, and the athlete increases muscle contractile force per given workload.

Question seems incomplete the complete question is :

Which one of the following are the reasons which is not typically why the athletes strive for the lower body weight and the lower body fat?

A. To feel better

B. To improve appearance

C. To enhance performance

D. To qualify in a lower weight category

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Which of the following do you expect if an individual is heterozygous for the sickle-cell trait? see conceptA. they will not develop sickle-cell diseaseB. they will show some symptoms of the disease because the allele that causes sickle-cell disease is not really recessiveC. they will be more apt to acquire a serious case of malariaD. they will have full-blown sickle-cell disease because the allele is dominantE. none of the listed choices are correct

Answers

An individual who is heterozygous for the sickle-cell trait will display some disease symptoms (Option-b). It is a widespread illness.

The sickle cell trait is what?

Red blood cells with sickle cell disease are distorted, losing their characteristic circular shape.

Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition brought on by mutations that can be passed down through the generations.

Because sickle cell disease is a codominant condition, heterozygous people who have both normal and defective alleles express it.

Therefore, compared to normal homozygotes, heterozygotes are more resistant to the incapacitating effects of malaria. In many sickle-cell carriers, this heterozygote advantage outweighs the severe reproductive disadvantage of the more uncommon sickle-cell homozygotes.

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based on the morphology of the hand phalanx, orrorin tugenensis group of answer choices spent most of its time in trees. walked on all fours like a chimpanzee. regularly used tools. spent some time in trees.

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Based on the morphology of the hand phalanx, orrorin tugenensis spent some time in trees.

What do you know about orrorin tugenensis?

Orrorin tugenensis is the one of the oldest early humans on our family tree. Individuals of this species were approximately the size of a chimpanzee and had small teeth with thick enamel, similar to modern humans. The most important fossil of this species is an upper femur, showing evidence of bone buildup typical of a biped - so Orrorin tugenensis individuals climbed trees but also probably walked upright with two legs on the ground.

From Orrorin's low, rounded molars and small canine teeth, paleoanthropologists can infer that this species ate mainly a plant-based diet. This probably included leaves, fruit, seeds, roots, nuts, and insects.

So far, Orrorin tugenensis is the only species in the genus Orrorin.

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a bacterial cell that divides and produces two daughter cells gives its genetic material to both daughter cells. this is an example of horizontal gene transfer.

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A bacterial cell that divides and produces two daughter cells and gives its genetic material to both daughter cells is an example vertical gene transfer.

What is vertical gene transfer?

The inheritance of the parental gene to the progeny is referred to as vertical gene transfer. Prokaryotes, including bacteria and archaea, reproduce asexually by cell division or budding to produce identical progeny/daughter cells. The offspring cells' chromosomes are identical to those of the parent cells.

What is of horizontal gene transfer?

The movement of genetic material between unicellular and multicellular organisms without using DNA transmission from parent to offspring is known as horizontal gene transfer often referred to as lateral gene transfer. HGT has played a significant role in the evolution of numerous creatures.

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which domain of the a-b toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell? which domain of the a-b toxin binds to cell surface receptors on the host cell? a domain a-b toxins do not bind to cell surfaces. b domain both the a and b domains have the ability to bind to cell surface receptors.

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Cell surface receptors can be bound by both the A and B domains (option -b).

Which component of the AB toxin binds to the host cell's cell surface receptors?

The binding/translocation domain (B-domain) of AB-toxins, in addition to the enzyme domain (A-domain), interacts specifically with a cell-surface receptor and aids in the toxin's internalization into cellular transport vesicles like endosomes.

Transferring plasmids from one bacterium to another causes lysogenic conversion. Because of the viral infection, lysogenic bacteria are inherently less virulent than non-lysogenic bacteria. The A component of A-B exotoxins binds to the host cell receptor to allow the B component to enter the cell.

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Does proliferation mean growth?.

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Cell proliferation is the process that leads to an increase in cell number and is defined by the balance between cell division and cell death or cell loss through differentiation. Cell growth is synonymous in biology when it comes to cell division.

How is cell proliferation measured?

In addition to total metabolic activity, cell proliferation can be measured by examining one or more specific markers within the cell. A well-known example is the BrdU incorporation assay. In this assay, cells are treated with BrdU, a thymidine analogue that is incorporated into DNA during cell proliferation.

What does proliferation mean?

Proliferation is the rapid multiplication of parts or an increase in the number of something. Nuclear proliferation is the rapid increase in nuclear weapons. Biological proliferation often leads to overpopulation problems and ecological imbalances.

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Why does fluid leave capillaries at their arteriolar end and enter at the venular end?.

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Because of the hydrostatic pressure of the blood, fluid is forced out of the arteriolar ends of the capillaries and into the interstitial spaces of the tissues. Water then returns to the venular ends of the capillaries through the process of osmosis.

What are capillaries?

Capillaries are a type of blood vessel that are very thin and can be found all over your body. They deliver blood as well as nutrients and oxygen to the cells that are found in your organs and other body systems. Your capillaries are the blood vessels in your circulatory system that are the tiniest.

Because of the hydrostatic pressure of the blood, fluid is forced out of the arteriolar ends of the capillaries and into the interstitial spaces of the tissues. Water then returns to the venular ends of the capillaries through the process of osmosis.

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Cystic fibrosis is a recessive disease that causes damage to the digestive system, lungs, and other organs of the body. cystic fibrosis is the result of deletion mutations that are inherited from both parents. which of the sample chromosomes shows an example of a deletion mutation?

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Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition marked by the accumulation of thick, sticky mucus, which can harm numerous internal organs. The respiratory system's gradual deterioration and persistent digestive system issues are the disorder's most typical indications and symptoms. Among those who are afflicted, the disorder's characteristics and severity vary.

The linings of the digestive, reproductive, and other organs and tissues are lubricated and protected by mucus, a slick fluid. The body creates mucus that is excessively thick and sticky in cystic fibrosis patients. This unusual mucus has the potential to obstruct the airways, which can cause serious breathing difficulties and bacterial infections in the lungs. Chronic coughing, wheezing, and inflammation are all symptoms of these illnesses.

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Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a _________ mutation would be _________.

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Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, mutation would be dominant if the loss of function happens.

what is mutation?

Changing an organism's DNA sequence is known as a mutation. An infection with a virus, exposure to mutagens, or mistakes in DNA replication during cell division can all cause mutations.

If the loss-of-function allele is present, the wild type allele might not make up for it. In those circumstances, the heterozygote will have a phenotype identical to that of the loss-of-function mutant, and the mutant allele will take on a dominant role.

Let's say that the normal phenotype of a gene requires roughly 100% of the normal amount of expression. This condition allowed one to predict that a loss of function mutation would predominate.

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what term applies to a microbe that can synthesize all of its cellular constituents from a simple carbon source and inorganic salts?

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Microbes that can synthesis all of their cellular components from a straightforward carbon source & inorganic salts are known as autotrophs.

What are autotrophs and how do they synthesize food?

An organism that uses carbon from simple things like carbon dioxide and energy from light or inorganic chemical processes to make complex organic compounds (such carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins) is known as an autotroph.

An organism that can produce its own food from simple organic materials, such as most plants and some microorganisms, requires only minerals as nutrients for growth and uses carbonate or carbon dioxide as a carbon source and simple inorganic nitrogen as a source of nitrogen. The energy needed for this process is obtained from photosynthesis.

Types of autotrophs are-

1. Photoautotrophs 2. Chemoautotrophs

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What are the 5 steps of translation in order?.

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In the cytoplasmic "pool" of amino acids, tRNAs bind to free amino acids.The ribosome receives the particular amino acid carried by tRNA.

Based on complementary pairing of a triplet code (anticodon) with a triplet code (codon) of the mRNA, the tRNA "delivers" its amino acid in translation phase.

An enzyme creates a peptide link by "hooking" the final amino acid in the chain to the one before it. Each tRNA carries its associated amino acid into the protein chain and adds it to the translation phase growing chain.

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what role do the numerous bacterial species in the oral biofilm play in the development of gingivitis?

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They stimulate the infiltration of white blood cells.

What is drug resistance?1. When microbes begin to tolerate an antimicrobial agent at a level which would normally be inhibitory2. when microbes synthesize a compound that combines with a drug3. when a host cannot tolerate the side effects of a particular drug

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Drug resistance is defined as when microbes begin to tolerate an antimicrobial agent at a level which would normally be inhibitory.

What is drug resistance? Drug resistance is the decline in a medication's ability to effectively treat a condition or disease, such as an infection or cancer. When referring to resistance that viruses or malignancies have "acquired," that is, when resistance has evolved, the word is utilized.Drug-resistant infections are mostly brought on by the improper use and overuse of antibiotics. The proliferation of bacteria, some of which may be resistant to antibiotic therapy, is encouraged by a lack of clean water, proper sanitation, and effective infection prevention and control.

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why would a dialysis unit (artificial kidney) use isotonic concentrations of nacl , kcl , nahco3 , and glucose in the dialysate?

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The dialysis contains isotonic amounts of sodium chloride, potassium chloride, sodium bicarbonate, and glucose to keep the blood's concentrations of these different ions and glucose at normal levels when waste products are eliminated.

The peritoneal dialysis is purposefully made hyper-osmolar relative to plasma in order to establish an osmotic gradient that favours net water transport into the peritoneal cavity, which is necessary to meet the ultrafiltration requirements of patients receiving peritoneal dialysis. Glucose acts as an osmotic agent in commercially available peritoneal dialysates to improve ultrafiltration. Dextrose is available in concentrations ranging from 1.5% to 4.25%. Water causes the dialysate's theosmolality to decrease over time.

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What five things are true of all minerals?.

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Answer:

Solid - All minerals will be solids at normal temperatures on Earth.

Naturally occurring - Minerals occur in nature. Solids that are made in a chemistry lab don't count as minerals.

Inorganic - Minerals don't come from plants, animals, or other living organisms.

Fixed chemical structure - Specific minerals will always have the same chemical formula. They will have the same combination of elements.

Crystalline structure.

if diploid cells in cats (felis catus) typically contain 76 total chromosomes, how many total chromosomes will a cell contain after completion of both meiosis i and ii?

Answers

After Meiosis I and II, the cat will have 38 chromosomes.

A cat has 38 pairs of chromosomes, or 38 X 2 = 76 chromosomes. In the process of meiosis I, the two daughter cells of the cat will have 38 chromosomes as at the end of this process, each cell will have half the number of chromosomes. The chromosomes in the diploid cell resegregate to form haploid cells. Here, crossing over or recombination of genetic material occurs.

During meiosis II, the sister chromatids separate to form two different cells, forming four haploid cells. Here the dividing cell has only one set of homologous chromosome. No DNA replication occurs in this process. Thus, there are 38 chromosomes at the end of this process.

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The measurement of ________ compares the density of urine to the density of water.

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The measurement of specific gravity compares the density of urine to the density of water.

What exactly is specific gravity?

Relative density, also known as specific gravity, is the ratio of a substance's density (mass per unit volume) to the density of a given reference material.

Specific gravity is almost always measured in relation to water at its densest (at 4 °C or 39.2 °F); for gases, the reference is room temperature air (20 °C or 68 °F). In scientific circles, the term "relative density" (often abbreviated r.d. or RD) is often preferred, whereas the term "specific gravity" is frowned upon.

If the relative density of a substance is less than one, it is less dense than the reference; if it is greater than one, it is denser than the reference. The densities are equal if the relative density is exactly one; that is, equal volumes of the two substances have the same mass.

If water is used as the reference material, then any substance with a relative density (or specific gravity) less than one will float in it. An ice cube, for example, with a relative density of about 0.91 will float. A substance that has a relative density greater than one sinks.

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The non-leukocyte tissue cells known as ________ produce leukotrienes and prostaglandinsin response to allergen binding. A) neutrophilsB) basophilsC) monocytesD) lymphocytesE) mast cells

Answers

The answer is the E. Mast cells

Leukocytes or white blood cells are part of the immune system which functions to protect itself from infection or disease. White blood cells are produced from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow.

Mast cells are a type of white blood cell. Mast cells are formed in the bone marrow. These cells then spread throughout the body by way of the blood to the appropriate tissues and out of the blood vessels. Mast cells will react when a foreign object enters the body as part of the immune system. Mast cells will produce leukotriene and prostaglandinsin responses to allergen binding.

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What is the relationship between genetics and variation?.

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Natural selection and biological evolution are processes that depend on genetic variation. Natural selection does not take place, but genetic variations that develop in a population do.

DNA mutation, gene flow (the movement of genes from one population to another), and sexual reproduction are the main causes of genetic variation. Because environments are unstable, populations with genetic diversity will be better able to adapt to shifting conditions than populations without genetic diversity.Natural selection and biological evolution are processes that depend on genetic variety. Natural selection does not take place, but genetic variants that develop in a population do. Genetic variations in a population interact with the environment to produce natural selection. Which genetic variations are more advantageous or better adapted for survival depends on the environment. More advantageous traits are transmitted to the population as a whole as organisms with these environmentally selected genes live and reproduce.

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The hypothesis would not have been supported by the data if traits independently assorted in approximately a 9:3:3:1 ratio. The traits for white fur and red eyes were always inherited together. All the f1 offspring had the same phenotype.

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The traits for white Fur and red eyes were always inherited together - The traits for white fur and red eyes were always inherited together. All the f1 offspring had the same phenotype.

According to the law of independent assortment, inheritance of one trait has no bearing on inheritance of another. In other words, genes are inherited separately from one another.

What is the meaning of Phenotype ?

The term "phenotype" describes a person's observable characteristics, such as height, eye color, and blood type. Both a person's genomic make-up (genotype) and environmental circumstances affect their phenotype.

Examples of Phenotypes ;

eye hue.Hair hue.Height.Your voice's tone.certain illnesses.a bird's beak's size.Tail of a fox is how long.color of a cat's stripes.

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Answer:

B

Explanation:

The nursing instructor asks the student to describe fetal circulation, specifically the ductus venosus. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the ductus venosus?
1.
"It connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta."
2.
"It is an opening between the right and left atria."
3.
"It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava."
4.
"It connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava."
"It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava."
The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale is a temporary opening between the right and left atria. The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

Answers

The statement that indicates an understanding of the ductus venosus is: (3) It connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava.

Ductus venosus is a shunt-like system that facilitates the oxygenated blood in the umbilical vein to bypass the liver. This is essential for normal fetal circulation. Hence ductus venosus forms a very essential part of the fetal circulatory system.

Umbilical vein is the vein of the fetus present during pregnancy that transports oxygenated blood from the placenta into the growing fetus. Within a week after birth this umbilical vein is replaced by a fibrous cord called the round ligament of the liver.

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describe the difference between high soil water potential and low soil water potential. which is better for a thirsty plant root?

Answers

High soil water potential is better for thirsty plant roots.  

What is the difference between between high soil water potential and low soil water?

high soil water potential have higher concentration of water molecule  where as low soil potential have low concentration of water molecule.

soil water potential is the sum of four different components: gravitational potential+ The matric potential+ the pressure potential=the osmotic potential .The matric potential is the most significant component as far as soil is concerned because it relates to the water that is adhering to soil surfaces. Water potential of root cells is higher than water potential of soil.

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which statements are examples of cell signaling? carbon dioxide diffuses across the cell membrane into the blood plasma. after an injury, plate

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Soil bacteria assemble and develop fruiting bodies when food is in short supply. After an injury, platelets create growth factors that encourage the division of adjacent cells.

Multicellular organisms are made up of cells that transmit, receive, and react to a range of signals.

Specific protein signal molecules outside the cell are bound by specialized cell surface proteins.

The phospholipids in the cell membrane allow protein signal molecules from outside the cell to diffuse within. A change in membrane proteins caused by signal molecules activates other proteins in the cell. A cell changes its structure, activity, or behavior in response to the message sent by signal molecules.

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Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks. This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are
phasic receptors and fast adapting

Answers

This is due to the phasic receptors, quickly adjusting touch receptors that surround your ankle.

What are the sensory receptors that keep track of joint position?

Muscles, tendons, joint ligaments, and joint capsules all include proprioceptors. For bodily proprioception, there are no specialized sensory receptor cells. While exquisite touch ascends via the posterior column pathway, rough touch ascends via the anterior spinothalamic pathway.

What kind of receptor responds to pressure, strain, and vibration?

Because their plasma membranes physically deform, mechanoreceptors can detect stimuli. They have mechanically gated ion channels, and pressure, contact, stretching, and sound cause the gates to open or close.

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both the pcr and the dna sequencing reactions were performed in a thermocycler machine. how did these two kinds of reactions differ?

Answers

The difference between PCR and DNA sequencing were performed in a thermocycler machine is the main function of the process. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) amplifies oligonucleotides by adding nucleotides. Meanwhile, DNA sequencing elongates structures of the DNA. Both can be done in the same vial. We just need the ssDNA template added.

PCR uses a single oligonucleotide to multiply the same DNA strands. Using a thermocycler machine, there is a couple of series needed in a particular order:

Denaturing: separate oligonucleotide into two strands of DNA.

Annealing: nucleotides were added to each of the DNA strands.

Synthesizing: using Taq DNA polymerase, each of the DNA strands was gathered.

Repeat the cycle 20 - 40 times.

DNA sequencing is a process of elongating one strand of DNA primer using a DNA template. Nucleotides were needed in this process.

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specificity of an antibody is due to the specificity of an antibody is due to the variable portions of the h and l chains. the constant portions of the h and l chains. the l chains. the h chains. its valence.

Answers

specificity of an antibody is due to the variable portions of the h and l chains.

Proteins called antibodies serve as your body's defense against foreign substances. Your immune system creates antibody, which attach to these foreign molecules and transport them out of your body. Immunoglobulin is a different term for antibody. Two heavy chains (green) and two light chains (yellow) are linked by disulfide bonds to form an immunoglobulin molecule. Each heavy chain is (more...) Antibodies include two different kinds of light chains, known as lambda and kappa. There are either chains or chains in a certain immunoglobulin, never one of each.

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3.winogradsky columns form oxygen concentration gradients. predict the distribution of oxygen throughout the column

Answers

Over time, an oxygen grade develops from high at the top to fully anoxic( no oxygen) at the bottom of the column. The overlying air has the loftiest oxygen attention, and the attention decreases as you move down to the bottom of the column.

When a column is set, oxygen is unevenly distributed throughout the column. It's consumed by respiration throughout the column, but it's only produced in the photosynthetic subcaste at the top. Any oxygen that diffuses down into the deposition from the top reacts with chemical composites in the bottom.

The Winogradsky column, a fashion developed beforehand in the history of microbial ecology to enrich soil microbes, may thus be a useful model system to probe both microbial and viral ecology.

The Winogradsky column is used to view the microbial ecology of the soil and water of a lake or sluice. The column is useful in being suitable to cultivate microorganisms effectively for further study of ecology.

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What are the 4 types of warm-up?.

Answers

The 4 types of warm-up are

Fast-paced walking.Walking up and down stairs.Fast-paced side stepping.Jogging on the spot.

Preparing physically and mentally for your chosen activity is the goal of warming up before physical action. As you warm up, your heart rate and blood flow rise, allowing more oxygen to reach your muscles. The connections between your nerves and muscles are also activated and primed during a warm-up, which increases movement efficiency. Dynamic stretching should also improve your flexibility and range of motion.

Hence, warm-up increases movement efficiency.

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by increasing heart rate, raising blood pressure, and irritating the heart, smoking can trigger an irregular heartbeat known as .

Answers

Atrial fibrillation (A-fib) is a heart rhythm disorder that can cause blood clots in the heart because it is an irregular and frequently highly rapid heartbeat. A-fib raises the danger of heart problems such heart failure and stroke.

"Heart failure" is characterised by a rapid, erratic heartbeat.

Heart failure is the condition in which the heart is unable to sufficiently pump blood through the body to treat its problems. Breathlessness, extreme fatigue, and leg edoema are common symptoms and adverse effects.

A number of scientific experiments have demonstrated that as physical stress increases, calcium release also increases, boosting cardiac contractions to help the heart pump more forcefully against rising blood pressure.

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The hiv virus attacks only a certain type of white blood cells, and not other cell types. Why?.

Answers

The virus needs to bind to a specific molecule on the cell surface, known as CD4, to access the cell. Therefore, it binds to a specific cell type .

What do you mean by HIV Virus ?

HIV  can be defined as a virus that attacks the body's immune system. If not treated well  it can lead to AIDS.It belongs to a  class of viruses which is usually known  as retroviruses. It uses  RNA to encode their genetic information rather than DNA, as human cells do.Symptoms include Fever, Chills. Rash, Night sweats , Muscle aches.HIV treatment (antiretroviral therapy or ART) involves taking medicine as prescribed by a health care provider.

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