What is the purpose of including a pcr reaction with no added dna? isn’t this just a waste of expensive enzyme when we know that without the template, you will not get any pcr products?.

Answers

Answer 1

PCR reaction without a DNA template represents a negative control for your PCR reaction.

A negative control helps to rule out any false positive results during amplification. For instance consider the following cases:

1. If your reagents such as primers, buffer, taq polymerase have a got contaminated with genetic material other than the template DNA of your interest, there is a fair chance of those templates getting amplified in certain regions. These are known as non-specific amplifications. Thus negative control ensures your reagents are free from any contaminating DNA material.

2. Primers may from ' dimers' if they are not designed correctly. The co-implementary regions in forward and reverse primers may pair to again give a non- specific band. Usually primer dimers are less than 100kb. However, in certain crucial cases where the amplicons are also of similar size, the results will be wrongly interpreted.

Thus, it is very important to always have a PCR reaction having all the reagents except the DNA template.

What do you mean by PCR reaction?

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was originally developed in 1983 by the American biochemist Kary Mullis. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1993 for his pioneering work.

PCR is a common tool used in medical and biological research labs. It is used in the early stages of processing DNA for sequencing?, for detecting the presence or absence of a gene to help identify pathogens? during infection, and when generating forensic DNA profiles from tiny samples of DNA.

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Related Questions

What are the 4 types of biological contamination?.

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Biological contamination is defined as the contamination of food caused by microorganisms.

The microorganisms which cause contamination are called contaminants. The different types of contaminants are bacteria, fungi, parasite and virus. These are transferred to food through various sources such as people, raw food, pest and refuse.

Bacteria are single celled organisms which have a rigid cell wall. They cause spoilage and consuming food affected by them causes illness. Bacteria produces spores that help them survive in high temperature areas. They are difficult to multiply.

Viruses are microscopic pathogens which are smaller than bacteria which can multiply in living cells. They cannot reproduce on their own and hence require a host for the same. Parasites are organisms which live and feed on a host. In most cases it is a one way relationship where at the end the host dies.

Fungi are biological contaminants which are found naturally. They can be small single celled organisms or multicellular organisms.  Examples are mould and yeast.

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What does evolution explain?.

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The process of evolution is how organisms change over time in response to their environment.

The phrase "theory of evolution by natural selection," put out by Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace in the nineteenth century, is more commonly known as the theory of evolution.

According to the principle of natural selection, organisms breed more young than they can withstand in their surroundings. Those who are more physically capable of surviving, maturing, and reproducing. On the other hand, those who lack this fitness either do not live long enough to reproduce or have fewer offspring than their counterparts. Because the "fittest" organisms—those best adapted to their environment—are the ones that reproduce most successfully and are most likely to pass on their traits to the next generation, natural selection is sometimes summed up as "survival of the fittest."

Hence, evolution shows how organism adapt according to surroundings.

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What are 5 ways to prevent the spread of germs?.

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5 ways to prevent the spread of germs.

Nose, mouth, or eyes to arms to others:

hands to meals: ...

food to palms to food: ...

infected baby to palms to different children:

Animals to humans

Handwashing. preserving our arms clean is one of the maximum crucial steps we are able to take to keep away from getting ill and spreading germs to others. it's pleasant to scrub your hands with soap and easy jogging water for 20 seconds.

Infectious illnesses are caused by microscopic germs (which include bacteria or viruses) that get into the body and purpose trouble. some — but not all — infectious diseases spread at once from one individual to any other. Infectious diseases that unfold from character to man or woman are said to be contagious.

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after a plasmid has been digested into linear fragments in a restriction endonuclease assay, dna fragments may be resolved using migration through an agarose gel matrix. the largest linear fragments will travel the

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DNA fragments may be resolved using migration through a gel matrix called agarose. The largest linear fragments will travel the slowest while the smallest ones will travel the fastest.

A technique to separate DNA fragments (including other macromolecules like proteins and RNA) based on their charge and size is called gel electrophoresis. The molecules, based on their size and charge, will travel through the gel in different directions or at different speeds, which allows them to be separated from one another. Larger/longer pieces of DNA will travel through the pores of the gel matrix slower than the shortest/smallest ones.

Gel electrophoresis involves a gel, as the name suggests. For DNA separation, the gel is made out of a polysaccharide called agarose.

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true or false. most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin.

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Most pathogens cannot invade the skin unless there is a wound or opening because of the tough waterproof keratin in the skin is true statement.

Vertebrates have skin, which is a soft outer tissue. It is the biggest organ in humans, with a total surface area of around 20 square feet. It uses a multi-layered system of cushioning, a cellular barrier, and protective oils to shield our internal organs from the environment.

Skin serves as more than simply a barrier between our internal organs and the outside world; it also actively contributes to preserving our health by regulating body temperature, such as through sweating and flushing in hot weather and causing goosebumps in cold weather. It may also generate Vitamin D from sunshine, which is crucial for the well-being of our bones.

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which of the following is the most common type of alternative splicing in animals and involves making mrna molecules that lack a complete exon?

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This procedure includes removing specific exons and the introns that surround them from mRNA constructs before translation. Alternative 5' or 3' splicing: Exons can be joined at alternative 5' or 3' splice sites to facilitate alternative splicing.

The removal of specific sequences known as intervening sequences, or introns, or their "splicing out" is one of the processes in this processing, known as RNA splicing. Thus, the leftover sequences, referred to as exons, are what make up the final mRNA. These exons are linked to one another through the splicing procedure.

By combining various exons, a process known as alternative splicing produces various variations in the mRNA. Proteins are produced as isoforms via alternative splicing. Protein chemical and biological activity is altered as a result. Thus, more than one type of mRNA and more than one type of protein can be encoded by a single gene.

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which process(es) increase genetic variation? group of answer choices genetic drift founder effects mutation natural selection

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Meiosis boosts genetic variation. Because of recombination and independent assortment occurring during meiosis, each gamete has a distinct DNA set.

What are the three types of genetic variation?

The genetic variety is the result of three distinct processes: mutation, recombination, and gene immigration. Mutation drives genetic diversity and evolution.

Why does genetic variety occur?

Genetic variations can result from gene variants, often known as mutations, or they might result from a normal process in which genetic material is reorganized when a cell gets ready to reproduce. Genetic differences that alter gene activity or protein function can impart different features on an organism.

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What would happen if there was a mutation in the DNA sequence?.

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A mutation might alter a property in a way that's even advantageous, such making it possible for an organism to more effectively adapt to its surroundings.

A point mutation is the most basic type of mutation. When one nucleotide base in a DNA sequence is swapped out for another, something happens. The production of the incorrect amino acid may result from the alteration. DNA is a flexible and dynamic molecule. As a result, due to a process known as mutation, the nucleotide sequences found therein are liable to alter. A particular mutation may prove harmless, beneficial, or even harmful depending on how it changes the genetic structure of an organism. The physiology of an affected organism can occasionally undergo drastic alterations as a result of a mutation. Naturally, it is first necessary to comprehend what mutations are and how they occur in order to better understand the various effects of mutations.

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during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . during electron transport, energy from is used to pump hydrogen ions into the . acetyl coa ... intermembrane space nadh and fadh2 ... mitochondrial matrix nadh ... mitochondrial matrix nadh and fadh2 ... intermembrane space nadh ... intermembrane space

Answers

During electron transport, energy from NADH  is used to pump hydrogen ions into the FADH2.

So the correct option is (e)

The energy produced by NADH and FADH2-provided electrons is transported along the electron transport chain and used to force hydrogen ions over the intermembranous gap.

These systems, which are reminiscent of the electron transport systems employed during photosynthesis, allow for the passage of high-energy electrons produced by NADH and FADH2. On the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are the electron transport chains. Some of the high-energy electrons' energy is caught as they go down the chains. Hydrogen ions (from NADH and FADH2) are propelled beyond the inner membrane and into the intermembranous space using this energy. A higher concentration of hydrogen ions forms when hydrogen ions are forced over the inner membrane.

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A state of joyful activity in which the subject performs an action effortlessly and skillfully is known as a(n) __________. a. ability b. flow state c. peak experience d. meditative state

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A state of joyful activity in which the subject performs an action effortlessly and skillfully is known as a flow state.

Flow state, popularized by positive psychologists Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi and Jeanne Nakamura, defines a state in which you get completely involved in whatever you are doing given the correct conditions.

When you commit your full attention to an activity or work that you are immensely passionate about, utterly focused on, and completely involved in, you may find yourself establishing the circumstances for experiencing a flow state of mind.

The mind's regular chatter begins to fade, placing us in a state of non-distraction. Under normal conditions, the sensations that might overwhelm you (inhibition, hunger, exhaustion, or aches and pains) go away, and all that counts is your devotion to your craft.

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which of these is genetically balanced as haploid gametes? note that the red and blue chromosomes are non-homologous. select all that apply.

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Haploid gametes with homologous chromosomes have balanced genetic makeup.

What chromosomes have haploid DNA?

Definition. A cell of an organism is said to be haploid if it only has one set of chromosomes. Diploic organisms are those that reproduce sexually (having two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent). In humans, only the sperm and egg cells are haploid.

A haploid gamete is what?

Haploid refers to a cell containing one set of chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in gametes, which are also known as egg or sperm cells, is also referred to as haploid. Human gametes are haploid cells with 23 chromosomes, one of which is found in each of the chromosome pairs found in diplod cells.

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Which type of virus can use all host polymerases for transcription and replication?.

Answers

Answer:

DNA Viruses

Explanation:

amino acids found in the amino acid pool . amino acids found in the amino acid pool . must come from animal products help to synthesize essential amino acids require protein supplements to maintain their resources can be used for protein synthesis

Answers

The amino acid pool contains amino acids that can be used to create proteins.

Does our body keep an amino acid reserve for the production of proteins?

The body retains a significant amount of free amino acids in the blood (approximately 35-65 mg/deciliter) even when one is fasting; this ensures that cells and tissues always have access to individual amino acids for the synthesis of proteins and essential amino acid derivatives.

The cellular pool of amino acids is derived from both dietary protein and the breakdown of cellular proteins. Since amino acids are used to produce new proteins, energy, and other biological molecules, this pool needs to be refilled with them.

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what was a necessary experimental step used by meselson and stahl that allowed them to conclusively determine that dna replication occurred in a semiconservative manner?

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Meselson and Stahl concluded from these experiments that DNA replication was semi-conservative: the DNA strands split off and each replicated themselves, resulting in each daughter molecule having one "old" and one "new" strand.

Density would be a defining characteristic between the old and new DNA. Meselson and Stahl created an approach called equilibrium density gradient centrifugation to gauge a density difference in the DNA. With this procedure, a cesium chloride solution is added to a tube where the DNA is centrifuged.

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exam if your right visual cortex stopped functioning, what parts of your visual field would be messing

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Visual field cuts, trouble seeing objects or colors, trouble reading or writing, blindness, an inability to distinguish written words, an inability to detect moving things, and poor processing of visual information are all symptoms of occipital lobe damage.

Damage to the primary visual cortex, also known as V1, in the area of vision, but not to any other cortical region, eliminates visual awareness and causes persistent blindness. issue, known as anosognosia, which is when you are unaware that you are unaware of something. Even though they may be blindness, many patients believe that they can see.

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What 4 factors can affect gene expression?.

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The 4 elements that can affect gene expression: food plan, temperature, oxygen ranges, humidity, mild cycles, and the presence of mutagens can all impact which of an animal's genes are expressed, which ultimately impacts the animal's phenotype.

Gene goes with the flow is anticipated to be a decrease in species that have low dispersal or mobility, that arise in fragmented habitats, in which there are long distances among populations, and while there are small population sizes. control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells happens at epigenetic, transcriptional, publish-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational degrees.

Epigenetic processes, consisting of DNA methylation, histone change, and numerous RNA-mediated techniques, are ideal to persuade gene expression mainly at the level of transcription; however, different steps within the procedure (for instance, translation) may also be regulated epigenetically.

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Is flea treatment every 4 weeks?.

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Effective flea manipulation will suggest the use of a specific flea treatment (adulticide) every 4 weeks for as a minimum the three months, ideally on your puppy's lifestyle.

Fleas can nonetheless jump onto your pup in the iciness, and your warm domestic might be the proper surroundings for triggering flea eggs to hatch. So, in case you're asking your self “how often ought I deliver my puppy flea remedy?”, the solution is each 4 weeks for surest protection – 12 months round, leaving no gaps.

Commonplace symptoms of toxicity from flea merchandise containing organophosphates are diarrhea, vomiting, problem breathing, small scholars, muscle tremor, weakness or falling over, and drooling. Organophosphate toxicity may be swiftly deadly, relying on the components and dose the puppy is uncovered to.

The fastest options for killing fleas with prescription medicinal drugs are Comfortis or Trifexis, which also work as powerful preventative medicinal drugs. “both merchandises incorporates the active element spinosad, so as to start killing fleas within 30 minutes of consuming the pill.

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according to research, when compared with children in heterosexual families, children of lesbian or gay parents

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Lesbian, gay, and bisexual parents are equally likely to have children as heterosexual parents, contrary to scientific evidence to the contrary.

When someone experienced their parents' divorce as children, they were more prone to?

According to research, children whose parents divorced during the previous 20 years were more likely to commit crimes, rebel by engaging in harmful conduct that threatens their health, or admit to starting to smoke or use prescription medication.

Which of the following is a benefit to parents who start their families young (in their 20s)?

There will be more physical vitality in parents. The mother is more likely to experience less health issues. Parents are less inclined to give their kids strict expectations.

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Which of the following conditions will activate pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, which catalyzes
the phosphorylation and inactivation of E1 in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A) Ca2+
B) Insulin
C) Elevated concentrations of acetyl-CoA
D) Elevated concentrations of NAD+ and ADP
E) Elevated concentrations of NADH and ATP

Answers

Increased [NAD+] inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Increased [NADH] activates pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Coenzyme A inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Acetyl-co A activates pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

ADP inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, PDK, is an enzyme that acts to inhibit the activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme by phosphorylating it using ATP. Its mechanism of action is catalyzing the phosphorylation of a specific Ser residue in the E1 subunit of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, rendering it inactive. By inhibiting the activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, PDK will decrease the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-coA and CO₂ in mitochondria and increase the conversion of pyruvate to lactate in the cytosol.

Since the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is activated by an increase in the concentration of one or more of ADP, NAD+, or CoA-SH, its inhibitor, pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, is inhibited by ADP, NAD+, CoA-SH, and pyruvate. However, the PDK is activated by the increased concentration of ATP, NADH, and acetyl-CoA.

Increased [NAD+] inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Increased [NADH] activates pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Coenzyme A inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

Acetyl-co A activates pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

ADP inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)

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In mammals, mature red blood cells do not have mitochondria. How would red blood cells produce atp?.

Answers

Red blood cells use anaerobic respiration to make ATP .

What do you mean by Red blood cells and how did this occur ?

Red blood cells  are the most common type of blood cell which are used to deliver oxygen to the body tissues—via blood flow through the circulatory systemRBC or red blood cell do not contain mitochondria.They produce energy by utilizing glucose molecules for glycolysis through anaerobic respiration to produce energy in form of Adenosine triphosphate or ATP.It then  undergoes hydrolysis to generate free energy for the functioning of red blood cells.

Hence, in the given question RBCs undergoes anaerobic respiration.

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What are the 5 bases of RNA?.

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There are 5 bases present in DNA and RNA combined. However, each have 4 bases of which 3 are common and one varies.

RNA, Ribonucleic Acid consists of 4 nucleobases which are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Uracil. The are represented as A, G, C and U respectively. They form the backbone of RNA.  they are made up of alternating phosphate groups and ribose sugar.

DNA, Deoxyribonucleic Acid consists of 4 nucleobases which are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine. The are represented as A, G, C and T respectively.  These nucleotides are the fundamental bases of the genetic code of organisms. They form the backbone of DNA.

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estimating the age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. when did the tree die from which the charcoal came? use 5600 years as the half-life of carbon 14.

Answers

The age of a tree a piece of charcoal is found to contain 30% of the carbon 14 that it originally had. 1 × 10⁻⁴ years ago tree die from which the charcoal came.

Percentage of charcoal = 30%

Half-life of carbon 14 = 5600 years

Calculate the rate of decay of the tree by using the following formula

K = 0.693 ÷ T 1/2

T 1/2 is the half-life of carbon-14

K =  0.693 / 5600

K = 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ y⁻¹

Now calculate the age of the tree by using the following equation.

    A(T) = A0e^-kt

    A(T) = 0.3 A0

Where

    0.3 A0 = A0e^-( 1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    0.3 = e^-(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    ln 0.3 = -(1.2 × 10⁻⁴t)

    T = ln 0.3 / (-1.2 × 10⁻⁴)

    T = 1 × 10⁻⁴ Y

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hich of the following statements is predicted if a population of fruit flies were fed a chemical that blocked the function of the SXL protein? A) The mRNA produced from the doublesex (dsx) gene would not be spliced. B) The transformer (tra) gene would be maximally expressed. C) The progeny in the next generation would be approximately 50% male and 50% female. D) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly female. E) The progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.

Answers

The correct statement is the progeny in the next generation would be predominantly male.

Male dominators frequently take the reins in both loves and in daily life. They frequently are the self-starters who succeed in business. Their aura of inherent confidence exudes a sense of urgency. You've certainly heard about how women are drawn to "bad boys." This would be comparable.

Males were often bigger than females throughout most animals, especially humans, and were therefore sometimes regarded as being more domineering.

containing more men than women, especially in influential positions; being dominated as well as controlled by men.

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which enzyme is involved in branch migration during recombination? group of answer choices ruva recb/c/d ruvc ssb reca

Answers

These enzymes, known as RuvAB, catalyse branch migration, which pairs two homologous DNA strands. Due to the DNA helicase activity of RuvAB, a crossover branch will migrate in a way that will prolong the DNA heteroduplex.

In multicellular animals, DNA recombinases are frequently utilized to modify genome structure and regulate gene expression. These bacterial- and fungal-derived enzymes (bacteriophages) catalyse DNA exchange events between short (30–40 nucleotide) target site sequences that are unique to each recombinase. Excision/insertion, inversion, translocation, and cassette exchange are four fundamental functional modules that are made possible by these events and have been utilized singly or in combination to control the expression of many different genes.

Hence, recombinase is enzyme brings up recombination of DNA.

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there are six different codons that all specify the amino acid leucine. what is the term that refers to this phenomenon?

Answers

Answer: Degeneracy of Codons

Explanation:

It means that there is more than one codon that specifies the single amino acid. The phenomenon in which several of the amino acids, each coded by more than one codon is called codon degeneracy.

taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the pacific yew tree that disrupts microtubule formation in animal cells. when taxol is added to animal cells, cell division stops. specifically, taxol must affect .

Answers

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the pacific yew tree that disrupts microtubule formation in animal cells. When taxol is added to animal cells, cell division stops. Specifically, taxol must affect the fibres of the mitotic spindle.

How does tаxol аffect microtubules?

Tаxol (generic nаme pаclitаxel) is one of the most importаnt аnticаncer drugs аvаilаble in the world. It is relаted to the destruction of microtubules. Tаxol stаbilizes microtubules аnd reduces their dynаmicity, promoting mitotic аrrest аnd cell deаth. Upon аssembly of the α/β-tubulin heterodimer, GTP bound to β-tubulin is hydrolyzed to GDP reаching а steаdy-stаte equilibrium between free tubulin dimers аnd microtubules. Due to this, the formаtion of mitotic spindle fibre formаtion gets аrrested аnd аs а result, the cell division come to а hold.

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The stages of mitosis were originally defined by cellular features observable through a light microscope. The six micrographs below show animal cells (lung cells from a newt) during the five stages of mitosis, plus cytokinesis. (Note that interphase is not represented in these micrographs.) In these images the chromosomes have been stained blue, microtubules green, and microfilaments red. Drag each micrograph to the target that indicates the stage of mitosis or cytokinesis it shows. ► View Available Hint(s) Reset Help prophase prometaphase metaphase anaphase telophase cytokinesis Micrographs by Conly L. Rieder, Division of Molecular Medicine, Wadsworth Center, Albany, New York 12201-0509

Answers

Prophase is the initial phase of mitosis, during which the nuclear chromatin begins to arrange and condense into thick strands that eventually become chromosomes visible under an optical microscope.

How can the different stages of mitosis be seen?

These are the phases of mitosis:

In prophase, the chromosomes get shorter and thicker.

In the middle of the cell, during the metaphase, the chromosomes align.

Chromatids separate during the anaphase process and travel to the opposing poles. Telophase: Two nuclei are produced when nuclear envelopes have reformed around each chromosomal group.

Can you actually see mitosis?

The division of a cell nucleus' chromosomes into two identical sets of chromosomes occurs during the cell cycle process known as mitosis. It is a division of cells by equations.

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in prokaryotic cells, gene expression is inherently different than gene expression in eukaryotic cells. why? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices

Answers

Answer:

Transcription cannot occur in a nucleus in a prokaryotic cell.

Explanation:

the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . the olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense than those in humans are located more superiorly than those in humans are relatively larger than those in humans

Answers

The olfactory bulbs of the sheep . carry visual information are less important as a food-getting sense are relatively larger than those in humans.

The ability to smell is one key way that sheep and human brains vary from one another. The olfactory bulb in a sheep's brain is two to three times bigger than a human's. It gives sheep a keen sense of smell, which is essential for survival.In comparison to the human brain, a sheep's brain has a larger olfactory bulb. The sheep's ability to smell better thanks to its bigger olfactory bulb is essential to its survival.Despite the sheep brain being significantly smaller overall, the olfactory bulb in sheep is two to three times the size of the human olfactory bulb. This illustrates how significant the sense of smell is to sheep.

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the infectious dose of neisseria gonorrhoeae, the causative agent of the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea, is 1,000. this means

Answers

Because Vibrio bacteria need to be present in much higher numbers to cause sickness, interaction with far fewer Neisseria bacteria will do so.

Vibrio bacteria can be swallowed and result in watery diarrhea, which is frequently accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, and chills. These signs often appear within 24 hours after intake and remain for around 3 days. Rare cases of severe disease often affect immune-compromised individuals.

Meningococcal disease is brought on by Neisseria meningitides bacteria. Without being unwell, one in ten people carry these germs in the back of their nose and throat. Being a carrier is what we refer to as. Meningococcal disease is the term for a number of ailments that are occasionally brought on by the bacterium invading the body.

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