What is this number in standard notation? 9.41 x 106

Answer:

8x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

8x+4=56

56-4=52      52 divided 8 = 6.5

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

two lines are guaranteed to be coplanar if they lie in the same plane

Answer:

it would be true

Step-by-step explanation:

its guaranteed

Answer:

X int = (1,0)    y int= (0,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21 cells

Step-by-step explanation:

4x5+1=21

Answer:

7.5 × 10-4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 7.5x10^-4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: -12

Step-by-step explanation:

To get from -5 to 12, you'd add 7

So to get to the first, subtract 7 from -5

The first term of an arithmetic progression whose second term is -5  and third term is 12 is  -22.

An arithmetic progression is a sequence of numbers such that the difference between the consecutive terms is constant. A sequence -

a₁ , a₂, a₃ , a₄ ...... aₙ

will be an arithmetic progression if -

a₂ - a₁ = a₃ - a₂ = a₄ -  a₃ = d (constant) is called common difference of A.P. and a₁ = 'a' as the first term.

Given is the second term of an arithmetic sequence which is -5 and the third term is 12.

We can calculate the nth term of an A.P. using the formula -

a[n] = a + (n - 1)d

Now -

a[2] = -5

a + (2 - 1)d = -5

a + d = - 5                ... [1]

and

a[3] = 12

a + (3 - 1)d = 12

a + 2d = 12                .... [2]

Expanding equation [2] further, we get -

(a + d) + d = 12

- 5 + d = 12

d = 17

Then -

a + d = -5

a = - 5 - d

a = -5 - 17

a = - 22

Therefore, the first term of an arithmetic progression whose second term is -5  and third term is 12 is  -22.

To solve more questions on Arithmetic progression , visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/26064016

#SPJ5

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know noya

Given allowable stresses in steel and concrete of 150MPa and 12MPa, respectively, the maximum bending moment that the section can carry can be determined as follows:

Assuming the section is made up of steel and concrete, it is essential to consider the stresses on both materials. By considering the material properties of the section, the overall strength of the section can be obtained.

Therefore, the bending moment that a section can carry can be given by the formula:

M = σ_s * Z_s + σ_c * Z_c

Where: M = Maximum bending moment that the section can carry

           σ_s = Maximum allowable stress in steel

          Z_s = Section modulus of steel

          σ_c = Maximum allowable stress in concrete

           Z_c = Section modulus of concrete

Therefore, the maximum bending moment that the section can carry = 150*Z_s + 12*Z_c

To determine the section modulus of the steel and concrete, we can use the formula:

Z = I/y

whereZ = section modulus

          I = Moment of Inertia of the section

         y = distance of the neutral axis to the extreme fibre

By determining the section modulus of the steel and concrete, the maximum bending moment that the section can carry can be calculated.

To know more about section modulus visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30756002

#SPJ11

GH

Hi !

GH ∈ (HGY)

GH ∈ (GEF)  } => (HGY) ∩ (GEF) = GH

Good luck !

If a card is drawn from a standard deck and replaced. after the deck is shuffled, another card is pulled. Then the probability that the first card drawn is a heart and the second card is a spade is 1/16.

The probability of drawing a heart on the first card is 1/4 since there are 13 hearts out of a total of 52 cards in a standard deck.

After replacing the card and shuffling the deck, the probability of drawing a spade on the second card is also 1/4 since there are 13 spades out of a total of 52 cards in the deck (assuming the deck is well-shuffled).

To find the probability of both events happening (drawing a heart and then a spade), we multiply the individual probabilities together:

Probability = (1/4) * (1/4) = 1/16

Therefore, the probability that the first card drawn is a heart and the second card is a spade is 1/16.

To learn more about probability: https://brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ11

Answer:

30 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following :

Rita's tank contains =7.8 gallons of water

Filling rate = 2.1 gallons per minute

Wendy's tank contains = 97.8 gallons

Drain rate =. 0.9 gallons per minute

After how many minutes will both contain the same amount of water.

Let number of minutes = m

Rita is filling :

Initial + increase

7.8 + 2.1m ----(1)

Wendy is emptying:

Initial - decrease

97.8 - 0.9m - - - (2)

Equate both ;

(1) = (2)

7.8 + 2.1m = 97.8 - 0.9m

2.1m + 0.9m = 97.8 - 7.8

3m = 90

m = 90 / 3

m = 30 minutes

The product of the given expressions 6 × x × y and 2 × x × 3 × y are both equivalent to 6xy.

Multiplication is another term for product and it is the process of finding the sum of a number with itself a specified number of times, or any other analogous binary operation that combines other mathematical objects.

6 × x × y

= 6xy

2 × x × 3 × y

= 6xy

Hence, 6 × x × y and 2 × x × 3 × y equals 6xy.

Read more on multiplication:

https://brainly.com/question/28768606

#SPJ1

Answer:

112

Step-by-step explanation:

angle = 1/2(sum of Intercepted Arcs)

BFE = 1/2( 72+152)

       = 1/2 ( 224)

      = 112

Could you rephrase the question a bit? We can't tell what the numbers are... :)

15 is the GCD of 45 and 15.

The teacher of the sixth grade places the following numbers on the board and asks her students to determine the GCD of these digits:C. 45D. 15GCD (45, 15) or the Greatest Common Divisor of 45 and 15 is the largest number that divides both 45 and 15 without leaving a remainder.The prime factorization of 45 is as follows:45 = 3 x 3 x 5To get the prime factorization of a number, divide it by its smallest prime factor (which is 3 in this case) and then divide the resulting quotient by its smallest prime factor, if possible. This operation is repeated until a prime number is reached.The prime factorization of 15 is as follows:15 = 3 x 5Thus, the common factors between 45 and 15 are 3 and 5, and the highest common factor is 3 x 5 = 15, which is the Greatest Common Divisor.GCD (45, 15) = 15

for more search question GCD

https://brainly.com/question/219464

#SPJ8

We have to evaluate the value of the expression 0.3y + y/z at y=10 and z =5 0.3y + y/z

= (0.3 X y) + y/z

Substituting the values of y and z in the above expression,

= (0.3 x 10 ) + 10/5

= 3 + 2

=5  

So, the value of the given expression is 5

Have A Nice Day/Night

Answer:

[tex]\pi r + d \\ [/tex]

The circumference of a circle = 2πr

But here they asked half of the circumference = πr

By substituting this we get the answer 3π

Now add the diameter = 3π+6

The standard time for this job is 253 minutes.

To determine the standard time for this job, we need to calculate the total time for both the worker and the machine, taking into account the rest break and the allowance factor.

First, let's calculate the total time for the machine. We know that it takes 3.5 minutes of machine time per cycle, and there were 40 cycles in total. So, the total machine time is 3.5 minutes/cycle * 40 cycles = 140 minutes.

Next, let's calculate the total time for the worker. We know that the worker's time averaged 2.0 minutes per cycle, and there were 40 cycles in total. So, the total worker time is 2.0 minutes/cycle * 40 cycles = 80 minutes.

Now, let's calculate the rest break time. The worker took a 10-minute rest break midway through the study.

Next, let's calculate the allowance time. The allowance factor is 10 percent of the work time, which is applied only to the worker element. The work time is the total time for both the worker and the machine, which is 140 minutes for the machine + 80 minutes for the worker + 10 minutes for the rest break = 230 minutes. Therefore, the allowance time is 10 percent of 230 minutes = 23 minutes.

Finally, let's calculate the standard time for this job. The standard time is the total time for both the worker and the machine, including the rest break and the allowance time. So, the standard time is 230 minutes (work time) + 23 minutes (allowance time) = 253 minutes.

Learn more about standard time here:-

https://brainly.com/question/14230612

#SPJ11

Answer: False

Step-by-step explanation: If two angles are complementary,

then the sum of their measures is 90 degrees.

In other words, any two angles whose sum is 90 when

their measures are added together are complementary angles.

Take a look at the angles below.

Do they have the same value?

Well obviously no, they don't so they aren't congruent.

However, they are still complementary because

the sum of their measures is 90 degrees.

The mode of the following set of figures is no mode.

What's a mode?

The mode is a value that appears most frequently in a data set. A set of data can have one mode, further than one mode, or no mode at all. In statistics, the value that constantly appears in a particular set is appertained to as the mode.

The mode or modal value in a data set is occasionally appertained to as the value or number that occurs most constantly in the data set.

In addition to mean and standard, it's one of the three measures of central tendency.

For case, the set" 3, 7, 8, 8, 9" has an 8 as its mode.

thus, we can snappily determine the mode given a finite number of compliances. There could be one mode, several modes, or none at all for a given collection of values.

To determine if a set of data has a mode, look for the value that occurs most constantly( the mode) because it can do further than formerly, or there may be no mode at all.

thus, the mode of the following set of figures is no mode.

Learn more about mode here:

https://brainly.com/question/30891252

#SPJ11

The correct answer is option D. Solution: x < -5 or x > -1, and the correct graph would have open circles at -33 and -29 with shading to the left of -33 and to the right of -29 on a number line.

To solve the inequality |x+31 > 2|, we need to consider two cases: when the expression inside the absolute value is positive and when it is negative.

Case 1: x+31 > 2

In this case, we can solve the inequality by subtracting 31 from both sides:

x + 31 - 31 > 2 - 31

x > -29

Case 2: -(x+31) > 2

To solve this case, we need to flip the inequality sign when multiplying or dividing by a negative number:

x + 31 < -2

x < -33

The solution to the inequality is x < -33 or x > -29.

Now, let's analyze the given answer choices and identify the correct solution and graph:

A. Solution: x < -5 or x > -1

This answer choice does not match the solution we derived, so it is incorrect.

B. Solution: x > -5 and x < -1

This answer choice does not match the solution we derived, so it is incorrect.

C. Solution: x > 1 and x < 5

This answer choice does not match the solution we derived, so it is incorrect.

D. Solution: x < -5 or x > -1

This answer choice matches the solution we derived (x < -33 or x > -29), so it is correct.

Based on the correct solution, the graph would have an open circle at -33 and -29 on a number line, indicating that the values are not included in the solution set. The line would be shaded to the left of -33 and to the right of -29.

The correct answer is option D. Solution: x < -5 or x > -1, and the correct graph would have open circles at -33 and -29 with shading to the left of -33 and to the right of -29 on a number line.

for such more question on graph

https://brainly.com/question/19040584

#SPJ8

Viola drove 170 meters up the hill that makes an angle of 6° with the horizontal. We are to find what horizontal distance she has covered.

Let us say the horizontal distance she has covered is x meters. From the given information, we know the length of the inclined plane, which is 170 meters. Also, the angle of inclination is 6°. Hence, we know the value of opposite side and the hypotenuse.The horizontal distance she has covered is the adjacent side.Using the trigonometric formula of the tangent function, we get:

tan 6° = opposite/adjacent

tan 6° = x/170 x = 170

tan 6° Using a scientific calculator, we get

:x = 17.8 meters (nearest tenth of a meter).

Hence, the correct answer is option (d) 17.8 meters.

Viola has covered 17.8 meters horizontally.

To know more about circle visit:

brainly.com/question/15008542

#SPJ11

Answer:

the answer is 4160

Step-by-step explanation:

because if you subtract 5400 by the money you worked for that is your sum yw xx.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to subtract the amount of money that you have earned by the amount of money that the car costs.

$5400-$1240 is $4160

So you need $4160 more money to buy the car

(Good luck getting that much money XD)

Hope this helps!

Answer:

$1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 8 pints in a gallon so divide 12 and 8 to find the cost of 1 pint

Reduce the expression, if possible, by cancelling the common factors.