Patients whose injuries are serious but survivable should be given priority in care according to the system developed by Army Major John Letterman during the Civil War.
Letterman also established a strategy to optimize the lifesaving benefits of wound care by requiring that troops who could survive with prompt attention be given priority over those with deadly and mild injuries. This treatment prioritization technique is now known as triage, but it was not given that term until the First World War.
In this context of European medical and surgical innovation, Jonathan Letterman must be considered. Union surgeons, medics, and soldiers in 1861 were not only woefully unprepared for the devastation that would ensue over the next four years of war, but they were also far behind the professional forces of Europe.
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how do epidemiologists determine the cause of an epidemic?
To measure the relationship between exposures and results and to evaluate theories regarding causal connections, epidemiologists utilize analytical epidemiology.
Epidemiologists examine the responses to these questions using statistical analysis to determine how a certain health issue first emerged. Disease investigators find previously unknown diseases like SARS and Legionnaires disease as well as the organisms that cause them.
Establishing case definitions, confirming that cases are real, determining the disease background rate, locating cases, determining the scope of the outbreak, examining the descriptive epidemiologic characteristics of the cases, developing and testing hypotheses, gathering and testing environmental samples, implementing control measures, interacting with the media, and informing the public are all crucial components of outbreak investigations.
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the nurse is caring for a 12-year-old with cerebral palsy who is unable to communicate verbally. which pain assessment tool is the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assessing pain in this client?
The most appropriate pain assessment tool for a client with cerebral palsy who is unable to communicate verbally is the Nonverbal Pain Scale (NVPS).
What is cerebral palsy ?A group of disorders known as cerebral palsy (CP) have an impact on a person's ability to move, balance, and maintain posture. The most prevalent motor impairment in kids is cerebral palsy (CP).
Having to do with the brain is what is meant by cerebral. Palsy is a term used to describe muscle weakness or functional issues. Damage to the developing brain or abnormal brain development that impairs a person's capacity to control their muscles is the cause of cerebral palsy (CP).
Everyone experiences CP symptoms differently. If CP is severe, the person may need to walk with the aid of specialised equipment or may not be able to walk at all and require lifelong care.
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a nurse participates in a community acitivity sponsored by the national alliance for mental illness that is designed to decrease stigma associated with mental illness. which role has the nurse fulfilled?
In the case above, the nurse has fulfilled their advocate role.
There are several roles that exist in nursing:
Patient care. A nurse is a caregiver for patients that manage their physical needs, prevents illness, and treat health conditions.Patient advocacy. Nurses often provide emotional support for patients and their families.Planning of care. A nurse is involved in the decision-making process of patient treatment. They have to think critically when assessing a patient's conditions to make the appropriate recommendations.Patient education and support. A nurse is responsible to ensure that their patient can understand their condition and treatment to the best of their ability.Learn more about nursing role at https://brainly.com/question/30532129
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you measure your patient's using indirect calorimetry. what do you anticipate her rq to be as well as what metabolic pathway would she be expereincing? a. 0.85 and lipolysis b. 1.0-1.2 and lipolysis c. 1.0-1.2 and lipogenesis d. 0.71 and lipolysis
When using indirect calorimetry to measure patients, one can expect the RQ to be as well as what metabolic pathway is 0.71 and lipolysis. Thus, Option D holds true.
The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed during metabolism. An RQ of 0.85 indicates that the patient is primarily utilizing fatty acids for energy which is consistent with lipolysis. However, an RQ of 1.0–1.2 suggests the patient is primarily metabolizing carbohydrates, which is consistent with lipogenesis.
An RQ of 0.71 indicates that the patient is predominantly oxidizing fatty acids for energy which corresponds to lipolysis.
Lipolysis is a catabolic metabolic pathway that involves the breakdown of stored triglycerides into glycerol & free fatty acids. This process occurs when the body needs energy but does not have an adequate supply of glucose. Therefore the RQ of 0.71 indicates that the patient is likely experiencing lipolysis as their primary metabolic pathway.
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21) when caring for a patient with a head injury, which of the following assessment information requires immediate action by the nurse? a. the pulse is 58 (bpm) and is irregular b. the client complains of a severe headache c. the blood pressure increases from 115/60 to 140/80mmhg. d. the client starts slurring their speech
The client complains of a severe headache : If a patient complains of a severe headache, the nurse should act immediately. Option B is correct.
Depending on the location of the brain damaged and the degree of the brain damage, individuals with severe brain damage may lose their ability to move finely, speak, see, hear, or taste. In addition, there might be temporary or long-term alterations in Many small or big blood arteries in the brain can be harmed by a traumatic brain injury. Blood clots, strokes, and other issues can result from this injury. headache. With traumatic brain damage, frequent headaches are extremely typical. Concussions, skull fractures, and lacerated scalps are among the common head wounds. Depending on the kind and extent of the brain injury, outcomes and treatments can differ significantly. There are two types of head wounds: closed and open. An injury to the closed head is one in which the skull is not broken.
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the nurse is performing a health history on a 6-year-old child who is having trouble adjusting to a new school. which question will elicit valuable information?
What a 6-year-old child's experience has been like so far is the most useful information that can be collected from a 6-year-old youngster experiencing difficulty transitioning to a new school.
The nurse will have a better grasp of the kid's experience if they ask the child questions such, "How has your transition to the new school been going?" or "What has been the most challenging part of going to your new school?"
The nurse can have a better knowledge of the kid's needs by asking the child questions such, "What do you appreciate about your new school?" or "What do you think would make it easier for you to transition to your new school?"
Additionally, it's essential to find out how the youngster is feeling about the circumstance and how it has affected their other connections, such as those with their family and friends.
The nurse can better understand the child's experience and create a strategy to assist them in adjusting to their new school by asking open-ended questions.
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How many hours will 500 mL of D5½NS run at 75 mL/hour? Round to the nearest whole number
A. 4 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 7 hours
500 mL of D5½NS run at 75 mL/hour will need 6.7 hours or the nearest whole number: 7 hours.
Thus, the correct option is D.
To determine how many hours 500 mL of D5½NS will run at 75 mL/hour, we can use the formula:
time = volume ÷ rate
Plugging in the given values, we get:
time = 500 mL ÷ 75 mL/hour
Simplifying the equation, we get:
time = 6.67 hours
Since we need to round to the nearest whole number, the answer is 7 hours. Therefore, the correct option is D.
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a patient is seen for three extra visits during the third trimester of her 30-week pregnancy because of her history of pre-eclampsia during her previous pregnancy which puts her at risk for a recurrence of the problem during this pregnancy. no problems develop. what diagnosis code(s) is/are reported for these three extra visits?
The O09.893, Z3A.30 diagnostic code is reported for these three additional visits for Pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia usually begins after the 20th week of pregnancy in women with normal blood pressure. It can cause serious and even fatal complications for both mother and child. No symptoms occur. Hypertension and proteinuria are the main features. Also, the legs may be swollen or swollen, but this may be difficult to distinguish from a normal pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia can often be treated with oral or intravenous drugs until the baby is mature enough to deliver. This often involves weighing the risk of preterm birth against the risk of persistent preeclamptic symptoms.
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brief family interventions like the strengthening families program and the five-session preparing for the drug-free years have been found to
The three family intervention modalities of behavioral parent training, family therapy, and family skills training or behavioral family therapy are effective in lowering risk variables and raising protective factors.
Standardized family-based treatments are the most effective approach of preventing or treating adolescent substance misuse and misbehavior. Included is new epigenetic evidence that indicates caring parenting considerably delays the phenotypic manifestation of inherited genetic illnesses, such as substance misuse.
Children who grow up in households with substance-using, depressed, excessively stressed, and dysfunctional parents contribute to these developmental problems. The effectiveness of evidence-based family interventions is examined, along with the principles and forms of those intervention, study findings, steps for cultural adaptation for ethnic and multinational translation, and distribution concerns.
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the school nurse is monitoring a student athlete who experienced a concussion 2 weeks ago during a soccer game. the student reports having difficulty in a course in which the child previously performed well. which action should the nurse take first?
School nurses will educate parents and athletes on concussion signs and symptoms, the causes of these injuries, and any potential long-term effects.
A accompanying written instructional handout titled "Concussions: The Invisible Injury" will be made available by the nurses office.
Additionally, even if they think they have just suffered the slightest of concussions, students must be able to identify concussion symptoms and report them to the proper staff. Throughout each season, student athletes should periodically review this material. The necessity of receiving medical attention should such an incident occur must be emphasized in order to avoid symptoms returning. The rules for returning to school and activities must be followed by student athletes.
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anemia of chronic renal failure is caused by the lack of?
Chronic renal disease-related anaemia is multifactorial in nature, with decreased renal erythropoietin (EPO) production—the hormone that stimulates the creation of red blood cells—as the most likely cause. A frequent side effect of chronic renal disease is anaemia (CKD).
Kidney disease (CKD) is characterised by impaired blood filtration due to damaged kidneys. Wastes and fluid can accumulate in your body as a result of this harm. Other health issues can also result from CKD. Early kidney disease is less likely to cause anaemia, and as the disease advances and more kidney function is lost, anaemia frequently worsens.. Over 90% of patients getting renal replacement treatment experience anaemia, which is a typical consequence of chronic kidney disease. Significant morbidity and mortality are linked to it.
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Is it normal to feel sharp pains in early pregnancy?
Pregnancy frequently causes stomach (or abdominal) discomfort or cramps. Although they typically aren't a cause for concern, they could occasionally be an indication of something more serious that needs to be examined.
The following conditions may be the cause of harmless stomach pains, which can be intense or dull ligament pain (often referred to as "growing pains" since the ligaments strain to support your developing bump) this can feel like a sharp cramp on one side of your lower abdomen. If the pain is minor and goes away when you move, rest, poop, or breathe, there's usually nothing to worry about. However, if you are concerned and experiencing stomach pain, contact a maternity hospital or your midwife. For first-time mothers in particular, it can be challenging to differentiate between a normal pregnancy and Your body will change significantly during pregnancy as it adjusts to the developing life inside the body.
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the nurse is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of a mallory-weiss tear. the patient reports that he has taken antacids for the past 5 years for his gastroesophageal reflux (gerd), ibuprofen for the past 10 years for arthritis, and protonix for the last year for treatment of an ulcer. he also drinks one glass of wine with his evening meal daily. using the above information, the nurse realizes that the most significant cause of the mallory-weiss tear may be:
The patient in this Question has a Mallory-Weiss tear due to use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicines (NSAIDs).
A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear in the lower esophageal tissue.
To determine the severity of symptoms like vomiting blood and having dark, sticky stools, a medical evaluation must be done right away.
risk elements
Smoke. Smoking may make peptic ulcers more likely in those with H. pylori infection.
ingest alcohol. Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced and can irritate and erode the mucus lining of your stomach.
possess unresolved stress.
eat hot food.
Ibuprofen is the NSAID that has been used in this case
recently, and the patient is also taking medication for an ulcer, which is a serious adverse effect of NSAIDs use. NSAIDs harm because it damage the protective barrier of GIT
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7. the nurse prepares a client for a bone scan. what priority assessment should the nurse perform for this client?
Answer:
A. History of claustrophobia
B. Presence of IV access
C. Current vital signs
D. Presence of metallic implants such as pacemaker or aneurysm clips
Presence of IV access
what is the purpose of a differential white blood cell count?
The purpose of a differential white blood cell count is to identify and quantify the different types of white blood cells (also known as leukocytes) present in a blood sample.
What is WBC?
WBC stands for "White Blood Cells," which are also known as leukocytes. White blood cells are an essential part of the body's immune system, responsible for defending against infections, diseases, and other harmful invaders. They are produced in the bone marrow and circulate in the blood, lymphatic system, and other body tissues.
The purpose of a differential white blood cell count is to identify and quantify the different types of white blood cells (also known as leukocytes) present in a blood sample. White blood cells play a critical role in the body's immune response, defending against infections and diseases. By analyzing the types and numbers of different white blood cells, healthcare professionals can gain valuable insights into a patient's immune system and diagnose a range of medical conditions, including infections, autoimmune disorders, and cancers.
A differential white blood cell count typically involves examining a blood smear under a microscope and identifying and counting the different types of white blood cells, including neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. The results of a differential white blood cell count are often reported as a percentage of the total white blood cell count, and abnormal or imbalanced results can indicate underlying health issues that may require further investigation or treatment.
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groups who are at high risk of a vitamin e deficiency include multiple select question. smokers. people following a high-fat diet. pregnant women. preterm infants.
Groups who are at high risk of a vitamin E deficiency include smokers, preterm infants.
Vitamin E is made up of eight fat-soluble molecules, four of which are tocopherols and four of which are tocotrienols. Vitamin E deficiency, which is uncommon and typically caused by an underlying difficulty with dietary fat digestion rather than a low vitamin E diet, can induce nerve difficulties.
Vitamin E is a fat-soluble antioxidant that may aid in the protection of cell membranes against reactive oxygen species. According to a global assessment of more than one hundred research, consumption was below guidelines in 2016, with a median dietary intake of 6.2 mg per day for alpha-tocopherol.
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After surgery for a broken hip, a patient is admitted to a rehabilitation center. The patient has a positive outlook and had progressed to walking thirty feet with a walker. Over the past two days, the patient has complained of being tired and has refused to walk during therapy sessions. What should happen based on the information provided?
It would be acceptable for the medical professional or therapist at the rehabilitation facility to evaluate the patient's condition and ascertain the cause of the abrupt fall in their progress based on the information provided.
What is rehabilitation?In the context of an individual's engagement with their environment, rehabilitation is defined as "a series of actions meant to optimize functioning and reduce disability in individuals with health issues."
It would be acceptable for the medical professional or therapist at the rehabilitation facility to evaluate the patient's condition and ascertain the cause of the abrupt fall in their progress based on the information provided.
The patient's symptoms of fatigue and refusal to walk may be an indication of emotional or physical discomfort or a potential surgical complication.
In order to give the patient the proper care and support for their rehabilitation, it is critical to address these worries and identify the cause.
Thus, this should happen based on the information provided.
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the nurse is caring for an older adult. when preparing for the client's surgery, the nurse needs to remove the client's religious garments but the client refuses. what is the nurse's best action?
When adopting interventions to enhance patients' spiritual wellbeing, nurses should respect their patients' spiritual and religious preferences. The nurse shouldn't push their own opinions on the patient.
Instead, they should respect and pay attention to how the patient expresses their beliefs. The evaluation of a client's spiritual requirements goes beyond a consideration of their religious views; it also takes into account their perception of God as well as their sense of hope, forgiveness, and relationships with others and themselves. By encouraging the patient to engage in spiritual activities like prayer or meditation, the nurse provides spiritual care. Instead of assuming that the client wants time for prayers before breakfast, the nurse should ask the client if they do.
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which standard does qsen identify? A. Evidence-based practice B. Informatics C. Nursing research D. Patient-centered care E. Quality Improvement
QSEN identifies multiple standards, including evidence-based practice, informatics, patient-centered care, and quality improvement.
QSEN(Quality and Safety Education for Nurses)
QSEN, which stands for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses, identifies several nursing competencies that are essential to providing safe and effective care to patients.
These competencies include patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, safety, and informatics.
Therefore, QSEN identifies multiple standards, including evidence-based practice, informatics, patient-centered care, and quality improvement.
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After assisting with a bedpan, the nurse notes that the patient's stool is streaked with bright-red blood. What would the nurse do first?A. Notify the patient's health care provider.B. Ask if the patient has a history of hemorrhoids.C. Check the medical record to see if the patient has a history of blood in the stool.D. Document the observation in the medical record, indicating a need for follow-up.
The first thing that the nurse would do after noticing bright-red blood in the patient's stool is to ask if the patient has a history of hemorrhoids.
Hemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen veins in the lower part of the anus and rectum. When the walls of these blood vessels stretch so thin that the veins bulge and get irritated, especially when you poop, swelling or hemorrhoids can form.
Hemorrhoids are a common cause of bright-red blood in the stool. In the case above, it is important to determine if this is the source of the bleeding before taking any further action. Once the nurse has this information, they can then take the appropriate next steps, such as notifying the patient's healthcare provider, checking the medical record, or documenting the observation.
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a community health nurse is at the local recreation center attending a community meeting where members are expressing concern about an upcoming bill on allowing fracking in their community. the community has requested the nurse assist them in preventing the bill from passing. how can the nurse use advocacy to assist the community with this issue? (select all that apply.)
The nurse use advocacy to assist the community with this issue, Write to local policymakers on how the community feels about the issue. Investigate and present examples of fracking-related concerns in communities. Collaborate with community representatives to create a template letter to send to policymakers.
Community health refers to modest health treatments provided by laypeople outside of hospitals and clinics. Community health is also a part of public health that clinicians are taught and practise. Community health volunteers and community health workers collaborate with Primary Care Providers to help community members enter, exit, and utilise the formal health system.
Community health volunteers are members of the local community who have extensive knowledge of the health services available in the community and are used to locate and connect beneficiaries or those in need with registered providers.
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which medication treatment in the client during her gestation may cause a single-lobed brain and neural tube defects
Simvastatin medication treatment in the client during her gestation may cause a single-lobed brain and neural tube defects. Hence, the correct answer is Simvastatin.
What do we understand medication treatment?Medication is defined as a drug or chemical that is used to treat or prevent disease. Medication is defined as "a substance used in treating a disease or relieving pain" by Encyclopaedia Britannica. Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, stop, or prevent illness, alleviate symptoms, or aid in disease diagnosis. Many diseases can now be saved and cured thanks to advances in modern medicine. There are numerous sources for medicines available today.
Chemical imbalances in the brain, according to researchers, are the root cause of mental illness symptoms. A medication addresses these imbalances in order to reduce or, in some cases, eliminate your symptoms.
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47) the rn on the neuromedical unit is assigned 4 patients which should he/she assess first? a. pt with skull fracture with a bleeding nose b. older pt with 2 days post stroke who is confused and agitated c. pt with meningitis who has suddenly become agitated and reporting headache 10/10 d. pt who had craniotomy for brain tumor and who is now 3 days post op with continued vomiting
For the purposes of this recommendation, a head injury is any trauma to the head other than minor facial wounds. In the UK, head injuries are the leading cause of mortality and disability for people ages 1 to 40. In England and Wales, 1.4 million people visit emergency rooms each year after suffering a recent head injury.
Children under the age of 15 make up between 33% and 50% of this group. Every year, over 200,000 patients with brain injuries are admitted to hospitals. One-fifth of them have characteristics that point to a skull fracture or show signs of brain injury. Most patients recover without specialised care or assistance, but some suffer long-term disabilities or even pass away as a result of problems that might have been reduced or prevented with early diagnosis and treatment.
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why does further weight loss come slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet? a. the number of fat cells makes further weight loss impossible.
The body reacts as if it's being starved and metabolic rates drop, that is why further weight loss comes slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet.
The normal outcome of obesity therapies is an early period of fast weight reduction, followed by a weight plateau and gradual rebound. The present state of our knowledge on the biological, behavioral, and environmental variables influencing this almost universal body weight trajectory is discussed in this review along with the implications for long-term weight management.
To encourage long-lasting healthy habits and constructive weight control, the treatment of obesity necessitates continual professional attention and counseling tailored to weight maintenance. The body begins to burn other fats to use them as fuel when it feels starving and empty.
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The complete question is:
Why does weight loss come slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet?
(a) The number of fat cells makes further weight loss impossible.
(b) When a person's hunger increases, metabolism increases.
(c) When an obese person's set point has been reached, weight loss increases dramatically.
(d) The body reacts as if it's being starved and metabolic rates drop.
(e) An obese person cannot maintain a rigorous weight loss diet.
select all that apply which circumstances increase a person's chances of undernutrition in the united states?
Unstable living conditions: People living in unstable and chaotic home environments may not have access to the necessary resources to maintain a healthy diet, leading to undernutrition.
What is environments ?An environment is a set of physical, chemical, and biotic conditions that are present in a particular area. It can include the air, water, soil, temperature, light, and other living things that are in a particular space. A healthy environment is one that is able to sustain life, while an unhealthy environment can lead to unhealthy living conditions and even death. All organisms, including humans, depend on the environment to provide essential needs, such as food, shelter, air, and water. In addition, the environment can also provide resources, such as energy, minerals, and materials, which are used in industry and agriculture.
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while assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings warrants further investigation by the nurse?
While assessing a one-month-old infant, the following findings warrants further investigation by the nurse:
C. Inspiratory gruntE. Nasal flaringF. CyanosisG. Asymmetric chest movementOptions C, E, F and G are correct.
Grunting occurs when a newborn uses partial glottic closure to preserve appropriate functional residual capacity in the face of poorly compliant lungs. When the newborn extends the expiratory phase against the partially closed glottis, there is a longer and increasing residual volume that keeps the airway open, as well as an audible expiratory sound.
Nasal flaring is an indication of difficulty breathing or respiratory discomfort when the nostrils expand during breathing.
Cyanosis is a bluish tint of the skin that signifies a reduction in the amount of oxygen connected to red blood cells in the circulation.
Asymmetric chest movement occurs when the aberrant side of the lungs expands less than the normal side and trails behind. This is an indication of respiratory trouble.
The complete question is:
While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings warrants further investigation by the nurse? Select all that apply.
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the nurse knows that the school-age child is in erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority. which best exemplifies a school-aged child working toward accomplishing this developmental task?
The nurse is aware that the school-age youngster is experiencing Erikson's stage of superiority vs industry. The finest example of a school-age person working to complete this developmental objective is a child who registers for after-school activities, the correct option is A
The nurse acting in the capacity of an educator must carefully take into account the characteristics of learners in relation to their stage of life development when planning, designing, implementing, and assessing an educational programme.
The establishment of an educational programme to fulfill the varied demands of the people is more challenging the more diverse the target audience. The three approaches to learning in childhood, young adulthood, middle adulthood, and elder adulthood are pedagogy, andragogy, and geragogy, respectively.
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The complete question is:
The nurse knows that a school-age child is in Erikson's stage of industry vs. inferiority. Which best exemplifies a school-aged working toward accomplishing this developmental task?
A. The child signs up for after-school activities.
B. The child is developing a conscience.
C. The child becomes aware of the opposite sex.
D. The child performs his bedtime preparations autonomously.
a patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 meq/l. this laboratory finding is characteristic of which condition?
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 mEq/L. This laboratory finding is characteristic of DKA condition. Option A is correct.
An anion gap of less than 16 mEq/L is considered typical. An high anion gap may be associated with a metabolic acidosis condition such as DKA. Ketosis is not linked to HHS. The anion gap is a metric that may be determined. It is calculated using a formula that takes into account the results of multiple independent lab tests, each of which evaluates the concentration of a different anion or cation.
The anion gap is the amount differential in serum, plasma, or urine between cations and anions. To detect metabolic acidosis, the amount of this discrepancy (i.e., "gap") in serum is determined. High anion gap metabolic acidosis is detected when the gap is larger than normal.
The complete question is:
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with an anion gap of 24 mEq/L. This laboratory finding is characteristic of which condition?
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why are antihistamines usually not prescribed to patients who have a respiratory infection? group of answer choices can cause excessive fluid build up can make it easier for secretions to be cleared can cause excessive fluid build up and make secretions difficult to clear
The reason why antihistamines are not prescribed in patients with respiratory infections is can make it easier for secretions.
What are antihistamines?Antihistamines are a group of drugs used to relieve the symptoms of an allergic reaction. When the body is exposed to allergy-triggering substances (allergens), histamine will increase in number and cause an allergic reaction. Antihistamines work by blocking the action and reducing the amount of histamine released by the body. That way, the symptoms due to an allergic reaction can subside.
Certain types of antihistamines can also block nerve signals in the brain that control the nausea or vomiting response. Because of this, some antihistamines can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting, especially from motion sickness.
However, there are several types of antihistamines that should not be given to patients who have respiratory infections because they can make it easier for secretions.
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which of the following is the best example of a teratogen effect causing a birth defect? group of answer choices maternal ingestion of alcohol during pregnancy maternal ingestion of vitamin supplements during pregnancy maternal history of diabetes and heart disease the baby's uncle and sibling having the same effect
The known teratogens include alcohol, tobacco, and recreational substances. The central nervous system of the foetus is impacted by alcohol. Fetal alcohol syndrome risk is increased in pregnant women who drink alcohol.
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that can result in physical and behavioural impairments as well as atypical facial characteristics, a tiny head and brain, and other physical defects. There is no alcohol consumption level that is deemed safe during pregnancy. Smoking cigarettes is linked to miscarriage, early birth, and foetal development restriction. Smoking also has an impact on the developing fetus's delicate brain and lungs. No matter where in the pregnancy you are, exposure to teratogens is dangerous. The first eight weeks of pregnancy are when the risk is slightly higher. This is due to the fact that numerous systems and organs are developing, making the foetus more susceptible to the negative effects of teratogens.
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