The possible outcomes that would justify a research project that will have the inevitable outcome of stigmatizing the subjects in a way that may result in serious restrictions on their personal freedom is when asked to stop screening newborns for XYY as it leads to stigmatization in the society.
What is the XYY debate about?Social stigma is the disapproval of or discrimination against a person or group because of perceived traits that set them apart from other people in the society.
Therefore, This historical case study explores the relationship between a 1961 paper that suggested that men with XYY chromosomes were predisposed to violent and criminal behavior. The case examines concerns with genetic testing and other uses of genetics and biotechnology research.
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felicity's ldl cholesterol level is too high. to lower her cholesterol level, she took large doses of a certain vitamin supplement, but she experienced gastrointestinal ulcers and liver damage as a result. based on this information, which vitamin did she take?
According to this information, she took niacin as a vitamin.
Why is excessive consumption of water-soluble vitamins less likely to result in toxicity than excessive consumption of fat-soluble vitamins?While fat-soluble vitamins can be retained in tissues, water-soluble vitamins are easily eliminated from the body. Although water-soluble vitamins can also be poisonous, fat-soluble vitamins are more prone to do so.
Which of the following vitamins is most crucial for the production of red blood cells?Vitamin B12 is required by your body to produce red blood cells. In order to give your cells vitamin B12: You must consume vitamin B12-rich foods like dairy, meat, poultry, shellfish, eggs, fortified breakfast cereals, and shellfish.
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a patient who is reporting dizziness and nausea is found to have an inner ear infection. in addition to antibiotics, which drug will likely be recommended?
In addition to antibiotics, Meclizine (Bonamine) will likely be recommended
What is dizziness and nausea ?Frequently, dizziness and nausea coexist. They are typical signs of a number of ailments, such as stomach aches, infections, and migraines. Rarely, they may be signs of more serious illnesses, like a brain tumor.
Generally, you should visit your doctor if you experience any persistent, sudden, severe, or prolonged vertigo or dizziness. Seek immediate medical attention if any of the following occur along with sudden, severe vertigo or dizziness. Unexpectedly bad headache, a pain in the chest.
Meclizine is used to treat motion sickness symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Additionally, vertigo (dizziness or lightheadedness) brought on by ear issues is treated with it. An antihistamine is meclizine. It works by suppressing the brain signals that lead to nausea, vomiting, and light headedness.
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which nurse information is appropriate when planning a sex education and contraceptive course for adolescents?
Teenagers need contraception education in both oral and written form.
Sex education, also known as sexual education, sexuality education, or sex ed, is the teaching of human sexuality-related issues such as emotional relations and responsibilities, human sexual anatomy, sexual activity, sexual reproduction, age of consent, reproductive health, reproductive rights, sexual health, safe sex, and birth control.
Comprehensive sex education encompasses all of these issues and is frequently contrasted with abstinence-only sex education, which focuses solely on sexual abstinence. Sex education can be delivered by parents or caregivers, as part of school programs, or as part of public health campaigns. Relationships and Sexual Health Education is a term used in some countries.
Contraceptive education aims to provide clients with the basic information they need to make informed decisions about contraception and to use the contraceptive methods they have chosen effectively.
Natural/Traditional methods, Barriers, IUDs (IntraUterine Devices), Oral contraceptives, Implants, Injectables, and surgical methods are all available.
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the nurse assesses a client who has received a tentative diagnosis of delirium and explains to the family about the major cause of the client's condition. which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
His diagnosis is based mostly on the sudden onset of his change in consciousness."
The primary diagnostic sign for delirium is impaired consciousness, which usually appears suddenly. Although illness may be the underlying cause, and other cognitive abnormalities such as memory, orientation, and language impairments may occur, the development of reduced consciousness over a short period of time is critical. (less)
A tentative diagnosis is a preliminary suspicion of a patient's condition that is frequently made by clinicians based on the patient's narrative at the time of admission. It is heavily reliant on physicians' expertise and professional knowledge.
If a Positive Diagnosis for Cancer or a Specified Disease is made within 12 months of a Tentative Diagnosis, benefits will begin 12 months after the Certificate Effective Date.
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when educating a group of older adult clients, which teaching by the nurse is appropriate about preventing the development of cataracts?
When educating a group of older adult clients, the nurse should advise them to wear sunglasses while being outdoors in order to prevent the development of cataracts. Wearing sunglasses help in preventing or slowing down of cataract progression by protecting our eyes from ultraviolet (UV) rays, specially ultraviolet B rays.
What is cataract?The typically clear lens of the eye becomes clouded due to a cataract. Cataract patients find difficulty in reading, driving a car (especially at night), or noticing the expression on a friend's face due to clouded vision caused by cataracts.
The majority of cataracts occur when the tissue that makes up the eye's lens changes due to aging or trauma. The proteins and fibers of the lens start degrading thus leading to clouding or obscuring vision.
How to prevent cataract formation?1. Eye examinations should be conducted on a routine basis.
2. Smoking should be quitted.
3. A healthy diet including a lot of vegetables and fruits should be considered.
4. Wearing of sunglasses specialized in blocking ultraviolet B rays while being outdoors.
5. Avoiding alcohol consumption.
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a client who is intubated on mechanical ventilation develops subcutaneous emphysema. which ventilator setting should the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client?
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is the setting of the ventilator the nurse anticipate being adjusted for this client.
A ventilator is a piece of medical equipment that mechanically ventilates a patient who is physically unable to breathe or who is not breathing enough by transferring breathable air into and out of the lungs. However, patients can also be vented using a straightforward, manually operated bag valve mask. Ventilators are computerized, microprocessor-controlled devices. Ventilators are mostly utilized in anesthesia, home care, emergency medicine, and intensive care medicine (as independent devices) (as a component of an anesthesia machine).
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the nurse explains the cause of extensive acne to a child who has recently reached puberty. which statement would the nurse provide regarding causation of extensive acne?
Statement that the nurse would provide regarding causation of extensive acne is that when puberty is reached, there is an increase in sex hormones called androgens which results to acne.
What is the cause of extensive acne on reaching puberty?The pores in your skin has oil glands. When you hit puberty, there is an increase in sex hormones called androgens and this excess hormones causes oil glands to become overactive, enlarge, and produce sebum. When there is too much sebum then the pores become blocked with skin cells.
If blocked pores become infected or inflamed, a pimple is formed. If the pore clogs, closes, and then bulges then you get a whitehead.
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The nurse is assessing the moral development level of children being seen in the clinic according to Kohlberg's Conventional stage of moral development. Which child does the nurse determine have met this stage of development? Select all that apply- the 8 year old child who frequently asks the teacher if he is doing his math correctly
- The 10 year old child who visits his elderly neighbor 3x per week
- the 9 year old child who tell his friend they should not throw rocks because they will get in trouble
- the 7 year old child who yells at his mother "i dont understand why I cant go to the park"
- the 10 year old who state "I sure would not want to be my friend taking that bad report card home"
The nurse share with the parents:
-Describe how kids their age frequently lie to get out of getting punished.
-Suggest reading a story about the effects of lying to the child.
Who is nurse?
A nurse is someone who has received training in providing care to those who are ill or injured. Nurses collaborate with physicians and other healthcare professionals to treat patients and maintain their physical and mental health. Nurses also provide end-of-life care and support other family members during their grieving processes. Like medicine, nursing is a profession, but unlike medical school, nursing school has a different training schedule and curriculum. Before receiving their nursing licence in some states, nurses may train for up to three to five years.
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which action does a nurse anticipate the health care provider will take regarding a patient with a baseline low-density lipoprotein of 130 mg/dl who was prescribed niacin and now has an ldl level of 99 mg/dl
Unless your LDL is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L), you probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low. Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is really high, such as if you've previously experienced a heart attack.
The majority of the cholesterol in your body is LDL (low-density lipoprotein), also referred to as "bad" cholesterol. Your risk of heart disease and stroke increases if your LDL cholesterol levels are high. You probably won't need a statin if your risk is very low unless your LDL level is higher than 190 mg/dL (4.92 mmol/L). Even if you don't have high cholesterol, a statin may be beneficial if your risk is very high, such as if you've had a heart attack in the past.
LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol, also referred to as "bad" cholesterol, makes up the majority of the cholesterol in your body. Heart disease and stroke risk are increased by high LDL cholesterol levels.
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please select the pathogen from the genus streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group.
The genus streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group is Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes.
In biology, a pathogen within the oldest and broadest sense, is any organism or agent that may manufacture unwellness. A infective agent may be observed as an agent, or just a germ. The term infective agent came into use within the Eighteen Eighties.
Streptococcus is a genus of gram-positive cocci} or spherical bacteria that belongs to the family Streptococcaceae, inside the order Lactobacillales, within the phylum Bacillota. Biological process in streptococci happens on one axis, thus as they grow, they have a tendency to create pairs or chains which will seem bent or twisted.
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Please select the pathogen from the genus Streptococcus that correctly represents the most serious pathogen of this group.
A. Group A beta-hemolytic S. pyogenes
B. Group A beta-hemolytic S. pneumoniae
C. Group B alpha-hemolytic S. pyogenes
D. Group A beta-hemolytic S. agalactiae
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What actions should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube?.
The actions that should be taken when administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube include:
monitor the patient for feeding tolerance.assess the abdomen by auscultating for bowel sounds and palpating for rigidity, distention, and tendernesslisten to the client in the case of complaints of fullness or nausea after feeding starts because they may have a higher gastric residual volume What is a gastrostomy tube?A gastrostomy tube is a tube that is inserted through the belly in order to deliver nutrition directly to the stomach, especially in conditions where oral feeding is not recommended.
Intermittent enteral feeding involves delivering at intervals to the stomach or the small intestine.
When a nurse is administering intermittent enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube to a client, it is important to monitor the client in order to avoid discomfort.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. The nurse should assess the client for which complication commonly associated with the diagnosis?
Hemorrhage. The most common complication of peptic ulcers is hemorrhage, which manifests as hematemesis or melena in 10 to 20 percent of patients.
What causes melena and hematemesis?Hematemesis confirms Melena's strong suggestion that the bleeding is from the upper gastrointestinal tract. In this instance, look for previous symptoms to rule out common causes like peptic ulcer, cirrhosis with esophageal or gastric varices, gastritis, esophagitis, Mallory–Weiss tears, and cancer.
What causes melena most frequently?The most common cause of melena is peptic ulcer disease, which should be suspected in: active peptic ulcer disease that is known. Use of NSAIDs or steroids in the past.
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kelly has just been involved with a car accident, now every time she gets into her car, she believes that she is much more likely to be involved in a car accident that she had previously thought.
Kelly's condition is called Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a disabling psychiatric disorder that results from being exposed to real or threatened injury, death, and sexual assault. It is associated with functional and cognitive impairment. The symptoms of PTSD include persistently re-experiencing the traumatic event, intrusive thoughts, nightmares, flashbacks, dissociation(detachment from oneself or reality), and intense negative emotional (sadness, guilt) and physiological reaction on being exposed to the traumatic reminder.
Furthermore, problems with sleep and concentration, irritability, increased reactivity, increased startle response, hypervigilance, avoidance of traumatic triggers also occur. There is a significant impairment in social, occupational, and other areas of functioning
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which nursing instruction is appropriate when teaching a patient with a trichomoniasis infection about prevention of genital tract infections?
People who have more partners are more prone to get the disease. The likelihood of infection may be higher in older women than in younger women. Perhaps the risk of infection is higher for black women. Low socioeconomic level and little educational attainment are potential additional infection risk factors.
Should trichomoniasis be treated?Even if you have no symptoms, you can still infect your partners if you don't get treated for trich. Trichomonasis also makes you more likely to get or transmit other STDs, such as HIV, which is the virus that causes AIDS.
It has traditionally been assumed that the illness is transmitted. However, a thorough literature search revealed that trichomonas can be spread in including via swimming pools and surfaces like towels and toilet seats.
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client who had surgery 3 days earlier is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection every 12 hours. in planning for the client's morning care, the priority nursing intervention is which action
When a patient is receiving heparin sulfate by subcutaneous injection, the nurse should prioritize helping the patient shave using an electric razor.
Heparin recipients have the risk of bleeding. Shaving is done with an electric razor rather of a straight razor. It is neither suitable or required for nurses to let the client to do anything other than sit on the side of the bed and not allow them to clean their teeth. When the client is using subcutaneous injection by heparin, laboratory readings do not need to be checked every four hours. When the client is taking warfarin, the PT is watched.
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a teenage boy is undergoing allergy testing and has had blood work drawn as part of the diagnostic workup. when reviewing the patient's laboratory results, the nurse should pay particular attention to the levels of what white blood cell (wbc) component?
The quantity of white blood cells (WBCs) in your blood is counted, and the proportion is calculated using a WBC differential.
White blood cells' method of infection defense.
Some people actively combat intruders. They draw near to the infectious agents, then encircle and consume them. Once within the cell, these white cells subsequently exude substances that kill and disintegrate the organism. Another way that other white blood cells, known as lymphocytes, target attacks is by producing antibodies.
What kind of lymphocytes are responsible for cellular immunity?The immune cells known as lymphocytes can be divided into two main categories: thymus-derived or T cells, which are in charge of "cellular immunity" (such as delayed hypersensitivity reactions), and bursa-derived (or bursa-equivalent) cells, or B cells, which produce immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. the nurse should include
The nurse should include Pathologic fractures.
Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by an increase in blood parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. This is caused by a problem with the parathyroid glands (primary hyperparathyroidism) or as a reaction to external stimuli (secondary hyperparathyroidism).
Hyperparathyroidism symptoms are caused by abnormally normal or elevated blood calcium leaving the bones and flowing into the bloodstream in response to increased parathyroid hormone production. When blood calcium levels are high in healthy people, parathyroid hormone levels should be low. Kidney stones are the most common symptom of long-term hyperparathyroidism.
Bone pain, weakness, depression, confusion, and increased urination are all possible symptoms. Osteoporosis can be caused by both primary and secondary causes.
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What does the ER do for a retinal detachment?.
The ER evaluates the patient with retinal detachment and treats any unstable vital signs. They prepare the patient for emergency surgery, if necessary.
what is retinal detachment?
Retinal detachment is an emergency situation. Herein, a thin layer of tissue (the retina) pulls away from it usual position at the back of the eye.
The retinal cells get separated from layer of blood vessels that are responsible for providing oxygen and nourishing the eye.
If Retinal detachment is left untreated for long, the risk of losing permanent vision is high.
The Retinal detachment itself is painless. However, warning signs do appear always before it has happened or after. They include:
Flashes of light in the eyeBlurry visionSudden appearance of many floatersCurtain like shadow over visionIf a person experiences any or all of the symptoms of Retinal detachment, they should seek immediate medical help. Retinal detachment can cause permanent vision damage, and hence it is important to treat it as soon as you find out.
Thus, the ER evaluates the patient with retinal detachment and treats any unstable vital signs. They prepare the patient for emergency surgery, if necessary.
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Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen? leukemia.
Leukemia is a cancer that occurs in the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen.
Blood cells are created within the bone marrow. The bone marrow is that the soft, spongy material within the center of the bones. It produces concerning ninety fifth of the body's blood cells. Most of the adult body's bone marrow is within the girdle bones, breast bone, and also the bones of the spine.
Leukemia is cancer of the body's blood-forming tissues, as well as the bone marrow and also the vascular system. Many varieties of cancer exist. Some types of cancer area unit additional common in kids. Different types of cancer occur largely in adults. cancer sometimes involves the white blood cells.
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the blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called
Blood test used to diagnose diabetes by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin coated with glucose is called The A1C test which is also known as the hemoglobin A1C or HbA1c test.
What is the A1C test?A1C test is a simple blood test that measures average blood sugar levels of the past 3 months. It is commonly used tests to diagnose prediabetes and diabetes and is the main test to help you and your health care team manage diabetes.
A1C below 5.7% is normal, between 5.7 and 6.4% indicates you have prediabetes and 6.5% or higher indicates that you have diabetes.
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excess vitamin d may result in . group of answer choices osteoporosis increased bone calcification deformity of leg bones, ribs, and skull mineral deposits in soft tissues like the kidney increased bone density
According to the research, the correct answer is Option D. Excess vitamin D may result in mineral deposits in soft tissues like the kidney.
What is vitamin D?It is a fat-soluble substance that performs various functions in the body, such as bone health, homeostasis, cellular metabolism, regulation of the immune, cardiovascular and skeletal systems.
In this sense, excess vitamin D can increase the concentration of calcium in the blood serum above the normal limit, secondary to an increase in bone reabsorption, which would directly affect the kidneys.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, Excess vitamin D may result in excess calcium in the blood which can weaken bones and form kidney stones.
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which instruction would the nurse provide to a client who has anxiety and depression and is prescribed venlafaxine er tablets? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A class of antidepressants known as serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, or SNRIs, includes venlafaxine. It is believed to function by raising the brain's concentrations of the mood-enhancing neurotransmitters serotonin and noradrenaline. It's used to treat anxiety, panic attacks, and occasionally depression.
When using this drug, do not take MAO inhibitors such as isocarboxazid, linezolid, metaxalone, methylene blue, moclobemide, phenelzine, procarbazine, rasagiline, safinamide, selegiline, or tranylcypromine.
An antidepressant drug that acts in the brain is called venlafaxine. Major depressive disorder (MDD), generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder are among the conditions it is licensed to treat (social phobia). A depressed mood - experiencing sadness, emptiness, or tears - is one of the signs of depression.
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the nurse is preparing the procedure room for a client who will undergo an intravenous pyelogram. which item(s) should the nurse include?
The nurse should include a suction equipment, emergency oxygen supply, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and vasopressors. It is required to keep such equipment readily available since the X-Ray dye used in the procedure of intravenous pyelogram may sometimes cause anaphylactic shock or allergic reactions in a patient's body.
What is intravenous pyelogram?An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination that evaluates the kidneys, ureters, and bladder and involves an injection of contrast material to help diagnose blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back.
The kidneys, ureters, and bladder are all traced by the X-Ray dye (iodine contrast solution) as it enters each of these organs. During the examination, X-ray images are obtained at certain intervals to clearly observe and evaluate the urinary tract.
IVP helps in diagnosis of kidney stones, bladder stones, enlarged prostate, kidney cysts, urinary tract tumors etc.
What are the side effects of the X-Ray dye?The X-Ray dye has certain side effects like nausea, itching, feeling of warmth/flushing, etc. In more complicated cases, a patient may experience anaphylactic shocks or allergies. In order to tackle with such cases, necessary equipment like oxygen supply, suction equipment, epinephrine, corticosteroids, and vasopressors are required to be readily available during the IVP procedure.
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a nurse has just admitted a client with symptoms of vulva inflammation, pain, odor, and pruritus. based on these findings, the nurse could conclude that this client will be diagnosed with which condition?
If a nurse observes vulva inflammation, discomfort, odour, and pruritus in a patient after the patient is admitted, the nurse may draw the conclusion that the patient has vulvovaginitis.
Clients with vagina or vulva irritation, pain, odour, and purititis are diagnosed with vulvovaginitis. These symptoms are not consistent with urinary tract infection or pelvic inflammatory disease. vulvovaginitiscan be brought on by bacteria, yeast, viruses, chemicals in lotions or sprays, and even by clothing. It can occasionally result from the transmission of certain organisms by sexual partners. The condition of your vagina may also be impacted by a variety of other variables. Use a non-prescription medicine designed exclusively for yeast infections. One-day, three-day, or seven-day cream or vaginal suppositories courses are available.
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a patient was admitted for possible ruptured aortic aneurysm. ten minutes later, the nurse notes sinus tachycardia 138 beats/min, blood pressure is palpable at 65 mm hg, increasing waist circumference, and no urine output. how should the nurse interpret the findings?
The nurse evaluates the data. Abdominal bleeding is likely to occur.
Who should the nurse identify as having the greatest chance of developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm?As mentioned (see Etiology), patients who are older than 65 and with peripheral atherosclerotic vascular disease are most at risk for abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs). This results in a history of smoking, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and hypertension being frequently evoked.
What must you do if you think you have an aortic aneurysm?An abrupt and excruciating pain in the abdomen is the most typical symptom of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. Call 999 right away and request an ambulance if you believe you or someone else may have experienced an aneurysm rupture. Find out more about AAA symptoms.
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__________ prevention refers to the very broad range of activities aimed at reducing the risk of drug use among non-users and assuring continued non-use, whereas ___________ prevention is equivalent to drug abuse treatment, and ___________ prevention is targeted at at-risk groups, experimenters and early abuse populations in hopes of reversing the already existing drug use.A. Primary; secondary; tertiaryB. Secondary; tertiary; primaryC. Tertiary; secondary; primaryD. Primary; tertiary; secondary
Primary prevention refers to the very broad range of activities aimed at reducing the risk of drug use among non-users and assuring continued non-use, whereas tertiary prevention is equivalent to drug abuse treatment, and secondary prevention is targeted at at-risk groups, experimenters and early abuse populations in hopes of reversing the already existing drug use.
Primary prevention reduces each the incidence and prevalence of a unwellness, as a result of the main target is on preventing the unwellness before it develops.
Secondary Prevention—screening to spot diseases within the earliest. stages, before the onset of signs and symptoms, through measures such. as diagnostic procedure and regular pressure testing.
Tertiary prevention is directed at managing established unwellness in somebody and avoiding additional complications.
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a client is diagnosed with dementia related to parkinson's disease. while at a clinic visit, a cholinesterase inhibitor is prescribed for the client. the nurse knows that this type of medication would be prescribed for the client to achieve which goal?
Agnosia is this type of medication would be prescribed for the client to achieve.
Which action for a patient with delirium should be given priority?The following nursing interventions are given to patients who are delirious: Calculate your anxiety level. Evaluate the client's anxiety level and any actions that suggest the anxiety is rising; by spotting these behaviours, the nurse may be able to step in before violence happens. Establish a suitable setting.
Which of the following drug categories is not recommended because it could make delirium worse?Drugs that are known to cause delirium, such as benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, and other medications, should typically be avoided. Deliberately avoidable causes of delirium include alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal.
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the nurse is assessing a 6-year-old child who witnessed the murder of the child's parents. the nurse suspects that the child has developed posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd). which specific behavioral manifestation leads the nurse to interpret this?
The kid is extremely watchful and quickly startled. If the child has posttraumatic stress disorder (ptsd).
How do you define post-traumatic stress disorder?Overview. Some persons who have experienced a stunning, terrifying, or deadly event may develop post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Fear is a common emotion both during and after a traumatic occurrence. Fear alters the body in various ways that take place in a split-second in order to protect against or escape harm.
An example of behavior manifestation.an indication of a psychiatric condition that is manifested by personality structure flaws and accompanying behavior, with little to no anxiety; Rarely, encephalitis or head trauma will provide a clinical picture that is more accurately indicative of a chronic brain illness.
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Which of the following is an indication using the ACR appropriateness criteria for obtaining a pre-op chest radiograph? Select all that apply.A. 37 year old woman with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently but a history of asthma pre-op breast implantsB. 73 year old asymptomatic man pre-op knee replacementC. 49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung baseD. 78 year old woman with COPD, normal CXR 5 months ago and no acute sypmtoms, pre-op for a hip replacementE. 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement
49 year old diabetic man with no cardiorespiratory symptoms currently pre-op ACL repair with crackles at the right lung base and 71 year old man with COPD, normal CXR 12 months ago and no acute symptoms, pre-op knee replacement.
The ACR Appropriateness Criteria (AC) are evidence-based guidelines designed to help referring physicians and other providers choose the best imaging or treatment option for a specific clinical condition.
The primary goal of the ACR is to serve patients and society by empowering members to advance radiological care practice and science. The gold accreditation seal from the ACR represents the highest level of image quality and patient safety. After a peer-review evaluation by board-certified physicians and medical physicists who are experts in the field, it is only given to facilities that meet ACR Practice Guidelines and Technical Standards. Accreditation by the ACR is widely regarded as the gold standard in medical imaging.
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what is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g
Attributable risk is the best measure to explain what percentage of the new diagnosis of disease x are explained g.
Attributable risk is the concept that relates as to how much of an outcome can be related to the exposure caused or risk factor in a population which is exposed to that factor (In this case factor g). Attributable risk (AR) is the risk difference between exposed and unexposed groups. This method can be used to relate the cause and effect of any disease to the disease itself. For example, the attributable factor of lung cancer and smoking is 85% according to the expert research published. It is same as excess risk or risk difference. Attributable risk is the measure of with how much potential the disease can be prevented if the exposure is eliminated.
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