Answer:
Signal transduction pathways allow different types of cells to respond differently to the same signal molecule. Signal transduction pathways convert a signal on a cell's surface to a specific cellular response.
The targets of such signaling pathways frequently include transcription factors that function to regulate gene expression. Intracellular signaling pathways thus connect the cell surface to the nucleus, leading to changes in gene expression in response to extracellular stimuli.
Review Part C Which of the following student-drawn chromosome models show a correct depiction of genetic information in a replicated chromosome? Select all that apply.
The chromosomes part that show a correct depiction of genetic information in a replicated chromosome is in the 3rd image from the first picture and it is showing the image that is saying that is being shown in the diagram.
What is a replicated chromosome ?A replicated chromosome contains two identical double strands of DNA , the chromosomes that are joined at the centromere.
Chromosomes are coiled structures made of DNA and proteins. Chromosomes form after DNA replicates; prior to replication, DNA exists as chromatin. Chromosomes contain genes, which code for proteins.
Human cells normally is 46 chromosomes with two sets of chromosomes that is one set inherited from each parent.
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Which of the following accurately describes an individual using science to make a daily decision?
A. Fernando switches to a different toothpaste. He doesn't like the taste of the one he currently uses.
B. Sam buys a red bicycle at a garage sale. In his opinion, red is the best color.
C. Kylie researches several dog foods. She chooses the one with the highest meat to grain ratio. There is evidence to show meats are better for a dogs health than grains.
D. Sophia watches the news and hears that it will be 27°C (80°F) and rainy tomorrow afternoon.
Answer: C
Explanation: It's talking about data and research.
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Ensuring that managers operate firms in the best interest of the owners rather than themselves is called ____________.
The accompanying figure shows the electron transport chain. Which of the following is the combination of substances that is initially ADDED to the chain?
NADH and FADH2 serve as the electron transport chain's precursors, whereas ATP and water serve as their end products.
What is the electron transport chain?Complex I, Complex II, Coenzyme Q, Complex III, Cytochrome C, and Complex IV are the ETC proteins in the general order.
A nucleoside diphosphate (ADP or GDP) is phosphorylated by a substrate to form a nucleoside triphosphate in a process known as substrate-level phosphorylation (ATP or GTP).
Therefore, with the help of the free energy generated by redox events in the electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation converts ADP to ATP.
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1. Which type(s) of immunity include(s) cells that are involved in the immune response to a specific antigenic epitope? Choose one or more:
A. innate
B. adaptive
C. humoral
D. cell-mediated
2a.T cells never bind to free-floating antigen. This statement is t/f
2b.T cells are activated only by antigen bound to another cell’s surface. This statement is t/f
2c. More than one type of major histocompatibility complex proteins is integral to T-cell physiology. This statement is t/f
3. Within the immune cell interaction shown in Part 1, which of the following types of immunity are shown? Choose one or more:
A. innate
B. adaptive
C. humoral
D. cell-mediated
Answer:
Explanation:
The question has more than one part. We can solve 1x1 The first one is about a problem with helper cells.
The moral immune response is activated and maintained by the two Sales. That means an immune response to extracellular parasites.
Two cells should be taught to make various cytokines such as aisle four, aisle five, and I'll be six. The strong antibody response is due to these cytokines. The question would cause a patient to be deficient in option C production.
The next question is coming. The goal of the first line of defense is what it is about. The first line of immune defense is to prevent the entry of diseases into the system.
The next part of the question is coming. Humans have a primary immune response and human memory.
That's right, Mhm. Human memory is different from the primary immune response. The direct immune response is followed by the secondary immune response.
The next part of the question is about the 2nd and 3rd lines of difference. Fargo psychosis and activation are related. There is a category of the second line of defense. Specific host defense is part of the third line of defense.
The third line of defense marks activity, George's specific pathogen, and the creation of memory. The answer is option D eight cents activated b cells coming to the last part of the question. It's about immunity. The incorrect statement has to be found here. An example is the transfer of antibodies. Mhm across the baby's uterus. Thanks a lot. This is not an example of accord immunity. The wrong statement was made about this being a natural process.
which type of membrane protein might be dissociated from the membrane by changing the ph or the ionic strength?
The type of membrane protein that might be dissociated from the membrane by changing the ph or the ionic strength is the peripheral membrane protein (Option B).
What is the peripheral membrane protein?The peripheral membrane proteins are specific proteins in terms of the function that attach to the plasma membrane in a temporal way and thus change the physicochemical properties of the membrane.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the peripheral membrane protein can modify the physicochemical features in the plasma membrane.
Complete question:
Which type of membrane protein might be dissociated from the membrane by changing the pH or the ionic strength?
A) Integral membrane protein.
B) Peripheral membrane protein.
C) Lipid-anchored membrane protein.
D) All of the above.
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Which of the following statements about the nephron is false?
The incorrect statement about nephron is: (a) The collecting duct empties into the distal convoluted tubule.
Nephron is the basic unit that makes up the kidney. Millions of nephrons together constitute the kidney. A nephron itself is constituted of several components. These are: Glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct.
Collecting duct is the last portion of the nephron that is involved in the collection of urine from the kidney and then move it further to the renal pelvis and ureters. The collecting duct also participates in the reabsorption of water.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which of the following statements about the nephron is false?
a. The collecting duct empties into the distal convoluted tubule.
b. The Bowman's capsule surrounds the glomerulus.
c. The loop of Henle is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
d. The loop of Henle empties into the distal convoluted tubule.
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which of the following sequences represents the correct order in which metabolic reactions occur during the complete oxidation of glucose through aerobic respiration?
A) glucose – glycolysis → citric acid cycle pyruvate oxidation + electron transport chain
B) glucose + citric acid cycle glycolysis → pyruvate oxidation → electron transport chain
C) glucose pyruvate oxidation - glycolysis → electron transport chain → citric acid cycle
D) glucose → pyruvate oxidation - citric acid cycle - glycolysis → electron transport chain
E) glucose – glycolysis pyruvate oxidation - citric acid cycle - electron transport chain
The correct order in which metabolic reactions occur during the complete oxidation of glucose through aerobic respiration is:
glucose – glycolysis pyruvate oxidation - citric acid cycle - electron transport chain; option E.What is aerobic respiration?Aerobic respiration refers to the process by which the body breaks down food molecules in the body in the form of glucose to produce energy in the presence of oxygen.
Aerobic respiration requires the presence of oxygen in order for it to proceed.
The steps of aerobic respiration are as follows:
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if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? check all that apply.
The correct prediction to this to occur as an opening of atrioventricular valves, atria contraction, and filling of ventricles with blood if an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node.
So, the correct options are B, C &E.
What is the atrioventricular valves?The atrioventricular (AV) valves is known to separate the atria from the ventricles on each side of the heart and prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during systole.
In the ventricles, the action potential travels along the interventricular septum to the apex of the heart, where it then spreads superiorly along the ventricle walls.
The right and left atria to have time to contract first (eject blood to the ventricles) before the ventricles contract, which is why the AV node delay is so crucial. The AV node is a modified myocardium.
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The complete question is:
If an action potential could not be received by the atrioventricular node, despite the propagation through the sinoatrial node, what do you predict would occur? select all that apply.
A. ventricles contract
B. atrioventricular valves open
C. atria contract
D. blood is pumped out of the ventricles
E. ventricles fill with blood
F. semilunar valves open
In rabbits, black fur is dominant to white fur. As a rabbit breeder, you crossed a BB male with a Bb female, please complete the Punnett square for the possible genotypes of the offspring. Then complete, the percent chance for the phenotypes of the offspring. Fill in all blanks ( _________ ) 1-10.
..............................................................................
________ ________ .
offspring 1 offspring 2 .
_______ ________ ________ .
offspring 3 offspring 4 .
_______ ________ ________ .
..............................................................................
% Black ___
% White ___
Answer:Offspring one- BB
Offspring 2 -BB
Offspring 3 -Bb
Offspring 4 - Bb
Black % - 100%
White % - 0%
Explanation:
B is dominant over white, And when you draw out the punnett square it all start with a dominant trait.
The possible genotypes for the progeny will be BB, and Bb. and the percentage of black fur will be 100% and for white will be 0%.
What is a Punnett square?The Punnett square is a square diagram often used predict genetic traits of a specific cross or breeding experiment.
It is named after Reginald C. Punnett, who invented it in 1905. Biologists use the diagram to calculate the likelihood of an offspring having a specific genotype.
The Punnett square is a chart that enumerates all of the potential scenarios of a genetic cross between two people with known genotypes.
The Punnett square, in its most basic form, is a square divided into four quadrants.
A Punnett Square is a useful tool for predicting the variations and probabilities that can result from cross breeding. This includes predicting the intercrossing of plants, animals, and even humans.
For the given scenario, the genotype of the offspring will be BB and Bb as per the attached Punnett Square.
Thus, the possibility of the black fur rabbits will be 100% and for white ones it will be 0%.
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Confused on this step
Answer: Flip the lid or the box around so the positive (red) electrode is on the side opposite of the wells that hold your sample in the agarose gel.
Explanation:
DNA is negatively charged due to the phosphate backbone. So in order for electrophoresis to function properly the DNA has to travel through the gel towards the positive electrode.
there is an immediate energetic advantage to muscle in using its own glycogen stores in glycolysis rather than glucose from the bloodstream. why?
The reason why there is an immediate energetic advantage to muscle in using its own glycogen stores is broken down by phosphorolysis and this reduces the number of ATP molecules that must be invested in the hexoses stage of glycolysis.
What is glycolysis?The term glycolysis involves the breaking down of the sugar molecules to produce ATP. We know that in the muscle cells the process by which the ATP is produced is by the anaerobic pathway and this implies that there is the breakdown of glucose with the production of much lesser ATP molecules.
As such, we must be able to remind ourselves that the energy molecule of the body is the ATP molecule and as such it must be part of the processes that gives energy to the cells of the muscle which are found in the human body.
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Missing parts;
There is an immediate energetic advantage to muscle in using its own glycogen stores in glycolysis rather than glucose from the bloodstream. Which statement accurately explains why this is so?
a. Glucose transport into muscle cells is an active transport process.
b. Glycogen is broken down by phosphorolysis and this reduces the number of ATP molecules that must be invested in the hexoses stage of glycolysis.
c. Glycogen is broken down to glucose-1-phosphate, which is a high-energy intermediate.
d. UDP-glucose is a high-energy intermediate which includes a phosphoanhydride bond equivalent to that in ATP.
A single base substitution mutation is likely to have a less deleterious effect when the base change exhibits which of the following results?
an amino acid substitution that alters the tertiary structure of the protein
an amino acid substitution at the active site of an enzyme
a codon that specifies the same amino acid as the original codon
a stop codon
A single base substitution in the GGU codon, such as GGU-AGU, can occur, changing the amino acid, hence option c is correct.
What is a genetic codon?A single base substitution in the GGU codon, such as GGU-AGU, can occur, changing the amino acid that this codon codes for, glycine, to another.
Thus, this codon may be changed to code for a different amino acid by around six single-base substitutions.
Therefore, single base substitution mutation is the less deleterious effect if the codon changes specify the same amino acid, hence option c is correct.
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Whales, bony fishes, and cartilaginous fishes all have similar adaptations that enable them to live in the ocean. Figure 1 shows the phylogenetic relationships of selected vertebrates.
Based on the phylogenetic relationships shown in Figure 1, which of the following best explains the similarities exhibited by whales, bony fishes, and cartilaginous fishes?
Convergent evolution, because these organisms do not share a recent common ancestor.
Adaptive radiation, because all three groups evolved from a unique, shared common ancestor from the cartilaginous fishes group.
Mutation, because the shared traits can be traced back to a shared tecent common ancestor
Founder effect, because all three groups formerly existed together as one population that then wan disrupted, causing speciation
Convergent evolution, because these organisms do not share a recent common ancestor.
What is convergent evolution?Convergent evolution is the independent evolution of similar features in species of different periods or epochs in time. Convergent evolution creates analogous structures that have similar form or function but were not present in the last common ancestor of those groups.
Moreover, convergent evolution occurs when species occupy similar ecological niches and adapt in similar ways in response to similar selective pressures. Traits that arise through convergent evolution are referred to as 'analogous structures'. They are contrasted with 'homologous structures', which have a common origin.
Therefore, convergent evolution—in which distinct lineages independently evolve similar traits—has fascinated evolutionary biologists for centuries, in large part because convergent evolution is often thought to represent a visible manifestation of the power of natural selection.
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Part A
Which Of The Following Student-Drawn Cell Models Contain Two Chromosomes? Select All That Apply.
Answer:
the last one , the second to last one and the first one I am pretty sure
A, C and D are the student-Drawn Cell Models that Contain Two Chromosomes.
Every cell in your body has DNA, which is the form in which your genetic code is stored. It creates your body's manual of operations. Each cell's nucleus contains chromosomes, which are structures that resemble threads and contain the DNA molecule.
A chromosome is referred to be a "homologous chromosome" if it has a similar genetic makeup but also includes replication-induced variations. Sister chromatids are the two halves of a certain chromosome that are joined at the centromere. Chromosomes known as "replication chromosomes" arise after the cell has undergone the process of DNA replication to prepare for cell division.
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assume that blood pressure drops in a person because of an injury, and given the drop in blood pressure, indicate whether the statement on the body’s responses is true or false.
The statement on the drop in blood pressure of of a person due to injury is true.
What is blood pressure?The force or pressure of the blood inside the arteries is measured as blood pressure. The heart pumps blood into the arteries that carry it throughout your body each time it beats. This occurs 60 to 100 times each minute, every single day. The entire body receives oxygen and nutrients through the arteries so that it can function.
The blood pressure fluctuates throughout the day. Depending on what an individual doing, it changes. Exercise and excitement both cause an increase in blood pressure. The blood pressure drops while an individual is sleeping.
Blood pressure can also affected by:
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Assume that blood pressure drops in a person because of an injury, and given the drop in blood pressure, indicate whether the statement on the body's responses is true or false.
The sympathetic nervous system stimulates the adrenal glands
parathyroid hormone (pth) binds to receptors on osteoblasts.
a. true
b. false
Parathyroid hormone binds to the receptors of the osteoblast. This is a completely true statement because this parathyroid hormone regulates the calcium homeostasis in the body by regulating the level of calcium.
What is a hormone?Hormones can be of different types, such as peptide hormones, amino acid hormones, etc., and these are secreted by the endocrine glands in the animal body and regulate the functions of different organs. The parathyroid hormone regulates calcium levels by acting on osteoblasts to release calcium into the blood, increasing calcium levels and regulating cellular activities.
hence Parathyroid hormone binds to the receptors of the osteoblast. This is completely true.
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Incomplete Dominance and Codominance
You are studying leaf development in a member of the mustard family. You identify several mutants of interest in this plant and make pure (true-breeding) lines of each mutant for further study.
Part A - Determining relationships between alleles
You decide to conduct a genetic analysis of these mutant lines by crossing each with a pure wild-type line. The numbers in the F2 indicate the number of progeny in each phenotypic class.
From these results, determine the relationship between the mutant allele and its corresponding wild-type allele in each line.
Label each mutant line with the best statement from the list below. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
1. COMPLETE DOMINANCE
2. COMPLETE DOMINANCE
3. INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE
What do you mean by complete and incomplete dominance?In complete dominance, there is no difference in phenotype between AA and Aa individuals. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype in a heterozygous individual is visibly less intense than that in an individual homozygous for the dominant allele, so that AA and Aa genotypes produce different phenotypes.
Moreover, the phenomenon of inheritance of completely linked genes is called complete linkage. The phenomenon of inheritance of incompletely linked genes is called incomplete linkage. 2. In complete linkage, the linked genes which are closely located on the chromosome do not separate (no crossing over) and inherit together.
Hence, dominancy is the main difference between complete and incomplete dominance. In complete dominance, one allele is dominant over the other allele.
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A cell expresses a transmembrane protein that is cleaved at the plasma membrane to release an extracellular fragment. The fragment binds to receptor proteins on nearby cells and activates signaling pathways resulting in altered gene expression patterns in the cells. What form of intercellular signaling does this represent?
a. Contact-dependent signaling
b. Paracrine signaling
c. Endocrine signaling
d. Synaptic signaling
When a cell releases a fragment of a transmembrane protein to the outside, where it binds to the cell and activates it is an example of paracrine signaling. Option B is true, as it activates the nearby cells.
What is paracrine signaling?
Signaling is classified into many types based on how it performs its functions: endocrine, paracrine, and autocrine etc. Paracrine signaling molecules (here the fragment) are released from one cell and activate another cell in close proximity. As here, the fragment is released and activates a nearby cell, so it must be paracrine. As here, no contact is mentioned between two cells, so it can't be a contact-dependent signal. Endocrine signaling can happen at a greater distance and synaptic signalling involves synapse.
Hence, the correct answer is that it is a paracrine signal.
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Paleogenomics is based on the recovery and sequencing of dna from fossil remains of extinct species. True / False
The instructions are in the picture.
REAL ANSWERS ONLY!
NO LINKS!!!!
A: -70 mV
B: depolarizing stimulus
D: hyperpolarization
E: -55 mV
F: +30 mV
describe how genetic information is coded in dna, listing the characteristics of the code and explaining its degeneracy.
The genetic information is coded in DNA because this molecule contains all the info to synthesize proteins, the genetic code is degenerated because different codons can be used to synthesize the same amino acid during the translation.
Why the genetic code is degenerated?The genetic code is degenerated because different triplets of nucleotides in the DNA sequence can be used to synthesize the same amino acid, which are called synonym codons.
The DNA molecule contains fragments called genes that generate proteins by the successive processes of transcription and translation, as well as regulatory non coding sequences that control the process of transcription
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the genetic code is degenerated because there are different codons are also able to generate the same amino acid during the process of protein synthesis, i.e., during the translation.
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the blank______ is a region of contact between the afferent arteriole and the distal convoluted tubule.
The Juxtaglomerular apparatus is a region of contact between the afferent arteriole and the distal convoluted tubule.
What is the Juxtaglomerular apparatus?Juxtaglomerular apparatus serves as the special sensitive region that can be seen as a result of the production that is ben made by the cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule as well as the afferent arteriole which is found in the location of their contact.
It should be noted that it can be seen as the region that is been found in between the arteriole and convoluted tubule.
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Which of the following is an example of vicarious reinforcement?
Answer:
Vicarious reinforcement real-life examples include: Your child learns to say “please” because he/she saw a sibling say the same and get rewarded for it. The child learns to eat his/her vegetables to get dessert because he/she saw a sibling finish their veggies and was allowed the sweets.
Explanation:
42. the primary motor cortex is arranged such that neurons near one another send signals to areas of muscles that are close to each other. this arrangement illustrates the:
The notion of topographic organisation is illustrated by the primary motor cortex's configuration, which allows neurons that are close to one another to communicate with adjacent regions of the muscle tissue.
What is primary motor cortex?At the primary motor cortex, motor representation is neatly structured (inverted) along a fold in the cortex known as the central sulcus, running from the toe (at the top of the cerebral hemisphere) to mouth (at the bottom).
Particular cortical regions may, however, govern some body parts in a somewhat overlapping manner. Before the start of a movement, primary motor cortex neurons fire 5 to 100 ms in advance. These neurons are therefore engaged in relaying motor orders to the alpha motor neurons, which in turn cause the proper muscles to contract, rather than firing as a result of muscular activation.
Therefore, The notion of topographic organisation is illustrated by the primary motor cortex's configuration, which allows neurons that are close to one another to communicate with adjacent regions of the muscle tissue.
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Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
A) interference with viral replication.
B) bacterial cell lysis.
C) opsonization.
D) increased phagocytic activity.
E) increased blood vessel permeability.
Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT interference with viral replication (Option A).
What is the complement activation of the immune system?The complement activation of the immune system is defined as a group of specific immune proteins that are activated when a pathogen bind to antibodies or directly by these pathogenic agents.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the complement activation of the immune system is activated by different types of pathogenic agents but it does not cause interference with viral replication.
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Write two paragraphs on fossils: What are they? How are they formed? Where are they found? What we learn from fossils
Fossils are traces or remains of ancient (dead) organisms. Examples of fossils can be a tooth of a dinosaur, a foot print, bones, stone imprints, shells or even animal waste!
Fossils can be formed in many ways! The two major types of fossils are body fossils and trace fossils.
Let's start with the simpler one!
Trace fossils- They are left-behind tracks, trails or burrows of the actual organism.
Body fossils are the remains of the actual organism. Usually, the soft part of the organism, such as the skin, tissue, muscle, rots away after the animal/creature dies. The hard part, such as the skeleton or bones are more likely to get preserved. Examples of body fossils can be molds and casts.
Fossils can be found all around the world! However, fossils are usually located in sedimentary rocks. They can also be formed in metamorphic rocks, but that's not the usual case. They will never be present in igneous rocks since they are made of substances like molten lava- cooled down.
The study of fossils is known as "paleontology." Scientists who studies fossils are known as "paleontologist"
Fossils can be used to find out when an animal was extinct, where it lived, how it lived, the cause of it's death, how long it lived and even when it first appeared.
After Gerry mows his lawn, he often puts the grass clippings into his flower garden.
How will this affect his garden?
1. It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
2. It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
3. It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
4. It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
It will decrease the amount of carbon in the soil and decrease the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
What Do Grass Clippings Mean?When you mow your lawn, the cut grasses that are left over or collected in a grass catcher are known as grass clippings. When you mow your lawn according to the "one-third" rule, the grass cuttings are brief (never mow more than one-third height off of your grass in a single mowing session).Utilizing mulch is one method of garden management since it reduces the amount of organic debris that comes into touch with the soil, giving the species more time to separate it. The mulch will eventually break down and release its nutrients into the soil, but this process happens very gradually and improves the soil's organic matter.To learn more about grass clippings refer to:
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Answer: D) It will increase the amount of carbon in the soil and increase the amount of carbon dioxide released by decomposers.
Explanation:
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Which of the following statements about feedback regulation of a metabolic pathway is correct?
A) The compound that regulates the pathway acts as a competitive inhibitor or a positive allosteric regulator.
B) The enzyme that is regulated by feedback inhibition is usually the last enzyme in the metabolic pathway.
C) The final product of a metabolic pathway is usually the compound that regulates the pathway.
D) The products of the pathway become the reactants for a different reaction, and thus products are unable to accumulate.
E) Accumulation of the product of the pathway increases further formation of that product.
Answer:
Correct answer is: B) The final product of a metabolic pathway is usually the compound that regulates the pathway.
Explanation:
Feedback regulation of a metabolic pathway is a mechanism by which the end product of a pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes an early step in the pathway, thus preventing the overaccumulation of the product. This is an example of negative feedback, which maintains homeostasis and optimizes the efficiency of the pathway.
For example, in the synthesis of the amino acid isoleucine from threonine, the final product isoleucine binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme in the pathway, threonine deaminase, and inhibits its activity. This reduces the rate of the pathway and prevents the excess production of isoleucine.
believing that dichotomous, or “black-and-white,” thinking plays a key role in producing and maintaining dependent personality disorder comes from the _____ perspective.
Believing that dichotomous, or “black-and-white,” thinking plays a key role in producing and maintaining dependent personality disorder comes from the cognitive-behavioral perspective.
How do those who have dependent personality disorder behave?According to CBT theory, how we think and act affects how we feel. Our thoughts, emotions, bodily sensations, and behavior are all interconnected. Numerous studies have shown that CBT is a successful treatment for ailments ranging from anxiety and depression to pain as well as insomnia.
Therefore, A specific form of anxious personality disorder is dependent personality disorder (DPD). People with DPD frequently experience helplessness, submission, or an inability to care for themselves. Simple decisions might be challenging for them. However, a person with a dependent personality can develop self-assurance and independence with assistance.
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