what term applies to a microbe that can synthesize all of its cellular constituents from a simple carbon source and inorganic salts?

Answers

Answer 1

Microbes that can synthesis all of their cellular components from a straightforward carbon source & inorganic salts are known as autotrophs.

What are autotrophs and how do they synthesize food?

An organism that uses carbon from simple things like carbon dioxide and energy from light or inorganic chemical processes to make complex organic compounds (such carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins) is known as an autotroph.

An organism that can produce its own food from simple organic materials, such as most plants and some microorganisms, requires only minerals as nutrients for growth and uses carbonate or carbon dioxide as a carbon source and simple inorganic nitrogen as a source of nitrogen. The energy needed for this process is obtained from photosynthesis.

Types of autotrophs are-

1. Photoautotrophs 2. Chemoautotrophs

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Related Questions

4. animal models of infection a.discuss at least three ideal attributes of an animal model b.what should the criteria be for a nonhuman animal model to be acceptable as a stand-infor humans? under what conditions would you favor allowing human volunteers to beused as guinea pigs?

Answers

Ideal attributes of an animal model include reproducibility, accuracy, and a low cost of maintenance.

What is attribute?
An attribute is a characteristic or quality that is given to a specific individual, group, or object. Your willingness to assist others, as evidenced by the moment you halted traffic so that the duck family might cross the street, may be your best quality.

The Latin verb attribuere, that also includes the prefix commercial, meaning "to," and tribuere, meaning "give or bestow," is the source of the English word attribute. To attribute is a verb that means to give credit, as in: I attribute my A on the test to all my diligent studying. In Greek and Roman mythology, an attribute, like Zeus' lightning bolt as well as Poseidon's trident, will frequently stand in for a character.

a. Ideal attributes of an animal model include reproducibility, accuracy, and a low cost of maintenance. Reproducibility means that the results of the experiment should be repeatable and reliable, and that the model should be able to be used many times. Accuracy means that the model should accurately reflect the effects of a pathogen in humans. A low cost of maintenance is important because animal models are expensive to maintain and operate.

b. Criteria for a nonhuman animal model to be acceptable as a stand-in for humans include similarity in anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology to humans, as well as similar sensitivity to drugs and the pathogen being studied. Additionally, the animal should be able to be bred and maintained in captivity, and the results of the experiment should be reproducible.

Under what conditions would you favor allowing human volunteers to be used as guinea pigs? Human volunteers should only be used in research when it is absolutely necessary, and when the risks of the experiment can be minimized. Additionally, ethical considerations must be taken into account, and the volunteers should be fully informed of the risks and benefits of their participation.

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lichens may be an association of multiple choice several different fungi. protozoa and bacteria. algae and fungus. virus and algae.

Answers

Lichens may be an association of algae and fungus.

The correct option is C.

What are lichens?

Lichens are a complex life form that result from the symbiotic partnership of two different creatures, a fungus and an alga . Lichens can potentially be found on practically any surface (particularly rocks), and unlike algae, which can only grow in aquatic or extremely damp settings (meaning that they grow on other plants). The symbiotic interaction between lichens and algae sometimes resembles a mutualism (a relationship in which both organisms benefit).

What is the function of lichen?

Some lichen species are thought to be responsible for turning rocks into soil, aiding in its creation, enhancing its quality, and enriching the soil needed for plant growth. Through the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen, lichens contribute significantly to the nitrogen cycle.

What is a fact about lichen?

Small creatures known as lichen are typically found in North American woodlands. They are organisms that are unlike any other on Earth and are neither plants nor animals. Lichen is actually a combination of an algae and a fungus, despite the fact that most people mistakenly believe it to be a sort of moss.

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I understand that the question you are looking for is:

lichens may be an association of:

1.several different fungi

2.protozoa and bacteria

3. algae and fungus

4.virus and algae

Do somatic mutations occur in gametes?.

Answers

No, Somatic mutations are not passed on to gametes because they occur in the body cells and not the reproductive cells. The body cells produce gametes, but the gametes do not contain the somatic mutations.

Gametes are produced by a process called meiosis, which is a type of cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in a cell. This ensures that each gamete contains only one copy of each chromosome, and thus only one copy of each gene. Because somatic mutations involve a change in the DNA sequence of a gene, they cannot be passed on to offspring via gametes.Therefore, the gametes are not affected by the somatic mutations and the offspring will not inherit the mutations.

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the clogging of blood vessels causes a cascade of symptoms; blood flow to body parts is reduced, resulting in periodic fever, severe pain, and damage to the heart, brain, and kidneys. the abnormal cells are destroyed by the body, causing anemia and general weakness.

Answers

Due to interactions between biological systems, the abnormal cells are destroyed by the body, leading to anaemia and general weakness.

What is biological systems?

A group of organs cooperating to carry out a single task is referred to as a biological system. For instance, the circulatory system carries nutrients and waste products to and from the body's cells, the skeletal system protects and supports the body, and the muscular system aids in movement.

Coronary artery disease is caused by an accumulation of fats, cholesterol, and other substances on the inner walls of the heart arteries. This condition is known as atherosclerosis. Plaque describes the buildup. Plaque can narrow the arteries, restricting blood flow.

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uncontrolled conversion of utputp to ctpctp blank pools of cytidine and blank nucleotides and blank pools of uridine and blank. the depletion of endogenous blank nucleotides explains the growth requirement for exogenous blank. the perturbed blank pool imbalance (blank // blank pool ratio is elevated) causes dnadna replication errors, principally cc incorporated opposite aa , that lead to mutations.

Answers

Uncontrolled UTP to CTP conversion raises cytidine and deoxycytidine nucleotide pools while lowering uridine and thymidine nucleotide pools.

The need for exogenous thymidine during growth is explained by the depletion of endogenous thymidine nucleotides. During the extension step, the use of dNTP produces single bases that are prepared to enter DNA and double it. The dNTP gives nucleotides to the "unzipped" strand using the template of a single side as the technique's goal is to manufacture fresh DNA. To maintain genomic integrity, intracellular deoxyribo nucleotide triphosphate (dNTP) pools must be closely maintained. Changes in dNTP pools are, in fact, linked to a rise in mutagenesis, genomic instability, and tumorigenesis.

The complete question is:

Why do mutant cells have unbalanced nucleotide pools and require thymidine in growth medium?

Uncontrolled conversion of UTP to CTP elevates pools of cytidine nucleotides, which is an allosteric inhibitor of rNDP reductase and thus the accumulation of cytidine nucleotides prevents the cell from synthezing all of the three remaining nucleotides including thymidine nucleotides, which is the most widespread in mammalian DNA.Uncontrolled conversion of UTP to CTP elevates pools of cytidine and deoxycytidine nucleotides, while pools of uridine and thymidine nucleotide pools are diminished. The depletion of endogenous thymidine nucleotides explains the growth requirement for exogenous thymidine.Uncontrolled conversion of UTP to CTP exhausts cells' pool of 5,10-methylene-THF which is also required for thymidine nucleotide synthesis. The depletion of endogenous 5,10-methylene-THF means that TTP and dTTP can no longer be synthesized and have to be supplied with.Uncontrolled conversion of UTP to CTP elevates pools of cytidine nucleotides leading to unbalanced pyrimidine nucleotide composition associated with toxic effects. In order to survive and overcome these toxic effects a cell needs additional source of dTTP.

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All of the following statements are true about the relationships between [S], Km, Vo, and Vmax EXCEPT: A) As [S] increases, Vo gets closer to Vmax B) Vmax occurs when the enzyme is saturated with substrate C) Km is the [S] at which Vo = Vmax/2 D) Vo is closest to Vmax when [S] is less than Km E) None of the above b. Ubiquitin is a ________ that is attached to proteins that will be targeted for degradation in the _______. A) signal; lysozyme B) target; lysozyme C) protein; proteosome D) small molecule; proteosome E) None of the above

Answers

Substrate concentration raises Vo and continues to rise until it reaches V max, according to the graph of (S) versus Vo. When all enzymes are used up by substrates, Vmax is reached. When Vo equals 50% of V max, the substrate concentration is known as K m.

Vmax (maximum velocity) and Km (substrate concentration giving reaction rate of 1/2 Vmax) are indicated on the enzyme kinetics graph showing the rate of reaction as a function of substrate concentration.

Question B:

Proteosome, small molecule, or both .Ubiquitin is a tiny protein molecule that binds to a target protein and aids the proteosome in breaking down intracellular molecules.

By controlling protein degradation (via the proteasome and lysosome), coordinating protein localization, activating and inactivating proteins, and modifying protein-protein interactions, ubiquitination has an impact on cellular processes.

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The definition of a ______ is a population whose members can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

Answers

The answer is: Species.

why is the discovery of fossils of marine organisms at the top of a tall mountain indicative of tectonic activity

Answers

The marine organisms must have lived in ocean sediment, therefore the rocks they are in have been faulted and folded into their current position This is how marine fossils are found on the mountain top.

When animals die, descend to the bottom where there is little oxygen, and are buried by sediment, marine fossils are created. The dead remnants of plants and animals are known as fossils. Natural processes have preserved the fossils. If silt builds up over time, eventually the weight of the deposit will compress it, and when combined with well-known chemical processes, it may be cemented into sandstone. What was formerly the sea floor may later become a mountain if the sea floor is elevated by any of a number of (again, well-understood) geological processes. Where fossils have been forming for three billion years, such a mountain can form in a few million years.

The complete question is:

Why is the discovery of fossils of marine organisms at the top of a tall mountain indicative of tectonic activity?  

(A). The marine organisms must have lived at the beach, but the ocean water lowered leaving the mountain behind.

(B). The marine organisms must have lived at the top of the mountain, therefore the rocks they are in must have formed from sediment from the top of the mountain.

(C). The marine organisms must have lived in sediment in rivers on the side of the mountain, therefore the rocks they are in must be transported to the oceans.

(D). The marine organisms must have lived in ocean sediment, therefore the rocks they are in have been faulted and folded into their current position.

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A fracture to which of following bones is a common injury in automobile accidents?
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Humerus
D. the 1st rib

Answers

Answer: Im pretty sure it is  Clavicle.

Explanation:

Because when you get in a car accident you would bang your head forward causing you to break your Clavicle

The bone that is commonly fractured in automobile accidents is the clavicle or collarbone.

What are automobile accidents?

Automobile accidents, also known as car accidents or road traffic accidents, occur when a motor vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, road debris, or other stationary obstruction, such as a tree, pole or building.

In automobile accidents, the force of impact can cause various types of injuries to the human body, including fractures. A fracture is a break in the continuity of the bone, and it can occur to any bone in the body. However, certain bones are more susceptible to fractures in automobile accidents than others.

The clavicle, or collarbone, is one such bone that is commonly fractured in automobile accidents. This is because the clavicle is located just under the skin and is relatively unprotected. In addition, the force of the impact in an accident is often directed towards the chest area, which can result in a fracture of the clavicle.

Other bones that can be fractured in automobile accidents include the humerus (upper arm bone) and the scapula (shoulder blade). However, the first rib is not a bone that is commonly fractured in automobile accidents. The first rib is located deep in the chest and is relatively well-protected by the surrounding structures, such as muscles and other bones.

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Pls help asap ! lots of points

which of the following is a disadvantage of using a sustainable practice in food production?

A) recycling runoff can decrease pollutants entering waterways

B) avoiding waterlogged spoil can reduce the risk of crop parasites

C) repairing leaky drip irrigation systems can be expensive

D) Conserving water can reduce the risk of desertification

Answers

A disadvantage of using a sustainable practice in food production is:

repairing leaky drip irrigation systems can be expensive; the correct option is C

What is food production?

Food production refers to the process by which food is produced either by the process of rearing of animals or the growing of crops.

Sustainable practices in food production refer to the practices that help to conserve material used in food production.

Some sustainable practices in food production include:

Use of eco-friendly packaging in the packaging of foodsReduce food waste by ensuring that what is needed is what is takenImprove energy & water efficiency such as by irrigation and use of renewable energy sourcesreliance and production of more plant-based foods athan animal-based-foods

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What is an enzyme binding site?.

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Because it comprises amino acids that both bind the substrate and help in its conversion into product, the binding region on enzymes is sometimes referred to as the active site. By looking at a protein's name, you can frequently tell if it is an enzyme.

A enzyme binding site is a location on a macromolecule, such as a protein, that specifically interacts to another molecule in biochemistry and molecular biology in enzyme. A ligand is a common name for the macromolecule's binding partner.

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match each enzyme of glycolysis with its description.
a. hexokinase
b. phosphoglucose isomerase
c. phosphofructokinase
d. triose phosphate isomeras
e. phosphoglycerate kinase
f. phosphoglycerate mutase
g. enolase
h. pyruvate kinase
i. adolase
j. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
1. catalyzes the interconversion of three-cartbon isomers
2. gcnerates the first intermediate compound with a high phosphofructokinase phosphoryl-transfer potential
3. converts glucose 6-phosphate into fructose 6-phosphate
4. converts 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate
5. enerates the second molccule of ATP
6. forms fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
7. phosphorylates glucose
8. cleaves fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
9. generates the second intermediate compound with a high phosphoryl-transfer potential
10. generates the first molecule of ATP

Answers

a. hexokinase  converts glucose 6-phosphate into fructose 6-phosphate

b. Phosphoglucose isomerase: Converts glucose 6-phosphate into fructose 6-phosphate

c.  Phosphofructokinase: Forms fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

d. Aldolase: Cleaves fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

e. Triose phosphate isomerase: Catalyzes the interconversion of three-carbon isomers

f.  Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase: Generates the first high phosphoryl-transfer potential compound that is not ATP

g. Phosphoglycerate kinase: Generates the first molecule of ATP

h.  Phosphoglycerate mutase: Converts 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate

i.  Enolase: Generates the second high-phosphoryl transfer-potential compound that is not ATP

j.  Pyruvate kinase: Generates the second molecule of ATP

What is hexokinase?

hexokinase is described as an enzyme that phosphorylates hexoses, forming hexose phosphate. In most organisms, glucose is the most important substrate for hexokinases, and glucose-6-phosphate is the most important product.

Hexokinase has the ability to transfer an inorganic phosphate group from ATP to a substrate.

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What is mutations ?.

Answers

A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence.

I hope this helps!!!

rna polymerase ii by itself does not have a strong affinity for binding dna. select the explanation that describes why cells do not need for rna polymerase ii to have a strong affinity for binding dna for transcription to occur.

Answers

RNA polymerase II by itself does not have a strong affinity for binding DNA due to the requirement of general transcription factors to bind RNA polymerase II to the DNA molecule gives the cell more precise control over transcription (Option D).

What is RNA polymerase II?

RNA polymerase II is an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of messenger RNA or mRNA during trasncription, which is then used as a template to generate a protein during the process of translation.

RNA polymerase II does not exhibit a strong affinity for binding DNA  because this protein binds to different factors during transcription, thereby enhancing the affinity of the protein-DNA interaction during specific stages of the process.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that RNA polymerase II does not exhibit a strong affinity for DNA but it triggers transcription by binding other factors during this process.

Complete question:

RNA Polymerase II by itself does not have a strong affinity for binding DNA. Select the explanation that describes why cells do not need for RNA polymerase II to have a strong affinity for binding DNA for transcription to occur.

A) RNA Polymerase II always works in tandem with RNA Polymerase I or III so that it is not required to have a strong affinity for binding to DNA.

B) Natural selection has not yet had time to work sufficiently to produce an RNA Polymerase that has a strong affinity for binding DNA.

C) RNA Polymerase II binds to the sigma factor, which facilitates its binding to DNA.

D) The requirement of general transcription factors to bind RNA polymerase II to the DNA molecule gives the cell more precise control over transcription.

E) RNA Polymerase II tightly binds to RNA, it is not required to bind to DNA to properly carry out its functions.

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RNA polymerase II by itself does not have a strong affinity for binding DNA due to the requirement of general transcription factors to bind RNA polymerase II to the DNA molecule gives the cell more precise control over transcription (Option D).

What is RNA polymerase II?

RNA polymerase II is an enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of messenger RNA or mRNA during trasncription, which is then used as a template to generate a protein during the process of translation.

RNA polymerase II does not exhibit a strong affinity for binding DNA  because this protein binds to different factors during transcription, thereby enhancing the affinity of the protein-DNA interaction during specific stages of the process.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that RNA polymerase II does not exhibit a strong affinity for DNA but it triggers transcription by binding other factors during this process.

Complete question:

RNA Polymerase II by itself does not have a strong affinity for binding DNA. Select the explanation that describes why cells do not need for RNA polymerase II to have a strong affinity for binding DNA for transcription to occur.

A) RNA Polymerase II always works in tandem with RNA Polymerase I or III so that it is not required to have a strong affinity for binding to DNA.

B) Natural selection has not yet had time to work sufficiently to produce an RNA Polymerase that has a strong affinity for binding DNA.

C) RNA Polymerase II binds to the sigma factor, which facilitates its binding to DNA.

D) The requirement of general transcription factors to bind RNA polymerase II to the DNA molecule gives the cell more precise control over transcription.

E) RNA Polymerase II tightly binds to RNA, it is not required to bind to DNA to properly carry out its functions.

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The type of immunoglobulin illustrated in figure 16.1 is
A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgD

Answers

Immunoglobulin classes that can fix complement is IgM and IgG. IgM and IgG immunoglobins can fix complement out of the five classes of immunoglobins present through the standard pathway.

What is IgM antibody?

Fixes compliment, Intravascular lysin, Agglutination, IgG antibody. It is important to know that, IgM antibody is more effective in fixing the compliment than IgG antibody.

IgM antibody is ten percent of the immunoglobin serum that is present in total in the body. Compliment Fixation is actually a test which consists of two components namely first wherein it uses an indicator system using sheep RBC. Secondly, wherein patient serum is also added along with the Sheep RBC.

Therefore, Immunoglobulin classes that can fix complement is IgM and IgG. IgM and IgG immunoglobins can fix complement out of the five classes of immunoglobins present through the standard pathway.

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TRUE/FALSE. macrophages and dendritic cells are the only cells that can present antigen to t cells.

Answers

False the macrophages and dendritic cells are not the cells that can present antigen to t cells.

Are the only cells that present antigens macrophages?

The primary antigen-presenting cells for T cells are dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, whereas the primary antigen-presenting cells for B cells are follicular dendritic cells. The three different types of antigen-presenting cells found in the immune system are macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

Are the only cells that present antigens dendritic cells?

In fact, both in vitro and in vivo, dendritic cells are the sole antigen-presenting cells that cause resting T cells to activate. As a result, dendritic cells start the adaptive immune system and establish tolerance. Dendritic cells have created special membrane transport pathways to accomplish this.

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10. hiv herpes viruses a.explain the current absence of a vaccine for hiv. b.is hiv considered a terminal diagnosis today?

Answers

In quick, the main limitations to HIV vaccine development include the global variability of HIV, loss of an established animal version, loss of correlates of protective immunity, lack of natural defensive immune responses in opposition to HIV, and the reservoir of infected cells conferred via integration of HIV's genome into the host.

Due to the fact HIV mutates hastily, it is extremely hard to broaden an unmarried vaccine to goal all of the traces and mutations. 2 HIV is also unique in the way it hides from the immune machine, so even if you remove the circulating virus, the hidden HIV can spread the contamination.

No. there is currently no vaccine to be had so one can prevent HIV infection or treat the ones who've it. however, scientists are running to develop.

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phosphate is the nutrient limiting primary production in a small lake in northern michigan. in which way could new phosphate be made available to the primary producers in this lake?

Answers

New phosphate can be made accessible to the lake's primary producers through the decomposition of deceased fish.

How new phosphate be made available through the decomposition of deceased fish?

Animals can act as nutrient sources or sinks in ecosystems, and the nature of their function in this regard may be influenced by what happens to the nutrients in decaying corpses, which may contain resistant materials like bones.

The rates of regenerated phosphorus (P) from corpses rose with temperature and declined with fish size. Nearly all (99%) of the phosphorus (P) produced by the carcasses of gizzard shad was regenerated back into the water column during the course of the 20 years. At the ecosystem level, the dynamics of the carcass nutrients followed a seasonal pattern, with the carcass nutrient pool seeing a net reduction in the summer due to mineralization but a net increase in the winter. Young-of-year fish (YOY) had a significant impact on the dynamics of carcass production and remineralization for P due to the fact that the quantity of fish born varies much between years, YOY had high mortality rates, and YOY carcasses disintegrate quickly.

Therefore decomposition of deceased fish makes new phosphate available.

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which of the following runs through the bicipital groove? group of answer choices brachial artery tendon for the biceps brachii long head tendon for the triceps brachii lateral head tendon for the biceps brachii short head

Answers

The ascending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral artery and the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachi, which is covered in a synovial sheath, can both pass through the Bicipital groove.

The bicipital groove is traversed by which biceps brachii head?

The supraglenoid tubercle, located above the glenoid cavity of the scapula, is the location of the long head. It is extrasynovial while being in the intracapsular area. At the humeral head, the long biceps tendon curves sharply before continuing on in the bicipital groove (intertubercular sulcus).

The bicipital groove contains the biceps tendon, right?

The long head of the biceps tendon really fuses with the joint lining as it goes deep inside the shoulder joint. In the arm bone, the tendon is embedded in a deep groove.

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What is the correct meaning of the word perplexity?.

Answers

When you are perplexed you are bewildered or in other words, you are feeling confused.

ctp synthetase is allosterically activated by gtp . part a what function might this play in the cell?

Answers

This is a way to keep purine and pyrimidine nucleotide pools in balance.

What do you mean by CTP synthetase?

CTP synthase can be defined as an enzyme involved in pyrimidine biosynthesis that interconverts UTP and CTP.It regulates the intracellular rates of RNA, DNA, and phospholipid synthesis.It helps in the synthesis of glycerophospholipids. Moreover it is used for activation and transfer of diacylglycerol and lipid head groups, and glycosylation of proteins.Purine is a heterocyclic aromatic organic compound composed.Pyrimidine ring fused with imidazole ring.

This is how the process occurs.

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The following code is an example of a: SELECT CustomerName, CustomerAddress, Customer City, CustomerState, CustomerPostalCode FROM Customer T WHERE Customer_T.CustomerID = (SELECT Order T.CustomerID FROM Order_T WHERE OrderID = 1008); Correlated subquery. Non-correlated Subquery. Join. FULL OUTER JOIN.

Answers

The following code is an example of a Subquery.

A subquery is a query that is contained within another query. Sub-SELECTs and nested SELECTs are other names for subqueries. In subqueries, the entire SELECT syntax is acceptable.

SQL subqueries come in a variety of forms, including single-row, multiple-row, multiple-column, correlated, and nested subqueries. Depending on the needs of the user, the results of each type's many roles are utilized.

Data that will be used in the main query as a condition to further limit the data that can be retrieved is returned by a subquery. Along with operators like =,, >, >=, =, IN, BETWEEN, etc., subqueries can be used with the SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE statements.

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What cycles are affected by fertilizer?.

Answers

Fertilizers have a significant impact on the ecosystem's nitrogen cycle and carbon cycle

The nitrogen that has been depleted by intensive farming is replenished by fertilizers, particularly urea. Significant farming reduces the quantity of nitrogenous chemicals in the soil. The nitrogenous fertilisers restore the nitrogen that has been depleted from agricultural areas. Fertilizers are frequently utilised excessively, which might lead to negative impact on nitrogen cycle. When nitrogen from fertilisers seeps into soil, it frequently fosters weed growth rather than the development of native plants. The excess of nutrients caused by nitrogen washing into streams is known as eutrophication. However, soil fertilisation enhances carbon dioxide evolution in agricultural soil by boosting the quantity of catabolic genes involved in carbon cycling. Soil fertilisation lowers nitrogen gas emission as shown by the high abundance of nitrogen absorption genes or microbial anabolic genes.

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clinical checkups after the first and second trimesters of pregnancy were introduced to country x four years ago. medical experts claim that the following reduction of 35% in cases of premature labor, one of the main causes of still birth in country x, is directly connected to the aforementioned clinical checkups.

Answers

Clinical checkups after the first and second trimesters of pregnancy to diagnose preterm labor include:

Pelvic examUltrasoundUterine monitoringLab testsWhat are Tests and procedures to diagnose preterm labor include ?Gynecological examination: Your doctor can assess the size and position of your baby, as well as the firmness and tenderness of your uterus. If your waters haven't broken and you aren't worried about the placenta covering your cervix (placenta previa), a pelvic exam may be done to see if your cervix is ​​dilated. Your doctor may also check for uterine bleeding.Ultrasound: Transvaginal ultrasound can be used to measure cervical length. An ultrasound may also be done to look for problems with the baby or placenta, locate the baby, measure the amount of amniotic fluid, and estimate the baby's weight. Uterine monitoring: Your healthcare provider may use a uterine monitor to measure the duration and interval of labor.Laboratory test: Doctors take swabs of vaginal discharge to check for certain infections and the presence of fetal fibronectin (a substance secreted during labor that acts like glue between the amniotic sac and the lining of the uterus) You may. These results are considered in combination with other risk factors. They also provide urine samples that are tested for the presence of certain bacteria.

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How does natural selection explain why some organisms are more likely to survive and reproduce than other organisms?.

Answers

In natural choice, genetic mutations which might be beneficial to an individual's survival are surpassed via reproduction. This affects a new generation of organisms.

The concept of natural choice is that developments that can be passed down allow organisms to evolve to the surroundings higher than other organisms of the equal species. This permits higher survival and duplication in comparison with different participants of the species, main to evolution.

The hat is more likely to survive to breed. people with adaptive traits—developments that deliver them some benefit—are more likely to live to tell the tale and reproduce. those people then skip the adaptive trends directly to their offspring. over time, these tremendous traits end up more common inside the population.

Due to the fact assets are restricted, more organisms are born than can live on: a few individuals could be extra a hit at finding food, mating or averting predators and could have a higher chance to thrive, reproduce, and skip on, their DNA.

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Faith has begun exercising and eating light and brain-healthy foods. Lately, she has been feeling better rested, and it seems as though she can think about and work through problems better than before. What MOST likely explains these changes?
A.
Faith’s nervous system has eliminated pathways of neurons.

B.
Faith’s new habits have lowered her reliance on hormones.

C.
Faith’s brain has been released from managing basic physical functions.

D.
Faith’s metabolism is working at a higher level.

Answers

B because the rest don’t make sense based on the question

What is the name of the process where a strand of mrna is made from a segment of dna?.

Answers

Answer:

Transcription

Explanation:

please mark brainliest....

Answer:

Transcription

Explanation:

Let's define:

Messenger RNA:

(PART OF SPEECH): Singular nounNumber of syllables: 1 syllable

A single-stranded molecule of RNA that is synthesized in the nucleus from a DNA template and then enters the cytoplasm, where its genetic code specifies the amino acid sequence for protein synthesis.

Transcription is the process by which genetic information on a strand of DNA is used to synthesize a strand of complementary DNA.

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid):

Reverse spelling: A. N. D.Number of syllables: 1 syllable

' DNA' is usually defined as: deoxyribonucleic acid: an extremely long macromolecule that is the main component of chromosomes and is the material that transfers genetic characteristics in all life forms, constructed of two nucleotide strands coiled around each other in a ladderlike arrangement with the sidepieces composed of alternating phosphate and deoxyribose units and the rungs composed of the purine and pyrimidine bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine: the genetic information of DNA is encoded in the sequence  of the bases and is transcribed as the strands.

When transcription occurs, mRNA is produced. RNA polymerase decodes a single strand of DNA during transcription, which results in the synthesis of mRNA. Physically, mRNA is a single-stranded strand of nucleotides called ribonucleic acid.

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Answer these questions. 1. Compare and contrast the activation of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells (try to use the words MHCI, MHCII, APCs, infected body cell, extracellular, intracellular) 2. Compare and contract the destruction of a pathogen by a helper T cell and a cytotoxic T cell (try to use the words cytokines, phagocytes, and apoptosis)

Answers

T cells are divided into two main categories: the cytotoxic T cell and the helper T cell. While cytotoxic T cells destroy virally infected cells and tumors, helper T cells "help" other immune system cells.

How do cytotoxic T cells become active?

A CD8 receptor can be found on the surface of cytotoxic T cells. The CD8 receptor communicates with cells called significant histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class I atoms to perceive when sound cells are tainted. Cytotoxic T-cells are activated when an infected cell is recognized by the CD8 receptor.

What distinguishes cytotoxic T cells from helper T cells?

T cells are divided into two main categories: the cytotoxic T cell and the helper T cell. While cytotoxic T cells destroy virally infected cells and tumors, helper T cells "help" other immune system cells.

Who or what interacts with cytotoxic T cells?

Class II proteins of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) interact with cytotoxic T cells. Some of the viral proteins are broken down into peptide fragments when a virus infects a cell.

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the earliest known angiosperm (flowering plant) may have been a palm-like plant from the late triassic called sammiguelia. but true flowers don't appear in the fossil record until the:

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The earliest known angiosperm (flowering plant) comes from the early cretaceous and may have been the sammiguelia, a palm-like plant from the Late Triassic.

How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from one another?

Angiosperms are also known as flowering plants and are characterized by having seeds inside of their fruit. In contrast, gymnosperms have raw seeds on the surface of their leaves but no flowers or fruits. Gymnosperm seeds are arranged in the form of cones.

Any of the roughly 300,000 species of flowering plants, known as angiosperms or flowering plants, which make up the largest and most diverse subgroup of the Plantae kingdom. About 80% of all currently living green plants are known to be angiosperms.

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the first repair of mistakes during dna replication is made by 1. the mismatch repair system. 2. dna polymerase. 3. excision repair. 4. sos repair. 5. post-replication repair.

Answers

Answer: dna polymerase

Explanation:

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