What's the term for the tendency of a study population to affect an outcome due to the knowledge of being studied?

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Answer 1

The term for the tendency of a study population to affect an outcome due to the knowledge of being studied is called the Hawthorne effect.

The Hawthorne effect is a phenomenon where participants alter their behavior or performance in response to their awareness of being observed or studied. This can affect the validity and reliability of study results, especially in behavioral and social research. The Hawthorne effect was first identified in the 1920s during a series of experiments at the Hawthorne Works factory in Illinois, where workers' productivity increased when they were being observed, regardless of changes in working conditions. Researchers now take steps to minimize the Hawthorne effect, such as blinding participants to the study's purpose or using control groups.

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A woman with sickle cell disease has children with a man who has sickle cell trait. Answer the following questions 3. What are the genotypes of the parents? b. What is the genetic makeup of the gametes the mother can produce? c. What is the genetic makeup of the gametes the father can produce? in the Punnett square, show all the possible genotypes of their children. Then summarize the genotype and phenotype ratios of the possible offspring Possible genotypes and ratio: Possible phenotypes and ratio What are the chances that any one of this couple's children will have sickle cell disease? this couple moves to the lowlands of East Africa and has children, which of their children would be more likely to survive? Explain your answer.

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1. If one or both of the parents has sickle cell trait (SCT), there is a 50% (or 1 in 2) probability that any of the kid will also have sickle cell trait if the child receives the sickle cell gene from one of the parents.

2. Sickle cell trait (SCT) is caused by heterozygous haemoglobin S and C genotypes (HbAS and HbAC), whereas sickle cell anaemia (SCA) is caused by homozygous haemoglobin S and C genotypes (HbSS & HbSC).

3. Children have a 50% probability of inheriting sickle cell trait and a 50% chance of inheriting sickle cell anaemia if one parent has sickle cell trait (HbAS) and the other has sickle cell anaemia (HbSS). Genetics. The typical inheritance is two copies.

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What do you feel is most important skill and ultrasound technician should possess?

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One of the most important skills that an ultrasound technician should possess is strong communication skills. This involves the ability to effectively communicate with patients to ensure they understand the procedure, as well as the ability to communicate effectively with other healthcare professionals, such as radiologists, to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

Another important skill is attention to detail. Ultrasound technicians must be able to identify abnormalities and variations in the images they capture and communicate them to physicians, which requires a high level of accuracy and attention to detail.
Additionally, ultrasound technicians should have excellent technical skills and knowledge of ultrasound equipment and techniques. They must also be able to work independently and make decisions regarding patient care and imaging protocols.

Finally, having a compassionate and caring attitude towards patients is also an important skill for an ultrasound technician. Patients may be nervous or anxious about the procedure, and it is important for the technician to be able to provide reassurance and support throughout the process.

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If you heard: amenorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia, and enlargement of the pituitary gland on brain imaging, what would you be thinking?

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The combination of amenorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia, and enlargement of the pituitary gland on brain imaging strongly suggests the possibility of a pituitary tumor, and further evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary.

The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and produces hormones that regulate various bodily functions, including menstruation and vision.

A tumor in the pituitary gland can disrupt the normal production of hormones and put pressure on nearby structures, such as the optic nerves, leading to visual disturbances such as bitemporal hemianopsia. The disruption of hormone production can also lead to amenorrhea, the absence of menstrual periods in women.

Enlargement of the pituitary gland on brain imaging is a common finding in pituitary tumors. Additional symptoms may include headache, fatigue, weight gain, and decreased libido.

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cardiomyopathy due to hemochromatosis can be reversed if caught early, however _______ cannot

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Cardiomyopathy due to hemochromatosis can be reversed if caught early and treated appropriately. Hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder characterized by excess iron accumulation in various organs of the body.

In the case of cardiomyopathy, iron overload can lead to damage and dysfunction of the heart muscle. If diagnosed early, treatment may include phlebotomy to reduce iron levels in the body, chelation therapy to remove excess iron, and lifestyle modifications. However, some forms of cardiomyopathy, such as dilated cardiomyopathy, may not be reversible even with early intervention. Treatment for these types of cardiomyopathy may focus on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.

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Best likelihood of survival of colorectal carcinoma?

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The likelihood of survival in colorectal carcinoma depends on many factors, including the stage of the cancer at the time of diagnosis, the size and location of the tumor, the presence of any metastasis, and the overall health of the patient.

The earlier the cancer is detected and treated, the better the prognosis. Generally, the five-year survival rate for localized colon cancer is around 90%, while the five-year survival rate for metastatic colon cancer is around 14%. However, each case is unique, and the prognosis can vary widely depending on the individual circumstances. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare team to understand their specific prognosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

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What was the Keppel and Underwood 1962 study and what did it show about short term memory?

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In a study that is similar to Peterson's, Keppel and Underwood (1962) investigated the impact of proactive interference on long-term memory.

According to their findings, proactive interference may have taken place because the similarity of the information provided and the transfer of previous sounds to long-term memory interfered with the memory for new consonants.

According to Keppel and Underwood (1962), more previously acquired associations lead to higher PI since the amount of PI is directly correlated with the number of possible interfering connections. Underwood offered support for a further mechanism—unlearning—in 1959. He demonstrated how as new learning progressed, the prior learning actually became inaccessible for recall. However, more research indicated that proactive behaviour was the more potent factor causing forgetting.

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What is the defect in Chronic Granulomatous disease? What is the pathophysiology?

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CGD results in impaired phagocytic cell function due to a deficiency in NADPH oxidase, leading to recurrent infections and granuloma formation in various organs of the body.

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a rare inherited disorder that affects the immune system's ability to fight off certain types of bacteria and fungi.

The defect in CGD lies in the phagocytic cells, which are specialized immune cells that engulf and destroy invading pathogens. In CGD, the phagocytic cells are unable to produce an enzyme called NADPH oxidase, which is essential for generating reactive oxygen species (ROS) that kill bacteria and fungi.

Without the ability to produce ROS, the phagocytic cells cannot effectively eliminate these pathogens, leading to recurrent infections and the formation of granulomas. Granulomas are clusters of immune cells that form in response to the persistent presence of infectious agents. These granulomas can occur in various organs of the body, including the lungs, liver, and lymph nodes.

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What are the 2 most important factors for osteoclastic differentiation and where do these 2 factors come from?

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The two most important factors for osteoclastic differentiation are receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa B ligand (RANKL) and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF).

RANKL is produced by osteoblasts, bone marrow stromal cells, and T cells, while M-CSF is produced by osteoblasts and bone marrow stromal cells. Together, RANKL and M-CSF are critical for the differentiation of osteoclast precursor cells into mature osteoclasts, which are responsible for bone resorption. Inhibition of either RANKL or M-CSF can prevent osteoclast differentiation and may be used as a therapeutic approach for bone disorders characterized by excessive bone resorption, such as osteoporosis and bone metastases.

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Viscerosomatic reflex: the transverse colon

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The viscerosomatic reflex is a type of reflex that connects internal organs to the musculoskeletal system. It is a reflex that causes pain or discomfort in the muscles and joints of the body due to issues with an internal organ.

The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that passes horizontally across the abdominal cavity. It plays an essential role in absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. When there is an issue with the transverse colon, it can trigger the viscerosomatic reflex and cause pain or discomfort in the surrounding muscles and joints, such as the lower back or abdominal muscles. Therefore, it is essential to identify and treat any issues with the transverse colon to prevent the viscerosomatic reflex from causing discomfort or pain in the body.

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criteria for long term O2 supplementation in COPD patients

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The criteria for long-term oxygen supplementation in COPD patients are as follows:

Arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO₂) of ≤ 55 mm Hg or arterial oxygen saturation (SaO₂) of ≤ 88% at rest or with exertion.

Arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO₂) of 56-59 mm Hg or arterial oxygen saturation (SaO₂) of 89% with signs of tissue hypoxia (e.g., cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension, edema in the legs, or polycythemia).

Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO₂) of > 45 mm Hg with evidence of respiratory failure.

Patients with cor pulmonale, pulmonary hypertension, or erythrocytosis who have SaO₂ < 90%.

These criteria are based on the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines for the diagnosis and management of COPD. Long-term oxygen supplementation can improve survival, exercise capacity, and quality of life in COPD patients with hypoxemia.

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What is the pathophysiology of CHF in general terms?

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Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a complex and multifactorial clinical syndrome that results from an impaired ability of the heart to pump blood effectively.

The pathophysiology of CHF involves a complex interplay of various physiological and pathological mechanisms that ultimately result in impaired cardiac function. These mechanisms include structural changes in the heart, alterations in neurohormonal regulation, and abnormalities in cellular metabolism and energy production.

Structurally, CHF is characterized by ventricular hypertrophy and remodeling, which lead to changes in the shape and size of the heart chambers, impairing cardiac function. The neurohormonal changes in CHF include activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, sympathetic nervous system, and vasopressin, all of which contribute to fluid retention, vasoconstriction, and increased workload on the heart.

Additionally, abnormalities in cellular metabolism and energy production in CHF can lead to reduced contractile function, impaired relaxation, and altered ion channel activity. Overall, the pathophysiology of CHF is complex and multifactorial, involving structural, neurohormonal, and cellular abnormalities that impair cardiac function and contribute to the clinical manifestations of the syndrome.

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What healthcare team member can help with counseling

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Various healthcare team members, such as psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, psychiatrists, nurses, nurse practitioners, and spiritual/religious advisors, can provide counselling support depending on the patient's needs and the medical setting.

Depending on the circumstance, a variety of healthcare team members can offer counselling support. Psychologists and licenced clinical social workers (LCSWs) are qualified to offer psychotherapy and counselling to those who are having mental or emotional problems. They can help patients build coping skills, manage stress, and cope with changes in their lives. Psychiatrists, who are medical professionals with a focus on mental health, can give counselling and write prescriptions for medicines to treat mental health problems. Patients and their family may also get counselling and education from nurses and nurse practitioners. Additionally, those looking for emotional or spiritual guidance may find it helpful to consult with spiritual and religious advisors.

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What is the best, most reliable way to quantify the severity of aortic regurgitation?

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Echocardiography is the best and most reliable way to quantify the severity of aortic regurgitation.

It is a non-invasive and widely available imaging modality that allows for the evaluation of the anatomy and function of the aortic valve and the aorta. Echocardiography can provide detailed information about the degree of aortic regurgitation, including the regurgitant volume, regurgitant fraction, and effective regurgitant orifice area.

Doppler echocardiography can also be used to assess the severity of aortic regurgitation by measuring the velocity of the regurgitant jet and calculating the pressure gradient across the aortic valve. Other imaging modalities, such as cardiac MRI or CT, can also be used to evaluate aortic regurgitation, but they are more expensive and less widely available than echocardiography.

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What is the classic murmur of aortic stenosis?

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The classic murmur of aortic stenosis is a harsh, systolic ejection murmur that is heard best at the right upper sternal border and radiates to the carotid arteries.

The murmur is often described as a "diamond-shaped" or "crescendo-decrescendo" pattern, and it may be associated with a thrill felt at the same location. The intensity of the murmur typically increases with exercise or other activities that increase cardiac output.

The murmur of aortic stenosis results from turbulent blood flow across a narrowed aortic valve of the heart. As the left ventricle contracts to pump blood out through the stenotic valve, the high velocity and pressure gradient across the valve result in the characteristic murmur.

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when considering risk response development, assuming the risk because the chance of such an event is slim is known as the risk. multiple choice transferring mitigating avoiding retaining escalating

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Assuming the risk because the chance of such an event is slim is known as retaining the risk.

This means that the organization decides to accept the risk and does not take any further action to mitigate it. However, it is important to note that even slim risks can have a significant impact if they occur, so it is essential to carefully evaluate the potential consequences before deciding to retain the risk.

                                         It may be more appropriate to consider transferring, mitigating, avoiding, or escalating the risk depending on the specific circumstances.
                                         When considering risk response development, assuming the risk because the chance of such an event is slim is known as "retaining" the risk. In this case, the organization decides to accept and manage the potential consequences of the risk, instead of transferring, mitigating, avoiding, or escalating it.

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How long does it take for hard inquiries to go away.

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Answer:

Around 5-6 months but if its extremely hard it could take up to a year.

Explanation:

Depending on the depth of the wound it takes a longer time for the skin to develop a new layer and to close up. For the cells to regenerate.

Gallstone obstruction of duodenum: syndrome?

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Gallstone obstruction of duodenum: Gallstone Ileus syndrome. Gallstone obstruction of the duodenum is known as Bouveret's syndrome.

Gallstone obstruction of the duodenum is a medical condition known as gallstone ileus. It is a rare form of mechanical bowel obstruction caused by the presence of one or more gallstones within the lumen of the small intestine, usually in the duodenum. Gallstone ileus is more common in elderly patients and can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and distension. In severe cases, it can lead to bowel perforation and peritonitis, which requires urgent surgical intervention.

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In the heart, when do we see eccentric hypertrophy, and when do we see concentric hypertrophy?

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Eccentric hypertrophy and concentric hypertrophy are two types of cardiac hypertrophy, which refer to the enlargement of the heart muscle cells.

Eccentric hypertrophy occurs when the heart muscle cells lengthen in response to increased volume overload, such as in cases of valvular regurgitation or chronic hypertension. This leads to an increase in the size of the left ventricle and an increase in the volume of blood it can hold.

On the other hand, concentric hypertrophy occurs when the heart muscle cells thicken in response to increased pressure overload, such as in cases of aortic stenosis or hypertension. This leads to a decrease in the size of the left ventricular cavity and an increase in the thickness of the ventricular wall.

Both types of hypertrophy can lead to changes in cardiac function and can increase the risk of heart failure, arrhythmias, and other cardiovascular complications. The distinction between the two types of hypertrophy can be important in terms of diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis.

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If you see something alarming how would you react in front of a patient who most likely has not noticed?

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As a healthcare professional, it is important to remain calm and composed in the face of alarming situations. If I were to notice something alarming in front of a patient who has not noticed, I would take a moment to assess the situation and determine the severity of the issue. I would then calmly approach the patient and explain what I have noticed and why it is concerning.

It is important to use simple and clear language to avoid causing unnecessary panic or confusion.
I would then take the necessary steps to address the issue, such as calling for assistance from other healthcare professionals or administering first aid. Throughout this process, I would make sure to maintain a reassuring and supportive demeanor to help alleviate any anxiety or fear the patient may be feeling.
In some cases, it may be necessary to inform the patient's family members or loved ones of the situation. In these instances, it is important to be transparent and provide as much information as possible, while also respecting the patient's privacy.
Overall, my priority in these situations would be to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient while also maintaining a calm and professional demeanor.

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What disease does paul suspect ron might have contracted?.

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Paul suspects that Ron may have contracted Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

This is a bacterial disease that is spread through the bite of an infected tick. Symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever may include fever, headache, muscle aches, and a characteristic rash that often starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads to the trunk of the body.

It is important to note that only a medical professional can make a definitive diagnosis, and that other diseases may also present with similar symptoms. If Ron is experiencing symptoms consistent with Rocky Mountain spotted fever, it is important for him to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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What kind of process is storage vs working memory?

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Storage memory and working memory are both types of memory processes that occur in the brain.

Storage memory, also known as long-term memory, is a process of encoding, storing, and retrieving information over a long period of time. This type of memory has a large capacity and can store information for a lifetime. Working memory, on the other hand, is a process of temporarily holding and manipulating information in the mind in order to perform cognitive tasks. It has a limited capacity and is used for tasks such as mental arithmetic, reading comprehension, and problem-solving. Both storage memory and working memory involve complex neural processes that occur in different regions of the brain, and both are essential for cognitive functioning. However, they are distinct processes that serve different functions in the brain.

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(T/F) In a Ceph PA, Naso concho is radiolucent and nasal meatus is radiopaque.

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False. In a cephalometric radiograph taken in the posteroanterior (PA) projection, the nasoconchae (also known as the superior nasal conchae) and nasal meatuses are both radiolucent, meaning that they appear as dark areas on the radiograph.

This is because these structures are primarily composed of air spaces and soft tissue, which do not absorb X-rays well and therefore appear less dense on the radiograph.

In contrast, bony structures such as the nasal bones and maxilla, which are more dense and absorb X-rays more readily, appear as radiopaque structures on the cephalometric radiograph, meaning that they appear as lighter areas.

The nasoconchae are the superior most turbinates or bony projections on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. They are composed of thin, delicate bone covered by a mucous membrane and are responsible for the warming and humidification of the inspired air as it passes through the nasal cavity. The nasal meatuses are the narrow air spaces between the nasal conchae that help to direct and regulate the flow of air through the nasal cavity.

In a cephalometric radiograph taken in the PA projection, the superior border of the petrous ridge is an important anatomical landmark that helps to determine the position of the head and the orientation of the radiographic image. This border is the superior margin of the petrous portion of the temporal bone, which houses the inner ear and is a dense, radiopaque structure on the radiograph. It appears as a curved line that runs horizontally across the image, separating the lower portions of the facial bones from the brain and other intracranial structures.

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Viscerosomatic reflex: T12 could be

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The viscerosomatic reflex is a type of reflex that occurs when there is a problem with an internal organ or system, causing pain or discomfort in a related area of the body. In the case of T12, it is the 12th thoracic vertebrae located in the mid-back area.

Viscerosomatic reflexes related to T12 could manifest as pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen or chest area, as this area is innervated by nerves that originate from the T12 segment. The reflex could be caused by problems such as gastrointestinal issues, liver or gallbladder dysfunction, or kidney problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the reflex and treat it appropriately, as ignoring it could lead to further complications or chronic pain.

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Fill in the blank. _____________are the leading cause for death among teenagers and teenagers have the rate of these than adults.sexual diseases, 3 timestraffic accidents, twicedrug overdoses, twicetraffic accidents, 3 times.

Answers

Traffic accidents

Twice

Who has denser bones, black ladies or white ladies?

Answers

On average, black women have denser bones than white women. Studies have shown that black women have higher bone mineral density (BMD) than white women in both the spine and hip regions, which are commonly used sites for measuring bone density.

The reasons for this racial difference in bone density are not completely understood, but may be due to differences in genetics, hormones, lifestyle factors, or a combination of these factors. However, it is important to note that individual variation in bone density exists within racial groups and that other factors, such as age, sex, and medical conditions, can also affect bone density

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3.identify and describe a health disorder commonly experienced by people of the balkans or middle east.

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The main health issues in Arab nations are coronary heart disease, diabetes, hypertension, and cancer. It is noteworthy that throughout the Middle East, particularly in Arabic countries, the line between food and medication is fairly hazy.

The top three causes of disease in the area—poor diet, high blood pressure, and a high body mass index—increased by more than 50% between 1990 and 2010. These three major risk factors were poor nutrition, high blood pressure, and a high body mass index. In the Middle East and North Africa, cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death, accounting for more than one third of all fatalities, or 1.4 million people annually.

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An idiopathic disorder refers to a disease/disorder that isself-inflicted.caused by external forces.without known cause.caused by psychological factors.

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An idiopathic disorder refers to a disease or disorder that has an unknown cause. Unlike other types of disorders, an idiopathic disorder cannot be traced back to any external forces, such as trauma, infection, or injury. Instead, it is believed to arise from internal factors that are not yet fully understood.

Idiopathic disorders are often diagnosed after other potential causes have been ruled out, and the symptoms are believed to be caused by the body's own immune system or other physiological processes.
In some cases, idiopathic disorders are thought to have a psychological component. For example, somatoform disorders, such as somatic symptom disorder, involve physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. These disorders are thought to arise from psychological factors, such as stress or anxiety, and can be treated with psychotherapy and other psychological interventions.
Overall, the term idiopathic disorder refers to a condition that is not well understood and has no clear cause. While this can be frustrating for patients and healthcare providers, ongoing research and advancements in medical science may eventually shed light on the underlying causes of these conditions and lead to better treatments and outcomes.

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Under HIPAA, all patients are entitled torequest copies of their records.review of their records.all records be kept confidential except as specified by the patient.all of those listed.

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Under HIPAA, all patients are entitled to request copies of their records. This means that patients have the right to access their medical records and obtain copies of them. Patients can request their records in writing or in person, and healthcare providers must provide the records within 30 days of the request. Patients may be charged a fee for the copies, but this fee cannot exceed the cost of producing the copies.

HIPAA also requires that all records be kept confidential except as specified by the patient. This means that healthcare providers cannot share a patient's medical information without their consent. Patients have the right to control who has access to their medical information, and can request that their information be shared with specific individuals or entities. In addition, HIPAA requires that healthcare providers maintain the privacy and security of patient information. Providers must take steps to protect patient information from unauthorized access or disclosure, and must notify patients in the event of a breach of their information.  In summary, under HIPAA, all patients are entitled to request copies of their records, review of their records, all records be kept confidential except as specified by the patient, and all of those listed. HIPAA provides patients with important rights and protections when it comes to their medical information.

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What is the phonological loop in the new model created by Baddeley & HItch in 1974?

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The phonological loop is a component of working memory in the model of working memory proposed by Baddeley and Hitch in 1974.

It is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of auditory information, including speech sounds, words, and numbers. The phonological loop consists of two subcomponents: the phonological store (or "inner ear"), which holds auditory information for a few seconds, and the articulatory loop (or "inner voice"), which is responsible for the subvocal rehearsal of verbal information. The phonological loop is thought to be critical for tasks such as language comprehension, verbal reasoning, and mental arithmetic.

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Abdominal pain, gastroenteritis, probably viralK52.9, R10.9R10.9, K52.9A08.4K52.9

Answers

The correct diagnosis code for the given statement "Abdominal pain, gastroenteritis, probably viral" is K52.9 and R10.9.

K52.9 is the ICD-10 code for noninfective gastroenteritis and colitis, unspecified. This code represents inflammation of the stomach and intestines, which can cause symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea. The keyword "gastroenteritis" in the statement leads to this code.

R10.9 is the ICD-10 code for unspecified abdominal pain. This code represents pain in the abdomen of an unknown cause. The keyword "abdominal pain" in the statement leads to this code.

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