Answer: Bradycardia, hypotension, Bladder dysfunction, spastic paralysis
Explanation:
A nurse would check for the following clinical indications of spinal shock in a client coming to the emergency room with a possible spinal cord injury:
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Loss of reflexes
Flaccid muscle tone
Loss of sensation and movement below the level of injury
Altered level of consciousness.
Who is nurse?According to Merriam-Webster, nurses are certified healthcare professionals who practice independently or under the supervision of a physician, surgeon, or dentist and are experienced in promoting and preserving health. A nurse's primary responsibility is to care for patients by managing physical requirements, preventing disease, and treating health issues. Nurses must examine and monitor the patient while also documenting any pertinent information to help in therapeutic decision-making procedures.
Here,
In a client admitted to the emergency department with a probable spinal cord injury, a nurse would look for the following clinical signs of spinal shock:
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Loss of reflexes
Flaccid muscle tone
Loss of sensation and movement below the level of injury
Altered level of consciousness.
These symptoms may suggest spinal shock, a transient condition of neurological dysfunction caused by a spinal cord injury and characterized by a loss of reflexes, muscular tone, and feeling below the level of damage. Early detection and treatment of spinal shock is critical to preventing additional spinal cord injury.
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A drug was introduced to the market, where it was well received, and the nurse has learned that generic equivalents will soon be released. The nurse should understand what implication of this fact?
A. The manufacturer's patent on the drug has recently expired.
B. The drug has recently completed phase 3 testing.
C. The drug was previously an orphan drug, with limited supply.
D. The drug is facing increased competition from OTC drugs.
The nurse should understand the manufacturer's patent on the drug has recently expired. Option is A is correct.
When the patent on a brand-name medicine expires, generic versions can be introduced. This medicine would have gone through extensive FDA testing. An orphan drug is one that is not commercially available, mainly due to budgetary constraints. The introduction of generic analogues has nothing to do with competition from over-the-counter medications. When developing a generic drug, pharmaceutical companies are permitted to modify inactive substances.
Authorized generics are generic products that have been relabeled and marketed as brand-name items. The pharmaceutical business finds, develops, manufactures, and distributes medicines or pharmaceutical drugs for usage as treatments to be delivered to patients (or self-administered) with the goal of curing, immunising, or alleviating symptoms. Pharmaceutical firms may sell generic or brand-name pharmaceuticals and medical products. They are subject to a range of rules and regulations that control drug patenting, testing, safety, efficacy, and marketing.
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which drug would the nurse anticipate the health care provider prescribing to a patient receiving spironolactone who has a serum potassium level of 5.3
Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors anticipate the health care provider prescribing to a patient receiving spironolactone who has a serum potassium level of 5.3
In general , Spironolactone are used for managing high blood pressure and heart failure. Spironolactone comes as an oral tablet . Spironolactone is used to reduce swelling from liver disease. which helps body from absorbing too much of salt and helps potassium levels getting too low.
When the serum potassium levels of a patients is 5.3 nurses prescribe Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors drugs are used for relaxing the veins and arteries that lower blood pressure. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors works by reduce blood pressure and relaxing blood vessels. Common examples of ACE are enalapril, perindopril and ramipril. Common side effect of this kind of drugs is a persistent dry cough ,headaches, dizziness and a rash.
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a 3-month-old boy was diagnosed with failure to thrive. what action will be most helpful in assisting the nurse to determine if there is an inorganic cause?
The most helpful action in determining the organic cause for a 3-month-old boy diagnosed with failure to thrive will be: (c) Observing the mother-child interaction during feeding and hygiene activities.
Failure to thrive is defined as the condition where the kids are not able to gain weight according to their age. The most common cause for failure to thrive is inadequate nutrition, food intolerance, metabolic disorders, etc. If the correct underlying cause is detected for the disease then the condition cam be cured.
Hygiene is the practice of maintaining proper cleanliness in all of the activities one performs. This is essential for the prevention of diseases and a healthy body.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A 3-month-old boy was diagnosed with failure to thrive. What action will be most helpful in assisting the nurse to determine if there is an inorganic cause?
a) Observing the child's interest in and ability to feed
b) Assessing for adequate calorie intake through recording ounces of formula consumed
c) Observing the mother-child interaction during feeding and hygiene activities
d) Reviewing the medical records for a history of prematurity or a congenital anomaly
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you see a 56-year-old male who presents with daily headaches for the past two weeks. he describes them as an intense pressure behind both eyes that is throbbing in nature. he reports that lights and loud noises bother him, but he has tolerated his usual activities as a short-haul truck driver. the headaches tend to last all day. he has not had nausea, visual changes, fever, or chills, though he has reported rhinorrhea. these symptoms have occurred in the context of him quitting tobacco, which he has found challenging. what aspect of this patient's story is most typical of the suspected diagnosis?
Option D:They are associated with rhinorrhea, lacrimation, miosis, and ptosis aspect of this patient's story is most typical of the suspected diagnosis.
Generally speaking, cluster headaches are strong, stabbing episodes of periorbital or temporal pain that are unilateral and accompanied by rhinorrhea, lacrimation, miosis, and ptosis on the side that is afflicted (D). Though they are still quite uncommon even among men, there is a significant masculine predominance among those who experience them.
Although patients' experiences of their headaches can vary, migraines are often described as having a pulsating or throbbing pain (A).
It is typical with tension-type headaches and/or migraines to experience bilateral periorbital discomfort (B). Only unilateral people have cluster headaches.
Migraine or tension-type headaches are more likely to cause photophobia and phonophobia (C).
Cluster headaches normally come in brief, discrete episodes, but they can also happen several times per day for a week to several months at a time. Therefore, (E) is untrue.
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Complete Question is:
You are seeing a 56-year-old male who presents with daily headaches for the past two weeks. He describes them as an intense pressure behind both eyes that is throbbing in nature. He reports that lights and loud noises bother him some, but he has been able to tolerate his usual activities as a short-haul truck driver. The headaches tend to last all day. He has not had nausea, visual changes, fever, or chills. These symptoms have occurred in the context of him quitting tobacco, which he has found difficult. He read online about cluster headaches, and he thinks that is what he is experiencing. He would like you to prescribe oxygen treatment to help with the headaches.
Which of the following characteristics is most typical of cluster headaches?
A. Patients with them often complain of a pulsating quality of pain.
B. The pain is typically periorbital and bilateral.
C. They are associated with photophobia and phonophobia.
D. They are associated with rhinorrhea, lacrimation, miosis, and ptosis.
E. They typically last less than a week.
a nurse is performing a routine physical examination of a 5-year-old girl. which assessment finding should the nurse note as developmentally inappropriate for this child?
When performing a routine physical examination of a 5-year-old girl, the nurse should note any findings that are not age-appropriate, such as an inability to dress or undress themselves, inability to jump or hop, poor coordination, or lack of toilet training.
The nurse should also note any physical signs of developmental delay, such as an asymmetrical body posture, poor muscle tone, or a lack of facial expression.
Additionally, the nurse should assess the child's language skills by asking them to name colors, recite a nursery rhyme, or complete a sentence. Lastly, the nurse should assess the child's social-emotional skills by asking them to describe their feelings, identify their friends, or discuss their likes and dislikes.
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a client who had a choledochostomy to explore the common bile duct is returned to the surgical unit with a t-tube in place. which is a priority intervention when caring for this client? irrigate the t-tube as necessary
A client who had a choledochostomy to explore the common bile duct is returned to the surgical unit with a t-tube in place. A priority intervention when caring for this client is to, keep bile from dripping onto the abdominal skin. Bile's enzymatic activity can induce excoriation and skin disintegration; therefore, the skin should be covered.
A choledochostomy is the creation of a temporary opening through the abdominal wall into the common bile duct , usually to remove a stone.
The common bile duct travels through the pancreas and stops in the small intestine. Bile is manufactured in the liver and reserved in the gallbladder. When food is digested, bile is released from the gallbladder and travels through the pancreas to the small intestine where it aids in the digestion of fats.
Placement of a T-tube during common bile duct anastomosis is a simple procedure usually used to control the flow of bile, which is also favorable for radiologists, and a fistula tract is formed to remove stones that may remain in the bile duct.
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a 2-week-old infant responds to a bell during an initial health supervision examination. the infant's records do not show that a newborn hearing screening was done. which action will the nurse take?
The correct action that should be taken by the nurse is given in the option B, that says, Immediately schedule the infant for a newborn hearing screening.
The condition of the baby is that the 2-week-old infant responds to a bell during an initial health supervision examination but the infant's records do not show that a newborn hearing screening was done.
In this condition it would be a better thing to do if an immediate newborn hearings screening is scheduled for the infant by the nurse because that would confirm the complete care for the infant.
From all the options provided for the choice, only the option b is showing the correct action that the nurse should take in order to provide best care for the infant, other option are not suitable.
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Complete question - A 2-week-old child responds to a bell during an initial health supervision examination. The child's records do not show that a newborn hearing screening was
done. Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take?
A) Do nothing because responding to the bell proves he does not have a hearing deficit.
B) Immediately schedule the infant for a newborn hearing screening.
C) Ask the mother to observe for signs that the infant is not hearing well.
D) Screen again with the bell at the 2-month-old health supervision visit.
why do you polish the teeth before seating of partial dentures mcq
It's crucial to have dental prosthetics with smooth, polished surfaces to avoid plaque buildup and bacterial colonisation. Prosthodontic appliances' acrylic bases must be ground down to fit properly, which frequently changes the surface of a denture base.
Remove the partial dentures and wash them in cold water after soaking. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush or a denture brush that has been dampened to gently brush your partials in order to remove food particles, plaque, and other deposits. A new denture polishing lotion called Pala Polish is intended to rapidly and conveniently polish all kinds of acrylic appliances. This particular polishing recipe delivers a high sheen and specific properties that make it possible to polish away any remaining scratches, doing away with the necessity for pumicing.
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colchicine 1200 mcg orally is prescribed for client with gout. each tablet contains 0.6 mg. how many tablets will the nurse administer?
Oral colchicine 1200 mcg was prescribed for a client with gout. each tablet contains 0.6 mg. The tablet that will be given by the nurse is 2.
Colchicine oral tablet is a prescription drug available under the brand name Colcrys. It is also available as a generic. Generic drugs are usually cheaper. Colchicine is also available in capsule form. Capsules are available under the brand name Mitigare. Capsules are also available as a generic drugs.
Colchicine oral tablet dosage calculation:
First, change the units from mg to mcg:
1 mg = 1000 mcg
0.6 x 1000 = 600 mcg
Then the tablets to be given:
n = prescribed drug/drug preparation
n = 1200/600
n = 2
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A patients presents for ultrasound examination with leukocytosis, a temperature of 103 degrees Fahrenheit and pain in the right adnexa. of the following, which is the most likely diagnosis?
The most likely diagnosis is a. pelvic inflammatory disease.
Leukocytosis is a disorder in which the number of white blood cells in the blood exceeds the usual range. It is typically an indication of an inflammatory reaction, most often as a result of infection, but it can also arise as a result of certain parasite infections, bone malignancies, or leukemia. It can also happen after extreme activity, convulsions like epilepsy, mental stress, pregnancy and childbirth, anesthesia, drug adverse effects, and epinephrine injection.
Leukocytosis is classified based on the type of white blood cell that has risen in quantity. Leukocytosis with an elevated neutrophil count is called neutrophilia; lymphocytosis with an elevated lymphocyte count is called lymphocytosis; monocytosis with an elevated monocyte count is called monocytosis; and eosinophilia with an elevated eosinophil count is called eosinophilia.
The complete question is:
A patients presents for ultrasound examination with leukocytosis, a temperature of 103 degrees Fahrenheit and pain in the right adnexa. of the following, which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. syndrome related to PID
C. sexually transmitted disease
D. Engorged and swollen chorionic villi
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A nurse is assessing a male client recently diagnosed with genital herpes. Which finding would most likely correlate with this diagnosis?
A nurse who is assessing a male client recently diagnosed with genital herpes. The finding which would most likely correlate with this diagnosis is that the genital pruritus and paresthesia. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Genital herpes?
Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection which is marked by the genital pain and sores. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus, and the disease can affect both the genders- men and women.
Symptoms of genital herpes include pain, itching, and small sores generally appear first. They form ulcers and scabs with time. After the initial infection, genital herpes lies dormant in the body which can recur if remain untreated for years.
Genital pruritus and paresthesia are the two important findings which would most likely correlate with this diagnosis.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A nurse is assessing a male client recently diagnosed with genital herpes. Which finding would most likely correlate with this diagnosis?
A. headache and fever.
B. vaginal and urethral discharge.
C. dysuria and lymphadenopathy.
D. genital pruritus and paresthesia.
what best defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? question 5 options: a) patient advocacy b) medical intervention c) patient access d) patient assessment
The best description about the evaluation of a patient's condition in order to provide emergency care is: d) patient assessment.
Emergency care is the health care provided to the patients at times of serious life-threatening situations. The key principle of emergency care is top provide the correct treatment based on the symptoms without any delay.
Assessment is defined as the analysis of the patient in order to diagnose the condition of the patient and provide the optimal treatment. Assessment is the first and the most crucial step of health care because the complete treatment depends upon a correct assessment.
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a client reports left-sided chest pain after playing racquetball. the client is hospitalized and diagnosed with left pneumothorax. when assessing the client's left chest area, the nurse expects to identify which finding?
There are no breath sounds because the left lung has collapsed. A pneumothorax will produce a tympanic sound rather than a dull one. Because of the pneumothorax, there is no airflow into the left lung, hence there is no voice fremitus. Because the pneumothorax prevents air from flowing into the left lung, rales with rhonchi won't be audible.
An abnormal buildup of air in the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall is known as a pneumothorax. Shortness of breath and quick, severe, one-sided chest discomfort are common symptoms. A tension pneumothorax happens when an area of injured tissue forms a one-way valve, increasing the amount of air in the gap between the chest wall and the lungs.
Low blood pressure and an oxygen deficiency may result from this. Obstructive shock is a type of shock that results from this and can be lethal if left untreated. A pneumothorax might very infrequently affect both lungs. Although the term "collapsed lung" can also refer to atelectasis, it is frequently used to describe it.
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The nurse is monitoring a client who is having a third transfusion of packed red blood cells. Which of these may be evident if the client is experiencing a febrile transfusion reaction?Chills
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Adverse reactions to transfusions of whole blood or a component of it are referred to as transfusion reactions. Fever, chills, urticaria (hives), and itching are among the symptoms that are most frequently present.
With little to no treatment, some symptoms go away. Respiratory distress, a high temperature, hypotension (low blood pressure), and red urine (hemoglobinuria) can point to a more severe reaction, though.
An acute hemolytic reaction, anaphylaxis, septic transfusion reactions, and TRALI can all cause hypotension. Additionally, they have been documented in cases where no apparent transfusion reaction was present.
The most frequent association between fever and/or chills and an allergic reaction is a febrile, non-hemolytic reaction, but they can also be the initial symptoms of an acute hemolytic reaction, TRALI, or septic transfusion reaction, which can be more dangerous.
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a postpartum client is having difficulty stopping her urine stream. which should the nurse do next?
A postpartum client is having difficulty stopping her urine stream. The nurse do educate the client on how to perform Kegel exercises.
Kegel exercises build the muscles that support the uterus, bladder, small intestine, and rectum. Kegel exercises, commonly known as pelvic floor muscle training, can be done at any time. Pregnancy, delivery, surgery, age, constipation or persistent coughing, also being overweight are all conditions that might impair your pelvic floor muscles.
To do Kegels, picture sitting on a marble and tightening your pelvic muscles as if you were raising the marble. Try it for 3 seconds at a time and then relax for three seconds. Only tense ones pelvic floor muscles for the optimum benefits. Avoid flexing any muscles in ones abdomen, thighs, or buttocks. Try not to hold your breath. Instead, during the workouts, breathe freely.
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which patient condition wehn coupled with hypertension would benefit most from receiving an alpha 1 blcoiker
A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia which means increases urinary flow rate and decreases outflow.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is also known as the prostate gland enlargement that is common condition older mans. These enlarged prostate gland often leads to uncomfortable urinary symptoms, for example blocking the flow of urine out of the bladder. They can also cause bladder, urinary tract or kidney problems.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia development is mainly known by stromal and epithelial cell proliferation occurred in the prostate transition zone which causes the compression of the urethra and development of bladder outflow obstruction (BOO) .
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you have available lorazepam (ativan) 0.5 mg tablets, and you need to administer 1 mg po. how many tablet(s) will you administer? round to the nearest whole number.
In order to administer 1 mg of lorazepam( Ativan) orally, It would administer 2 tablet of 0.5 mg tablets.
This is because each 0.5 mg tablet contains 0.5 mg of lorazepam, and in order to get to 1 mg, we need 2 tablet of 0.5 mg tablets that would needed to be administered. so 2 tablets would be the correct to administer.
It's also important to insure that the cure is directly measured and that the tablets are taken as specified. Before administering any drug, it's important to consult with a medical professional or druggist to insure that the cure is correct and that the case is suitable to safely take the drug.
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What precaution should be taken for each incision?
A) Precaution for a median incision that will ensure no damage to the bladder or falciform ligament:
B) Precaution for a right or left Kocher incision that will ensure no subsequent weakening of the abdominal musculature:
(A) The paramedical incision is more likely to have a lesser chance of incisional herniation, but is more likely to be associated with infection or nerve damage. Precaution for median incision that will ensure no damage to the bladder or falciform ligament. Enter the peritoneum as close to the umbilicus as possible
(B) 48 hours following surgery, you can take a shower. Do not use a washcloth or towel to rub the incisions. No hot tubs, swimming, or tub baths until after your clinic appointment has been completed. Avoid wearing tight clothing or materials that could irritate your skin, such as wool, hooks, and buckles, near your incision(s).
What is precautions ?Standard safety measures are designed to lessen the danger of spreading bloodborne and other diseases from both known and unknown sources. They are the fundamental measures of infection control that must be taken, at the very least, when caring for all patients.
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which term means cause of the disease ? group of answer choices etiology risk factor pathogenesis clinical manifestations
The term Etiology means cause of the disease.
Once the cause of a disease is identified, it is called etiology. For example, cholera is known to be caused by bacteria that contaminate food and drinking water in areas with poor sanitation.
The cause of a disease is called its etiology (from the Greek word meaning study of the cause). A disease entity can have multiple etiologies, and an etiology can cause multiple diseases.
Etiology in medicine is defined as identifying the cause of a disease or medical condition. Its impact on the development of civilization can be traced to some impressive discoveries, from the germ theory of pathology to our modern understanding of what causes disease and how to combat it.
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which wound care is given to a client with severe burn injuries during the acute phase? assess extent and depth of burns. provide daily shower and wound care. remove dead and contaminated tissue. assess the wound daily and adjust the dressing
The following wound care is given to a client with severe burn injuries during the acute phase : Assess the wound daily and adjust the dressing.
The acute phase of burns is defined as the period from the onset of shock burns to the epithelialization of the wound, which usually lasts about 12 to 14 days if the burn is well managed. In the acute phase, wound care is provided by assessing the wound daily and adjusting dressings as needed according to protocol. The extent and depth of burns are assessed at the presentation stage. During the emergence stage, daily showers are taken to remove dead and contaminated tissue (debride).
The acute phase of injury, also called the inflammatory phase, occurs at the time of injury and lasts up to 4 days. In the acute phase, inflammation occurs. The purpose of inflammation is to neutralize toxins so that repair processes (which occur at a later stage) can begin.
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which element will be included in the picot format when evaluating the problem of increased patient falls on a postoperative nursing unit
When assessing the issue, the nurse uses the PICOT framework for clinical questions and considers staff education, the use of a nurse call system, patient education, incident reduction, and medical-surgical patients.
What Is Picot And Why Is It Important?
A PICOT question's main objective is uncomplicated: It is a mechanism for determining the keywords to utilize when looking for the strongest evidence to address a pressing clinical question. In other words, the search plan is the PICOT question. The search technique produces an objective and successful search. This technique is simplified by PICO. It serves as a reminder of the key components of a solid clinical question. Highlighting the important ideas that must appear in the article in order to answer the query, also aids in the formulation of the search strategy. The letters PICOT stand for patient, intervention, comparison, outcome, and (sometimes) time, which are the components of a clinical research question.
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When assessing the issue, the nurse uses PICOT framework for clinical questions and considers staff education, the use of nurse call system, patient education, incident reduction, and medical-surgical
patients.
What Is Picot And Why Is It Important?
A PICOT question's main objective is uncomplicated: It is a mechanism for determining keywords to utilize when looking for strongest evidence to address pressing clinical question. In other words, the search plan is PICOT question. The search technique produces an objective and successful search.
This technique is simplified by PICO. It serves as
a reminder of key components of a solid clinical question. Highlighting the important ideas that must appear in the article in order to answer the query, also aids in formulation of the search strategy.
The word PICOT is mnemonic derived from elements of a clinical research question – patient, intervention, comparison, outcome and (sometimes) time. The PICOT process begins with a case scenario, and question is phrased to elicit an answer.
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the client is a woman, 69 years of age, seen in the clinic for anemia and administration of epoetin alfa. before giving the drug, the nurse takes a complete history and reviews the client's emr, because the nurse knows that epoetin alfa is contraindicated for which conditions? (select all that apply.)
The nurse knows that epoetin alfa is contraindicated for Clients with uncontrolled hypertension, Clients needing an emergency transfusion, Clients with a hypersensitivity to human albumin
What is epoetin alfa?This medication is used to treat anaemia (low red blood cell count) in patients with chronic kidney failure, HIV patients on zidovudine, and cancer patients on chemotherapy. It may also be used in anaemic patients to reduce the need for blood transfusions prior to some planned procedures that involve a high risk of blood loss (typically administered in conjunction with an anticoagulant/"blood thinner" medication such as warfarin to reduce the risk of serious blood clots). Epoetin alfa promotes red blood cell synthesis in the bone marrow. This medication is strikingly similar to erythropoietin, which your body naturally makes to treat anaemia. This monograph focuses on the epoetin alfa products epoetin alfa and epoetin alfa-epbx.
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Complete Question:
The client is a woman, 69 years of age, seen in the clinic for anemia and administration of epoetin alfa. Before giving the drug, the nurse takes a complete history and reviews the client's EMR, because the nurse knows that epoetin alfa is contraindicated for which conditions? (Select all that apply.)
(A) Clients with uncontrolled hypertension
(B) Clients needing an emergency transfusion
(C) Clients with a hypersensitivity to human albumin
(D) Clients with a recent infection
(E) Clients with exposure to anthrax
the provider for a woman with an identified breast mass suggests that the woman undergo further testing to determine the exact nature of the mass. a biopsy is performed, and the woman must wait for a diagnosis. several days later, a diagnosis of radial scar is made. the term scar refers to the structural appearance of the lesion and is not associated with scarring or fibrosis from a previous injury. this scar is also classified as
Radial Scar, in this context, is a benign (non-cancerous) condition of the breast that is characterized by a scar-like appearance on mammography or MRI.
The term "scar" refers to the fibrous tissue that is seen in the lesion, but it is not related to scarring from a previous injury. This type of lesion is classified as a benign breast lesion or a benign breast condition.
It is important to note that not all radial scars require treatment and a follow-up mammogram or MRI may be suggested to monitor the lesion. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be recommended to rule out any underlying breast cancer.
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a medical imaging technique that uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the inside of the body. Unlike X-rays or CT scans, MRI does not use ionizing radiation, making it a safer option for some exams.
It is commonly used to examine the brain and spinal cord, joints, chest and abdomen, pelvis, and reproductive organs.
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which medication used for the treatment of plaque psoriasis will the nurse administer subcutaneously? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. alefacept infliximab etanercept adalimumab ustekinumab
The medications that can be administered subcutaneously for the treatment of plaque psoriasis are:
AlefaceptInfliximabEtanerceptAdalimumabUstekinumab.Subcutaneous administration of medications for the treatment of plaque psoriasis is generally preferred due to a lower risk of side effects and improved efficacy compared to other routes of administration.
The medications commonly used for this purpose are alefacept, infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab and ustekinumab. These medications are all anti-inflammatory biologics that target certain proteins in the body to reduce inflammation. They are generally administered in the form of injections, either as a single dose or multiple doses, depending on the severity of the condition.
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a client who has undergone a barium enema is being readied for discharge from the ambulatory care unit. which instruction would the nurse include in instructions to the client?
A client who has had a barium enema is given instructions by the nurse to take a laxative to return to normal color before leaving the ambulatory care unit.
Any intestinal abnormalities are identified via an X-ray procedure called a barium enema. During this test, barium is injected into the rectum through a tiny tube. This barium coats the lining of the colon. With this, symptoms of Crohn's disease, IBS, ulcerative colitis, colon cancer, bloody stools, abdominal pain, etc. are relieved.
Laxatives are a kind of medication that is frequently used to treat constipation if lifestyle changes like increasing the amount of fiber in your diet and drinking adequate fluids are unsuccessful.
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the nurse observing toddlers in a day care center notes that they may be happy and pleasant one moment and overreact to limit setting the next minute by throwing a tantrum. what is the focus of the toddler's developmental task that is driving this behavior?
The need for separation and control.
Children develop at different stages in their speech, behavior, learning, and play Toddlers' developmental tasks move around more and become more conscious of their surroundings throughout the second year of life. Their curiosity about unfamiliar things and people is growing as well.
Your kid will continue to develop rapidly in the five areas of physical, intellectual, emotional and social, communication, and motor and sensory skills during the toddler years.
Play is essential for your baby's cognitive development, which refers to their capacity to reason, comprehend, communicate, form memories, and imagine and predict the future. This is because your toddler learns the world mostly through play.
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what is the impact of p-glycoprotein (p-gp) at the blood brain barrier?
P- glycoprotein( P- gp) plays an essential part in regulating the transport of motes across the blood brain hedge( BBB). It acts as an efflux transporter, laboriously pumping out medicines and other motes that may be dangerous to the central nervous system.
This helps to maintain the integrity of the BBB by precluding the passage of potentially poisonous motes. P- gp also helps to maintain the homeostasis of the brain by regulating the attention of different metabolites and hormones, including neurotransmitters.
Also, P- gp has been linked to the development of medicine resistance in cancer cells, which can have a major impact on the efficacity of certain treatments. P- gp is therefore an important part of the body’s defense system, icing that the brain is defended from implicit detriment.
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the local and national media are beginning to promote immunizations for the upcoming influenza season. the mother of a premature infant of 7 months chronological age and 5 months corrected age asks about immunizing her child. the nurse responds:
The response of the nurse to the mother of premature infant of 7 months chronological age and 5 months corrected age asking about immunizing her child for influenza should be: b. "your child as a 7-month-old should be immunized."
Immunization is the process of developing the immune system of a person against a certain disease or group of disease caused by some microorganism. A person is administered with vaccine to provide immunization against the disease.
Influenza is the disease of the respiratory system caused by viruses. The general symptoms of the disease include fever, body aches, coughing, etc. There are 4 forms of the disease: Type A, B, C and D.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The local and national media are beginning to promote immunizations for the upcoming influenza season. The mother of a premature infant of 7 months chronological age and 5 months corrected age asks about immunizing her child. The nurse responds:
a. "no child receives seasonal flu vaccine until age 4 years"
b. "your child as a 7-month-old should be immunized."
c. "the child's corrected age makes him too young."
d. "premature infants should not be immunized against the seasonal flu until 1 year old chronologically."
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a client has chronic renal failure. as the disease progresses, the client is experiencing increasing shortness of breath, due to anemia. the nurse would anticipate which medication order?
The sequence of treatment for clients with chronic kidney failure and developing anemia causing shortness of breath is Epoetin alfa treatment.
Epoetin alfa is a drug to treat anemia in chronic kidney failure patients. Epoetin alpha is included in the class of drugs called erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). This drug works by triggering the spinal cord to produce blood cells.
This way of working is similar to the natural hormone erythropoietin in the body. Alpha epoetin hormone is a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells in the body. This hormone is produced in the kidneys and liver.
By increasing the number of blood cells produced, anemia can be overcome and the need for blood transfusions can also be reduced.
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a patient is prescribed medication for the treatment of cancer. the nurse is concerned that administering this medication may have a harmful effect on the patient. which conditions would help the nurse decide that it is ethical to administer the medication through the application of the concept of double effect? note: credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. select all that apply.
Conditions that will help nurses decide that it is ethical to administer cancer drugs through the application of the multiple effects concept:
The nurse is administering the medication to achieve treatment of cancer, The harmful effect must not offer for the medication to be successful in treating cancer, The benefits of using this medication are more likely to occur than the undesired actions of the medication.There are 5 main principles in health ethics. These principles include:
The principle of non-maleficence means not causing physical and psychological harm to the patient.Beneficence means, doing just something good. Kindness requires preventing mistakes or evil, eliminating mistakes o,r evil, and increasing goodness by oneself and others.Secrecy. The rule in the principle of confidentiality is that information about patients must be kept confidentialJustice means fair. The principle of justice is necessary for equal and fair treatment of other people who uphold,moral, legal and humanitarian principles.The principle of fidelity requires individuals to honor their promises and commitments to others. Healthcare workers are true to their commitments and keep promises and protect patient secrets.Learn more about ethical to administer the medication at https://brainly.com/question/17607230
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