The healthcare entity must maintain the certificate of destruction for at least 5 years.
Option b is correct.
This is to ensure that there is proof that the entity has complied with the applicable laws and regulations on record retention and destruction. The certificate of destruction is a record that documents the destruction of health records that are no longer needed. This record contains important information such as the date of destruction, method of destruction, and the name of the person responsible for the destruction.
The certificate of destruction is important in case of any legal or regulatory issues that may arise in the future. It provides evidence that the entity has complied with the record retention and destruction policies and procedures.
Therefore, option (b) is correct.
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you can tell if your sister has a low fever by feeling her forehead with your hand. can you detect your own fever with your hand? explain why or why not
Feeling someone's forehead with your hand is a common method used to detect fever, but it may not be as effective for detecting your own fever.
The reason is that our perception of temperature can be subjective and influenced by various factors. When you touch someone else's forehead, you are using your hand as a comparative tool. You can compare the temperature of their forehead to the temperature of your own hand, which gives you a relative sense of whether their temperature is higher or lower than normal. However, when you try to assess your own fever by feeling your own forehead, you lack the same comparative reference point. Additionally, our hands are not as sensitive to changes in temperature as our internal thermoreceptors. Our body has internal thermoreceptors that are more accurate at detecting changes in body temperature. These receptors are located in areas such as the hypothalamus, which is the body's internal thermostat. These internal sensors are more reliable for assessing fever.
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describe a healthcare-related situation (s) prompting a systems-level patient safety concern that has the potential to impact multiple patients.
One healthcare-related situation that can prompt a systems-level patient safety concern is the occurrence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs).
Hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) are infections that patients acquire while receiving the treatment for another medical or surgical condition in healthcare setting. These infections can occur due to several reasons, including poor hand hygiene, inadequate environmental cleaning, inappropriate use of antibiotics, and inadequate sterilization of medical equipment.
If a hospital has a high rate of HAIs, it can affect multiple patients and can be a significant patient safety concern. Patients who acquire HAIs can suffer from prolonged hospital stays, increased healthcare costs, and even mortality. Moreover, if the hospital fails to identify and address the root causes of the HAI, it can persist as a systemic issue and continue to harm patients.
Therefore, a systems-level approach is required to prevent and control HAIs, which involves implementing evidence-based interventions, monitoring and reporting HAI rates, and providing ongoing education and training to healthcare providers.
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A diet that is too high in protein can increase the risk for all of the following conditions except what?
- kidney stones
- PKU
- heart disease
- osteoporosis
A diet that is too high in protein can increase the risk for all of the following conditions except PKU (phenylketonuria). PKU is a rare genetic disorder in which the body cannot process an amino acid called phenylalanine. It is unrelated to the intake of dietary protein.
However, a high-protein diet can potentially contribute to the development of the other conditions mentioned:
Kidney stones: Consuming excessive protein, especially animal protein, can increase the risk of kidney stone formation. High protein intake may lead to increased urinary excretion of calcium, oxalate, and uric acid, which can contribute to stone formation.
Heart disease: A diet excessively high in animal protein, particularly if it is also high in saturated fats, can potentially increase the risk of heart disease. Such diets may elevate cholesterol levels and promote inflammation, both of which are associated with cardiovascular health issues.
Osteoporosis: A high-protein diet, particularly when it is not balanced with sufficient intake of calcium and other bone-supporting nutrients, may negatively affect bone health. Excessive protein intake can increase urinary calcium excretion and may lead to reduced calcium absorption, potentially impacting bone mineral density and increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
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an admission clerk must obtain the reason for the admission when processing a hospital inpatient; this is called the
An admission clerk must obtain the reason for the admission when processing a hospital inpatient; this is called obtaining the chief complaint or primary diagnosis.
The chief complaint or primary diagnosis is a crucial piece of information that helps healthcare providers understand the patient's main concern or issue. This information is necessary for appropriate care planning and treatment during the patient's hospital stay. By accurately documenting the chief complaint or primary diagnosis, the admission clerk ensures that the patient's medical record is complete and assists the healthcare team in providing efficient and effective care.
Additionally, this information is often required for billing and insurance purposes, making it an essential part of the admission process.
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the nurse manages the care of a pediatric client admitted to the emergency department with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (dka). which nursing intervention should be done first?
The first nursing intervention that should be done for a pediatric client admitted to the emergency department with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to establish intravenous (IV) access.
Ketoacidosis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body produces high levels of ketones and the blood becomes too acidic. Ketones are produced when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of carbohydrates. Normally, the body can handle moderate levels of ketones, but in ketoacidosis, the levels become too high and can lead to a life-threatening situation.
Ketoacidosis is most commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes, particularly type 1 diabetes, but it can also occur in people with type 2 diabetes or other medical conditions. Symptoms of ketoacidosis include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid breathing, confusion, and dehydration. Left untreated, it can lead to coma or even death.
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a client is admitted for treatment of partial- and full-thickness burns of the entire right lower leg extremity and the anterior portion of the right upper arm. the nurse performs an immediate appraisal of the percentage of body surface area burned using the rule of nines. what percentage of body surface area does the nurse determine is affected? record the answer to one decimal place
Using the rule of nines, the nurse would determine that the percentage of body surface area affected by the burns on the entire right lower leg extremity and the anterior portion of the right upper arm is 18.5%.
The rule of nines is a quick and easy way to estimate the percentage of body surface area affected by burns. It divides the body into regions that represent 9% or multiples of 9% of the total body surface area. According to this rule, the right lower leg represents 9% and the right upper arm represents 4.5% of the total body surface area.
Therefore, the total percentage of body surface area affected by burns in the right lower leg and the anterior portion of the right upper arm is 13.5% (9% + 4.5%). However, since the burns are partial- and full-thickness, the nurse should add an additional 5% to the affected area, bringing the total to 18.5% (13.5% + 5%).
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What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in a full term newborn?
Answer:
Why it happens. NRDS usually occurs when the baby's lungs have not produced enough surfactant. This substance, made up of proteins and fats, helps keep the lungs inflated and prevents them collapsing. A baby normally begins producing surfactant sometime between weeks 24 and 28 of pregnancy.
while the nurse is assisting a client to ambulate as part of a cardiac rehabilitation program, the client has midsternal burning. what should the nurse do next?
The nurse should maintain open communication with the client, providing reassurance and support, and educate the client about the importance of reporting any chest discomfort or other concerning symptoms during rehabilitation exercises.
The nurse should take immediate action when a client experiences midsternal burning during cardiac rehabilitation ambulation. Firstly, the nurse should help the client to stop walking and find a safe, comfortable place to sit and rest. Next, the nurse should assess the client's vital signs, including blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation. This is crucial for determining if the midsternal burning is a sign of angina or a more serious cardiac event.
While monitoring the client's condition, the nurse should also administer prescribed medications, such as nitroglycerin, as per the client's medication plan. If the symptoms do not resolve within a few minutes or if the client's vital signs deteriorate, the nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider or initiate emergency protocols, as appropriate.
Throughout this process, the nurse should maintain open communication with the client, providing reassurance and support, and educate the client about the importance of reporting any chest discomfort or other concerning symptoms during rehabilitation exercises.
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which action would the nurse take for a frail, depressed, older client who frequently paces the halls and becomes physically tired from the activity? restrain the client in a chair. have the client perform simple, repetitiv
The nurse would not restrain the client in a chair. Instead, they would have the client perform simple, repetitive exercises to redirect their energy and provide a sense of purpose and engagement.
Restraining the client in a chair is not an appropriate or ethical response. It can lead to further agitation, frustration, and potential physical harm. Instead, the nurse would use a therapeutic approach by encouraging the client to engage in simple, repetitive exercises. This approach helps redirect their energy and provides a sense of purpose and engagement. It can help reduce restlessness, increase focus, and improve overall well-being. The nurse may also consider exploring other interventions such as providing a calm environment, encouraging social interaction, and assessing the underlying causes of depression to develop a comprehensive care plan.
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the nurse is planning the care for a child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adhd). when discussing interventions with the parent, which nursing intervention will be the highest priority?
The highest priority nursing intervention when planning care for a child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is ensuring the child's safety.
Children with ADHD may have impulsivity and hyperactivity, which can put them at risk for accidents and injuries. Therefore, the nurse must prioritize the child's safety by assessing the environment for potential hazards and implementing measures to prevent accidents.
Additionally, the nurse should educate the parents on how to provide a safe home environment and how to supervise the child effectively. Once safety is ensured, the nurse can focus on other nursing interventions, such as behavioral therapies, medications, and providing education to the child and family on managing ADHD symptoms.
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you are rapidly transporting a patient who is at full term and presenting with a prolapsed cord. this patient is best placed:
You are rapidly transporting a patient who is at full term and presenting with a prolapsed cord. In this scenario, the patient is best placed in the Trendelenburg position with her hips elevated. This position helps to reduce the pressure on the cord and prevent further cord compression.
The patient's head should be slightly lowered to increase blood flow to the brain and minimize the risk of hypoxia.
It is important to maintain close monitoring of the patient's vital signs and fetal heart rate during transport. Administering oxygen to the patient can help to improve fetal oxygenation and reduce the risk of fetal distress.
Once the patient arrives at the hospital, immediate intervention, such as a cesarean section, may be necessary to deliver the baby safely. It is crucial to inform the receiving medical team about the patient's condition and the steps taken during transport to ensure a smooth transition of care.
In summary, placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position, closely monitoring vital signs and fetal heart rate, administering oxygen, and prompt medical intervention upon arrival at the hospital are all important steps in managing a patient with a prolapsed cord during transport.
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Which action should the nurse implement for an infant who develops heart failure?
A) Restricting daily milk intake
B) Keeping in a supine position
C) Planning ways to reduce salt intake
D) Placing in a semi-Fowler's position
D) Placing in a semi-Fowler's position. This position allows for improved respiratory function and decreased venous return, which can help reduce the workload on the heart and improve cardiac output. Restricting daily milk intake and planning ways to reduce salt intake may be appropriate interventions for managing heart failure in older children or adults, but are not typically indicated for infants. Keeping in a supine position can actually worsen respiratory distress in infants with heart failure.
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your measurement of a patient's abdominal aorta gives a diameter of 6.5cm. the probable management of this patient would involve:
The probable management of a patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) with a diameter of 6.5cm would involve surgical intervention.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the walls of the aorta weaken and bulge out. Aortic aneurysms greater than 5.5 cm in diameter are at a higher risk of rupture, which can result in significant internal bleeding and can be fatal.
In such cases, surgical intervention is usually recommended to repair the aneurysm and prevent rupture. This can be done through open surgical repair or endovascular repair (EVAR). The choice of intervention depends on factors such as the patient's age, general health, and the location and extent of the aneurysm.
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the nurse is planning the care of an 8-year-old boy who has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. in the boy's plan of nursing care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects children. The nurse should prioritize nursing diagnoses that address the child's physical and emotional needs. One priority nursing diagnosis would be "Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to frequent itching and scratching."
The nurse should educate the child and family about the importance of avoiding triggers, using non-irritating moisturizers, and following a prescribed medication regimen. Another nursing diagnosis that should be prioritized is "Disturbed Body Image related to the appearance of the skin lesions." The nurse should provide emotional support and encourage the child to express his feelings about the condition. The nurse should also work with the child and family to develop coping strategies that promote self-esteem and positive body image. In addition, "Ineffective Coping related to chronic illness" should also be considered as a nursing diagnosis. The nurse should assess the child's coping mechanisms and provide interventions that promote effective coping skills. These could include distraction techniques, relaxation exercises, and support groups.
Overall, the nurse should focus on providing comprehensive care that addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the child with atopic dermatitis.
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during assessment of a newborn, the nurse finds heart murmurs on auscultation. which statement by the nurse to the parents is appropriate?
Appropriate statement by the nurse: "The doctor detected heart murmurs during the assessment. Further evaluation is needed to determine the cause and severity."
A heart murmur is an abnormal sound heard during the heartbeat cycle, often indicating turbulent blood flow through the heart. It can be caused by various factors, including structural abnormalities or functional issues with the heart valves. When a nurse detects heart murmurs in a newborn, it is important to inform the parents about it. However, it is crucial to avoid providing a definitive diagnosis or alarming the parents unnecessarily. The suggested statement acknowledges the detection of heart murmurs and emphasizes the need for further evaluation by a doctor to determine the cause and severity. This approach helps to maintain open communication, instill trust, and ensures that the parents understand the importance of seeking medical follow-up to properly assess and manage the condition.
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a public health nurse has learned that a colleague has been screening for scoliosis during visits made to schools even though such screening is not mandated. how should the nurse best respond to the colleague?
The correct option is A, The public health nurse should approach the colleague in a professional and non-confrontational manner to The probably dangerous outcomes of screening were proven to outweigh the benefits.
Health is a state of physical, mental, and social well-being in which an individual is able to function effectively and efficiently in their daily activities. It is not merely the absence of disease or infirmity, but a holistic state of being that encompasses a range of factors such as nutrition, exercise, mental health, social support, and access to healthcare.
Physical health refers to the state of the body and its functions, including the absence of illness or injury, proper nutrition, exercise, and rest. Mental health refers to the emotional and psychological well-being of an individual, including their ability to cope with stress and maintain positive relationships. Social health refers to the ability to form and maintain social connections and support networks.
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Complete Question:
A public health nurse has learned that a colleague has been screening for scoliosis at some stage in visits made to schools even though such screening isn't always mandated. How ought the nurse fine response to the colleague?
A) "The probably dangerous outcomes of screening were proven to outweigh the benefits."
B) "Screening for scoliosis has been proven to be misguided."
C) "Screening makes no sense now that we realize scoliosis is a benign situation."
D) "The low prevalence and prevalence of scoliosis have made screening
unnecessary."
which would be the best menu choice for a patient who is taking methimazole an antithyroid medication?
The best menu choice for a patient taking methimazole, an antithyroid medication, would be option A: Grilled chicken breast with mixed vegetables and a baked potato.
Methimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. This medication can cause gastrointestinal upset and decrease appetite, which may make it difficult for the patient to maintain a healthy diet. Therefore, it is important to provide the patient with nutrient-dense foods that are easy to digest and do not interfere with the absorption of the medication.
Option A provides a good balance of protein, vitamins, and minerals from the chicken and vegetables, while the baked potato provides a good source of carbohydrates for energy. Shrimp scampi (option B) and cheeseburger with French fries and a milkshake (option D) are high in fat and may be difficult to digest. The tuna salad sandwich with potato chips (option C) is high in salt and may not provide enough nutrients.
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Complete Question
What would be the best menu choice for a patient who is taking methimazole, an antithyroid medication? Choose the best option from the following:
a. Grilled chicken breast with mixed vegetables and a baked potato
b. Shrimp scampi with garlic bread and a Caesar salad
c. Tuna salad sandwich on whole wheat bread with potato chips
d. Cheeseburger with French fries and a milkshake
Shirley is a 75-year-old woman who is seeing her doctor for her annual checkup. She explains that she has been having some shortness of breath. As part of her visit, the doctor recommends that Shirley get an ECG so that they can assess the condition of her heart. Shirley is very anxious about the test and does not feel that it is necessary.
How can the medical assistant assist Shirley?
the nurse is teaching a 45-year-old client about ways to lower cholesterol level. what effects of exercise does the nurse describe?
The nurse explains that exercise has the effect of increasing high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) and decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL), option A is correct.
Regular exercise plays a crucial role in managing cholesterol levels. When a person engages in physical activity, it stimulates the production of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs), which are commonly known as "good" cholesterol. HDLs help transport cholesterol from the bloodstream to the liver, where it is metabolized and eliminated from the body.
This process reduces the overall level of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), or "bad" cholesterol, which tends to build up in the arteries and contribute to heart disease. By increasing HDL and decreasing LDLs, exercise promotes a healthier cholesterol profile and reduces the risk of cardiovascular problems, option A is correct.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is teaching a 45-year-old patient about ways to lower cholesterol levels and explains that exercise has what effect?
A) Increases high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) and decreases low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
B) Increases LDL and decreases triglycerides
C) Decreases HDL and increases LDL
D) Decreases both HDL and LDL
Name the anxiety disorder that is caused from an overwhelmingly painful external event
- Post-Traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- Alzheimer disease
- Trauma
The anxiety disorder that is caused by an overwhelmingly painful external event is Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD).
PTSD is a psychiatric disorder that can occur in individuals who have experienced or witnessed a traumatic event, such as war, natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or other life-threatening events. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts or memories of the event, flashbacks, nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the trauma, hyperarousal, and negative changes in mood and cognition. It is important to note that Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects memory and cognitive function and is not caused by a specific external event.Trauma, on the other hand, refers to the event itself rather than a specific anxiety disorder.
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A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for an older adult client. which of the following actions should the nurse take to collect subjective data?
a. leave the client a written questionnaire to fill out in private.
b. allow sufficient time for the client to respond to the questions.
c. Talk to the family members to obtain the client's health history.
d. obtain the health history from the client's medical record.
Option b is the correct answer. The nurse should allow sufficient time for the older adult client to respond to the questions to collect subjective data. It is important to establish a comfortable and trusting relationship with the client and provide them with ample time to express their thoughts and concerns. Leaving a written questionnaire may not allow for clarification or elaboration of the client's responses. Talking to family members or obtaining the health history from the medical record can provide objective data, but subjective data is best obtained directly from the client.
Older adults may need more time to process and articulate their thoughts, so it's important for the nurse to be patient and give the client ample time to answer the questions. Rushing or interrupting the client can lead to incomplete or inaccurate information. By allowing sufficient time, the nurse can establish effective communication and create a comfortable environment for the client to share their subjective experiences.
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Information applicable to a particular CPT section is located in the _____.
a. Introduction c. Notes
b. Guidelines d. Index
The information applicable to a particular CPT section is located in the b. Guidelines.
The Guidelines section of the CPT codebook provides additional information and instructions for reporting certain procedures and services. These guidelines help ensure accurate coding and reimbursement for healthcare services. They provide explanations of procedures and services, including definitions, documentation requirements, and codes that are used together.
The Guidelines section is organized by sections, which correspond to the six main sections of the CPT codebook. The Guidelines section also includes instructions on how to use modifiers, which are codes used to provide additional information about a service or procedure.
Additionally, the Guidelines section may include instructions for reporting specific procedures in specific circumstances, such as during a surgery or for multiple procedures performed during the same session.
In summary, the Guidelines section is an essential resource for accurately reporting procedures and services using the CPT codebook.
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what is the longest amount of time between twin siblings being born?
The longest amount of time between twin siblings being born is 87 days.
In 2012, Maria Jones-Elliott gave birth to her twin daughters, Amy and Katie, 87 days apart. This happened because Maria experienced a rare condition called "prolonged interval delivery" or "delayed interval delivery." In this situation, one of the twins is born prematurely while the other remains in the womb to continue developing.
Maria went into labor at just 23 weeks pregnant and gave birth to Amy. Doctors managed to halt her labor, allowing Katie to remain in the womb for an additional 87 days. This time gap between the births broke the previous world record and set a new one. Both Amy and Katie are healthy and have continued to grow and develop normally.
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which type of drug can be ordered only with a written prescription signed by a dentist or physician?
A type of drug that can be ordered only with a written prescription signed by a dentist or physician is a prescription medication.
These medications require professional oversight due to their potency, potential side effects, or risk for misuse and abuse.A prescription drug (also prescription medication, prescription medicine or prescription-only medication) is a pharmaceutical drug that is only permitted to be dispensed to those with a medical prescription.
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which nursing action is correct when the state department of health recommends administering tetanus vaccine to pregnant women who have not received it previously? avoiding giving the vaccine to pregnant women who are in their first trimester
The nursing action when the state department of health recommends administering tetanus vaccine to pregnant women who have not received it previously is administering the vaccine to pregnant women at any gestational age, option B is correct.
Tetanus vaccine is considered safe during pregnancy and is recommended for pregnant women who have not received it previously or if the previous vaccination status is unknown. Tetanus is a life-threatening bacterial infection that can affect both the mother and the baby, and vaccination can prevent it.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), there is no evidence of risk to the fetus with tetanus vaccination during pregnancy. Therefore, avoiding tetanus vaccination in pregnant women, especially during an outbreak or an epidemic, can result in serious complications for both the mother and the baby, option B is correct.
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The complete question is:
Which nursing action is correct when the state department of health recommends administering tetanus vaccine to pregnant women who have not received it previously?
A. Avoiding giving the vaccine to pregnant women who are in their first trimester
B. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women at any gestational age
C. Revaccinating pregnant women who received tetanus vaccine last year
D. Avoiding vaccinating pregnant women who are at high risk for preterm labor
the nurse is caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome. the child is noted to have edema. the edema would most likely be seen where on this child?
In a child with nephrotic syndrome, edema is a common symptom. Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition in which the kidneys become damaged and protein leaks from the blood into the urine. This can cause edema, or swelling, in various parts of the body. In children with nephrotic syndrome, edema is most commonly seen in the face, abdomen, and legs. This is because gravity causes fluid to accumulate in these areas. In severe cases, edema may also be present in the hands, feet, and genitals. It is important for the nurse to monitor the child's edema regularly and document any changes in size or location.
Treatment for nephrotic syndrome may include diuretics to help remove excess fluid, medications to reduce protein leakage, and a low-salt diet. In some cases, the child may require hospitalization for close monitoring and intravenous medication administration. It is important for the nurse to provide supportive care and educate the child and family about managing the condition at home.
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a resident needs range of motion (rom) exercise every day. when the nurse aide tries to help her do the exercises, the resident says she will not do them. she says that they are too hard. what is the nurse aide's best response?
The nurse aide's best response to the resident who refuses to perform range of motion (ROM) exercises because they are too hard would be to express empathy and understanding for the resident's feelings.
The nurse aide should reassure the resident that ROM exercises are important for maintaining mobility, flexibility, and overall health. They could also suggest breaking down the exercises into smaller, more manageable steps, and offer to provide assistance and support throughout the process.
Additionally, the nurse aide can encourage the resident by highlighting the potential benefits of ROM exercises, such as improved circulation and reduced joint stiffness. If the resident still refuses, it is important to respect their wishes and report the situation to a supervising nurse for further guidance.
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when preparing a client who is scheduled for a pulmonary function test (pft) because of possible adult-onset asthma, which action would the nurse take? have client use the prescribed as needed bronchodilator before testing.
Depending on the healthcare provider's specific instructions, the nurse may need to instruct the client to use their prescribed as-needed bronchodilator before the test.
It is important for the nurse to follow the healthcare provider's orders regarding the preparation of a client who is scheduled for a pulmonary function test (PFT) because of possible adult-onset asthma.
Bronchodilators are medications that relax the muscles in the airways, which can help open up the air passages and improve breathing. If the client has been prescribed an as-needed bronchodilator for their asthma, it may be appropriate for them to use it before the PFT to help ensure accurate results.
By opening up the airways, the bronchodilator can help the client breathe more easily and fully during the test, which can help provide a more accurate assessment of their lung function.
However, it is important to note that the specific instructions for using bronchodilators before a PFT may vary depending on the type of test being performed and the healthcare provider's preferences.
Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to consult with the healthcare provider or the facility's policy and procedure guidelines to ensure that the client is properly prepared for the test.
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the nurse is administering intravenous vancomycin. what will the nurse initially assess the client for if an allergic reaction occurs?
If the nurse suspects an allergic reaction to intravenous vancomycin, they should first assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, which may include itching, hives, facial or tongue swelling, difficulty breathing, wheezing, rapid heartbeat, or a drop in blood pressure.
If an allergic reaction occurs, the nurse should immediately stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Depending on the severity of the reaction, the client may require treatment with antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine. The nurse should also document the reaction and any interventions taken in the client's medical record.
It is important for nurses to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions when administering intravenous medications and to have emergency protocols in place to quickly address any adverse reactions. Nurses should also educate clients on the signs and symptoms of allergic reactions and encourage them to report any symptoms immediately.
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after the scrub person dons sterile gloves using the closed-glove method, what is the next step?
After the scrub person dons sterile gloves using the closed-glove method, the next step is to perform the surgical scrub. This involves thoroughly washing and disinfecting the hands and forearms to remove any bacteria or other microorganisms.
That could cause an infection during the surgical procedure. The scrub person will use an antiseptic solution and scrub brush to thoroughly clean all areas of their hands and forearms, including under the nails and between the fingers. Once the surgical scrub is complete, the scrub person can proceed with assisting the surgeon during the procedure while maintaining strict sterile technique to prevent contamination. It is important for all members of the surgical team to follow proper protocol and procedures to ensure patient safety and successful outcomes.
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