When the term cell changes to cellular, it functions as an adjective. This is because the word cellular refers to commodity that's related to cells. For illustration, cellular towel is towel made up of cells.
cellular respiration is the process by which cells convert energy, and cellular structure is the structure of cells. Cellular is also used to describe cellular phones or cellular networks, which are phones or networks that calculate on cellular technology to communicate. In biology, cellular refers to the lowest living unit,
which is the cell. Cellular is also used to describe the structure of organisms, which are made up of numerous cells. In short, cellular is an adjective used to describe anything affiliated to cells.
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why is the cell membrane not an absolute barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment?
Since the cell membrane is semipermeable and enables certain things to pass through it to the outside world, it is not a complete wall between the cytoplasm and the outside world.
All cells have a cell membrane, which is the cell's outermost layer. The cell membrane serves two purposes. The first is to prevent the undesired toxins from the surrounding environment from entering the cell.
The second is to expel toxic waste from the cell and absorb nutrients from the surrounding environment.
As a result, we can infer that the cell membrane is semipermeable and that it does not completely separate the cytoplasm of the cell from the outside world.
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If Tom has immediately realized his error, is there anything that could have been done to save the
patient's life?
No, his red blood cells were too destroyed
Yes, a blood transfusion in isotonic solution
Yes, an Isotonic IV on the spot would have cured him
Which option is correct ^
The distilled water might have been promptly sterilized by being swapped out for a liter of saline.
What are the blood cells used for?Your body's tissues receive oxygen from red blood cells, also referred to as erythrocytes. Your tissues release carbon dioxide as oxygen is converted to energy. In order for you to exhale carbon dioxide, your red blood cells also carry it to your lungs.
What occurs when red blood cell levels are low?When you have anemia, your body doesn't produce enough strong red blood cells to supply enough oxygen to the tissues. You may experience fatigue and weakness if you have anemia, commonly known as low hemoglobin. Anemia comes in a variety of forms, each with a unique etiology.
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22) describe the floating leaf disk assay test. what environmental factors affected the rising of the leaf discs?
The release of oxygen into the leaf's interior during photosynthesis alters the buoyancy of the leaf, causing the disks to rise.
In the floating leaf disk method, a vacuum is utilized to remove trapped air and to penetrate plant (leaf) disk samples with a solution containing bicarbonate ions, which act as a carbon source for photosynthesis. The release of oxygen into the leaf's interior during photosynthesis alters the buoyancy of the leaf, causing the disks to rise.
The rate at which the disks increase is an indirect indicator of the net rate of photosynthesis because cellular respiration, which is occurring concurrently and using oxygen, is also going place.
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inhibitor of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase, which glycolytic intermediates would accumulate?
Glycolytic intermediates that would accumulate in the presence of an inhibitor of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase include glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, dihydroxyacetone phosphate, and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) is an enzyme that catalyzes the first step in glycolysis, converting glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG). An inhibitor of GAPDH would cause G3P to accumulate and slow down glycolysis, the process by which cells convert glucose into energy.
The accumulation of G3P would likely be accompanied by a decrease in the production of ATP, the energy currency of cells. The inhibition of GAPDH could have both positive and negative effects on cellular processes, depending on the context and the specific system being studied.
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Read the following statement. Consumerism makes people think they need to buy more goods, but it does not make them happy. Which sentence from the article provides the BEST support for this idea?
Sorry there is no selection for environmental science.
The tendency to consume and keep consuming is called consumerism. It is the need to accumulate more material possessions and define one's self by their possessions. Consumer spending and GDP growth are seen by economists as benefits of consumerism.
Who is an economist?By gathering and analyzing data, looking into trends, and assessing economic concerns, economists investigate the production and distribution of resources, goods, and services.
Is economics a challenging major?A difficult degree option is the economics major. Students studying economics must apply a considerable degree of critical thought and analysis. The topics addressed in economics degrees get even more demanding and thought-provoking as you move through your education.
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A group of tudent i propoing an experiment to tudy the impact of wavelength of light on plant. They hypotheize, "When we grow plant in green light and blue light and compare the height, we expect the one grown in blue light to be taller. " What’ miing from thi hypothei?
They postulate, "We predict the plant grown in blue light to be higher when we compare the height of the one grown in blue light to that grown in green light.
Plants' vegetative growth is strongly influenced by light with a wavelength of 400–520 nm, which includes light violet, blue, and green. Far red/infrared light with a wavelength of 720–1000 nm is used for germination, however very little absorption happens in this wave band. Plants may do a variety of tasks with the aid of various coloured light. For instance, blue light aids in promoting vegetative leaf growth. Plants can blossom when exposed to red and blue light. Indoor plant growth thrives under cool fluorescent lighting.
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you are about to study a bacterial sample under a light microscope. you look into the oculars and see two circles. what adjustments need to be made?
The adjustments that should be made in the light microscope is to adjust the focus knobs on the microscope and adjust the brightness and contrast.
A light microscope is a type of microscope that uses visible light and a system of lenses to magnify and observe samples, such as cells, tissues, or microorganisms. It is a widely used tool in biology and other life sciences for studying the structure and function of micro-objects.
If you look into the oculars and see two circles, you need to adjust the focus knobs on the microscope until the two circles become one sharp circle. You may also need to adjust the brightness and contrast to see the bacteria clearly.
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Which amino acid is the most abundant in the body?
Glutamine
Leucine
Valine
Tryptophan
The most abundant amino acid in the body is glutamine.
Amino acids are the organic molecules that are required by the body for the synthesis of proteins. Amino acids act as monomers for protein synthesis. They are have other functional roles like that of neurotransmitters, ligands, etc.
Glutamine is the most versatile type of amino acid. In case of some disease, the immune system requires high consumption of glutamine. The amino acid is synthesized in the muscles of the body. Structurally it is an alpha-amino acid. It also removes excess ammonia from the body and also maintains normal functioning of brain.
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What role(s) does meiosis play in gametogenesis? Check all that apply.
O Melosis reduces the number of chromosomes by half. O Meiosis increases the energy stores in gametes. O Melosis decreases genetic diversity. O Melosis adds to the number of cells in a growing blastocyst. O Melosis allows equal genetic contributions from each parent
The role(s) that meiosis plays in gametogenesis are:
Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes by half.
Meiosis decreases genetic diversity.
Meiosis allows equal genetic contributions from each parent.
The process of meiosis is the reduction of a cell's chromosomes and subsequent separation. Meiosis plays a role in gametogenesis in that it reduces the amount of genetic information from each parent and creates a population with an equal amount of genetic material.
meiosis is the process of self-fertilization during which the sperm and ova are derived from two different cells and merge at fertilization. The two resulting haploid cells - one containing one set of chromosomes and another containing zero - undergo successive divisions. Mitosis, on the other hand, produces an organism from a single cell by dividing it into two cells[1].
The number of chromosomes for each cell in the human gametes is reduced to half along with the number of halfs between individuals. This means that a fertilized egg would need two XY sex chromosomes, so if one parent has two such chromosomes, and one is from the mother and one from the father, then the other parent must also have two such chromosomes for a possible pregnancy. One of these pairs will come from each parent's Y chromosome (only one X chromosome can come from each parent). In order for the offspring to develop properly, the egg needs to be fertilized and begin to divide.
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one day after a picnic featuring potato salad and chicken, 10 of the attendees developed diarrhea. two of them became sick enough to be hospitalized. a motile gram-negative rod that was negative for lactose fermentation but positive for h2s production was isolated from stool samples of both patients. which organism is most likely to be the cause of the diarrhea?
The organism that most likely to be the cause of the of the attendees get diarrhea after a picnic featuring potato salad and chicken (a motile gram-negative rod that was negative for lactose fermentation but positive for h2s production was isolated from stool samples of both patients) is Salmonella ser. Typhimurium.
The most common symptoms of Salmonella infection are diarrhea, fever, and stomach cramps. Symptoms begin six to six days after infection and last four to seven days. Some people, however, do not experience symptoms for several weeks after infection, whereas others do. Salmonella typhimurium synthesizes H2S from thiosulfate or sulfite.
Salmonella infection is diagnosed when Salmonella bacteria are detected in a person's stool (poop), body tissue, or fluids by a laboratory test.
Most people recover from Salmonella infection in four to seven days without the use of antibiotics. Salmonella patients should drink plenty of fluids for the duration of their diarrhea.
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which of the following represents the correct order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology? which of the following represents the correct order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology? systems ecology, ecosystem ecology, population genetics and ecology, and plant geography plant geography, population genetics, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology population genetics, plant geography, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology plant geography, population genetics and ecology, ecosystem ecology, and systems ecology population genetics, systems ecology, ecosystem ecology, and plant geography
The order of the development of fields of study in the science of ecology is population genetics, plant geography, systems ecology, and ecosystem ecology.
Population genetics looks at the genetic makeup of populations and how it changes over time, as well as how species are adapted to their environments.
Plant geography focuses on the spatial relationship between plants and their surroundings such as their distribution across a landscape.
Systems ecology examines how the components of an ecosystem interact and how changes in one part of the system can have effects throughout.
Ecosystem ecology, meanwhile, studies the flow of energy and materials through an entire ecosystem, from microorganisms to mammals, as well as how ecosystems respond to disturbances and ways to manage them for their health and wellbeing.
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The message leaves the nucleus and directs the making of polypeptides at the ___
Answer:
ribosomes.
Explanation:
The process of protein synthesis involves two main stages: transcription and translation. In transcription, the DNA sequence in the nucleus is used to create a complementary messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule. This mRNA molecule then leaves the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm, where it binds to a ribosome.
The ribosome is the site of translation, where the mRNA sequence is used to direct the assembly of a polypeptide chain. The ribosome reads the mRNA sequence in groups of three nucleotides, called codons, and matches each codon with the appropriate amino acid. The ribosome then links the amino acids together in the correct order to form a polypeptide chain.
The ribosome is made up of two subunits, a large subunit and a small subunit, which come together around the mRNA molecule. The ribosome also contains three binding sites for tRNA molecules, which are small RNA molecules that carry specific amino acids. The tRNA molecules bind to the ribosome and deliver their amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain, based on the sequence of codons in the mRNA molecule.
Overall, the ribosome plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by providing the site for the assembly of polypeptide chains. The mRNA molecule carries the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where it is used to direct the synthesis of proteins. The ribosome reads the mRNA sequence and matches each codon with the appropriate amino acid, using tRNA molecules to deliver the amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
Which amino acid would be coded first from the dna strand being transcribed?
Answer:
Methionine acid
Explanation:
It is also known as start codon. This is the first amino acid to land in ribosomes during the synthesis of protein.
Cerebral spinal fluid is produced in which structure(s)?
Choroid Plexus
Correct, cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the choroid plexus.
The choroid plexus is a network of blood vessels and ependymal cells found within the ventricles of the brain.
The ependymal cells secrete CSF, which circulates throughout the central nervous system and provides a cushion for the brain and spinal cord, helps regulate the chemical environment of the brain, and helps to remove waste products from the central nervous system.
The choroid plexus is responsible for the majority of CSF production in the body and continuously produces and renews the fluid.
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2.true or false: always take antibiotics prescribed by your doctor, no matter what organism, viral or bacterial, is causing your illness.
The given statement "always take antibiotics prescribed by a doctor, no matter what organism, bacterial or viral, is causing illness." is false because antibiotics only work against bacterial infections.
Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections and taking them for viral infections can lead to antibiotic resistance and decreased efficacy of antibiotics in the future. It is important to follow your doctor's advice and only take antibiotics as prescribed.
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Jocelyn Smith is an excellent singer. In fact, she has a band called Jocelyn Smith and
Friends that play often on the local music scene. She has a gig in two days at the County Fair where several talent scouts will be present. Jocelyn feels this may be her big break.
She wakes up two days before her event with what feels like a head cold. You know the symptoms—cough, runny nose, headache, chills, and muscle aches. As the day progresses, Jocelyn begins to feel worse. The day before her gig she wakes with a fever of 103˚F, a severe sore throat, and all of the same symptoms as yesterday.
Our job is to discover why Jocelyn is feeling so ill. Is it because of the infectious agent or is it her own body that is making her sick? To discover the answer, we will go through the steps of the immune response.
We will assume that Jocelyn has Influenza A virus.
Upon initial infection, the innate immune system responds with _______.This process involves the infected area of the body becoming very warm. The warmth comes from physiologic responses that are triggered to combat the infection. When a breech occurs in the physical barriers of the body (i.e. skin or mucus membranes), the innate immune response follows a set of steps to contain the infection.
Step 1. Increase the amount of white blood cells that will get to the area of infection.
How can this be done?
What physiologic response, if increased, will allow more white blood cells to get to the area of infection?
Step 2. Now that the cells are at the site of infection, they need to migrate to the specific area. We increased heart rate to get the cells to the area (by pumping the heart faster, more white blood cells will be able to get to the site of infection faster through the vasculature).
How do cells get out of the vessels?
Step 3. The cells that were initially infected are releasing immune chemicals called chemokines. These specialized immune chemicals are designed to create a trail for white blood cells to follow. The greatest concentration of these chemokines are at the site of infection and the concentration tapers off as the molecules move to the vessels.
Using this information, how do you think white blood cells move to the site of infection?
The innate immune response helps recruit and direct white blood cells to the site of infection, allowing them to combat the infectious agent and initiate the immune response.
The innate immune system inflames upon infection. This procedure heats the diseased region. When the skin or mucus membranes break, the innate immune response kicks in to confine the infection.
Step 1: Increase white blood cell flow to the infection.
Increase blood flow to the diseased region. Blood flow brings additional white blood cells to the infection location. Vasodilation—widening blood vessels—can improve blood flow.
Step 2: Cells must move from vessels to the target.
Diapedesis (extravasation) lets cells leave blood arteries. White blood cells enter contaminated tissue through blood vessel walls.
Step 3: Chemokines guide white blood cells to the infection. Chemokines secreted by infected cells form a gradient with the highest concentration near the infection site. White blood cells follow this gradient to the infection site.
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evolution operates at the population level, not the individual level. why?
Evolution operates at the population level because an individual alone cannot evolve. However individuals in a population vary among themselves and therefore some are more fit than the others. As a result, evolution causes more fit people to survive and form a population of fit individuals.
Evolution is the phenomenon of slow and gradual changes that occur in a population over long durations of time. The process of evolution causes better surviving individuals to carry forward. Evolution causes morphological characters to be enhanced.
Fitness in evolution can be defined as the ability of the individuals to survive in unfavorable environments. The most important trait that defines fitness is the ability to reproduce and give birth to offspring.
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how do i link my tidal energy power plant working model with the 4 habitats(desert, forests, polar regions and aquatic habitat)?
Answer:
One way to link a tidal energy power plant working model with different habitats is to study the impact of the power plant on each habitat. For example, in a desert habitat, the power plant may have a minimal impact on the ecosystem, while in a forest habitat, the power plant may have a greater impact on the plants and animals living there. Similarly, in a polar region, the power plant may have an impact on the ice and the animals living there, while in an aquatic habitat, the power plant may have an impact on the water quality and marine life. Additionally, you could research how the different habitats can be used to generate tidal energy.
use the example of dna damage to explain why there is a strong selection pressure
DNA damage can have severe consequences for an organism, potentially leading to mutations and a higher risk of disease. As a result, there is a strong selection pressure for organisms to have efficient mechanisms for repairing DNA damage.
This is because organisms that are better equipped to repair DNA damage are more likely to survive and reproduce than those that are not. Over time, this results in the evolution of increasingly efficient DNA repair mechanisms in the population.
For example, consider a population of cells that are exposed to a DNA-damaging agent, such as radiation. Some of these cells may have better DNA repair mechanisms than others. The cells with more efficient DNA repair mechanisms are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their genes to the next generation. Over time, the proportion of cells with efficient DNA repair mechanisms increases in the population, as cells with less efficient mechanisms are gradually weeded out by natural selection.
In this way, selection pressure can drive the evolution of complex and sophisticated biological systems, such as DNA repair mechanisms, that help to maintain the stability of an organism's genome and prevent the accumulation of harmful mutations.
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1.10. how do the surviving terranauts get back to the seafloor?
The surviving terranauts get back to the seafloor using a submersible vehicle or a deep-diving suit.
The surviving terranauts can return to the seafloor using various underwater vehicles and equipment. One option is to use a submersible vehicle, which is a specialized craft designed for underwater exploration and research. Submersible vehicles can be remotely operated or manned and provide a safe and efficient means of exploring the deep terranauts . Both submersible vehicles and deep-diving suits are commonly used by scientists, researchers, and underwater explorers to access the deep ocean and study its unique and diverse ecosystems. Regardless of the method used, it is essential that the surviving terranauts are properly trained and equipped to safely return to the seafloor.
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molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological membranes are called
Molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that forms biological membranes are called Phospholipids (PL).
Phospholipids (PL) are a group of polar lipids that are made up of two fatty acids, a glycerol unit, and a phosphate group that is esterified to an organic molecule (X). Some examples of X include choline, ethanolamine, inositol, and others. Phospholipids are found in the cell membranes of all living organisms.
Phospholipids, which are amphipathic molecules composed of two hydrophobic fatty acid chains connected to a phosphate-containing hydrophilic head group, are the fundamental building blocks of all cell membranes. Phospholipids are also known as phospholipid bilayers.
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Analyze how the control system shown below helps cnidarians respond to changes and capture prey.
Answer:
Explanation:
All cnidarians are carnivorous predators. Jellyfish capture small drifting animals with their stinging cnidocyte-filled tentacles. Even the sessile coral polyps and sea anemones are predators ready to sting prey, grasp it in their tentacles, and push it into their mouth.
in differential centrifugation, what is the correct order for fraction separation? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a cytosol, membrane, mitochondrial, nuclear b nuclear, membrane, mitochondrial, cytosol c cytosol, mitochondrial, membrane, nuclear d nuclear, mitochondrial, membrane, cytosol e mitochondrial, membrane, nuclear, cytosol
In differential centrifugation, the correct order for fraction separation is (d) nuclear, mitochondrial, membrane, and cytosol.
A method of separation in which the constituents of a cell are separated from one another in a centrifuge based on their respective densities in accordance with the centrifugal force that they are subjected to.
Differential centrifugation is a technique utilized in the field of biochemistry for the purpose of separating cellular organelles and other sub-cellular particles according to the rate at which they sediment. The following is the proper sequence to follow when separating fractions:
Nuclear > Mitochondrial > Membrane > Cytosol.
As a result, the response that should be chosen is B.
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when an epiphyseal plate closes longitudinal growth is no longer possible. true or false
The given statement “when an epiphyseal plate closes longitudinal growth is no longer possible” is True because the plate serves as the growth plate for the bone
The growth plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage found at the end of long bones in children and adolescents.
As the individual grows, the cartilage in the growth plate is gradually replaced by bone, resulting in the fusion of the growth plate and the cessation of longitudinal growth.
This process is known as epiphyseal closure and typically occurs in late adolescence or early adulthood, depending on various factors such as genetics, hormones, and nutrition.
The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, located at the joint. It is separated from the shaft (diaphysis) of the bone by the epiphyseal plate (also called the growth plate), which is a layer of hyaline cartilage responsible for bone growth in children and adolescents.
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g which of the following best defines mirnas? coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna. non-coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
b. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna. MicroRNAs are 18–24 nucleotide short RNA transcripts that control translational gene expression.
They are among the non-coding RNAs that have been studied the most and are best characterised. By adversely influencing the expression of multiple genes at the mRNA and protein levels, by degrading their mRNA targets, and/or by silencing translation, miRNAs function as tiny guide molecules in RNA silencing. Understanding their role in oncogenesis is one of the most recent developments in the field.MiRNAs are short, single-stranded non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression primarily by binding to sequence motifs found in the untranslated region (UTR) of mRNA transcripts. They are small (19–25 nucleotides long).
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which of the following best defines mirnas?
a.coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna.
b. non-coding rnas that modulate the translation of mrna.
c. coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
d. non-coding rnas that modulate the transcription of mrna.
what expenses does a farmer spend money on when growing his or her crop.
Most notably, livestock and poultry farm-origin expenses have increased 46% and marketing, storage and transportation expenses have increased 59%. Overall, the intermediate expense category, which includes the majority of the farm production inputs, has increased 18% since 2013.
Fertilizer and rent are most likely the two largest costs for all grain farms. Undoubtedly, input costs will be higher in 2022.
The largest expenditures for crop farms are labor at $27.0 billon (13.8 percent), farm services at $26.2 billion (13.4 percent), and rent at $25.1 billion (12.8 percent). Combined crop inputs (chemicals, fertilizers, and seeds) are $56.4 billion, accounting for 28.9 percent of crop farms total expenses
Which of the following is not an assumption of stage theories?
A.
Stages are genetically predisposed.
B.
Stages are continuous and gradual.
C.
Each stage corresponds to a specific age.
D.
Each stage is passed through in order.
Answer: Option B is correct
Explanation:
just did it on edge 2023
with only 13 loci why is it possible to get millions of possible genotypes
"Most of our DNA is the same as that of other people. However, some parts of our inherited DNA might differ from person to person.
"Polymorphisms" are differences in DNA sequence across individuals. Sequences with the highest degree of polymorphism, as we shall learn in this activity, are particularly helpful for DNA analysis in forensics cases and paternity tests. This activity is based on investigating the inheritance of the "Short Tandem Repeats" (STRs), a group of DNA polymorphisms." STRs are short DNA sequences that are frequently repeated in a head-tail fashion. For example, the 16 bp sequence "gatagatagatagata" would represent 4 head-tail copies of the tetramer "gata." STRs are typically 2 to 5 base pairs in length.
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where are the lung in pig get their oxygen from while in the womb
Blood in the fetus is oxygenated in the placenta rather than in the lungs. The umbilical arteries connect the fetus to the placenta.
Fetal breathing occurs 10%-20% of the time during 24-28 weeks of gestation, rising to 30%-40% after 30 weeks. Fetal respiration, which originates in the diaphragm, is irregular in frequency and amplitude and fluctuates during pregnancy. The volume of fluid transported is minimal, and it is inadequate to empty the trachea.
Foetal breathing motions are apparent in humans beginning in the fifteenth week of pregnancy and increasing until the beginning of the third trimester. Breathing motions have been present 30% of the time throughout the previous 10 weeks. Fetal breathing movements (FBM) are critical in lung development because they delay the drainage of fluids from the future airspaces of the lungs, allowing for proper lung expansion.
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which one of the following pairs of reagents reacts to form an organic product that shows only 2 peaks in its proton n.m.r. spectrum?
a. butan-2-ol and acidified potassium dichromate(VI)
b. ethanoyl chloride and methanol
c. propanoic acid and ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid
d. ethene and hydrogen in the presence of nickel
b: ethanoyl chloride and methanol reacts to form an organic product that shows only 2 peaks in its proton NMR spectrum.
In organic chemistry, proton NMR spectrum spectroscopy is a powerful tool used to identify the number and type of hydrogen atoms present in a molecule. The number of peaks in an NMR spectrum is directly proportional to the number of unique hydrogen environments present in a molecule.
When ethanoyl chloride and methanol react, an ester is formed through a nucleophilic acyl substitution reaction. Esters typically have two unique hydrogen environments, giving rise to two peaks in their proton NMR spectra.
In contrast, the other reactions listed in the options are likely to produce compounds with more than two unique hydrogen environments, leading to more than two peaks in their proton NMR spectra. Therefore, option b is the correct answer
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