When a patient has suspected acute stroke, the primary assessment includes a few important steps. First, the patient should be placed on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status, meaning they should not eat or drink anything.
This is necessary to prevent further medical complications. Secondly, if their oxygen saturation level is below 94%, supplemental oxygen should be administered. Lastly, cardiac monitoring should be established to monitor for any arrhythmias or changes in the heart rate and rhythm. Cardiac monitoring may include an electrocardiogram (ECG), which records the electrical activity of the heart, and/or a continuous telemetry monitor, which records a patient’s heart rate and rhythm.
Cardiac monitoring allows for a quick response to any changes in the patient’s condition. By taking these steps during the primary assessment of a patient with suspected acute stroke, medical personnel can help ensure the patient receives the best possible care.
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a student nurse asks you about the typical signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction. how should you respond?
Answer:
Manage chest pain.
Bed rest.
Provide oxygen.
Administer aspirin and nitroglycerin.
Place patient with head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees.
Make patient comfortable.
Hook up to monitor.
Check vitals.
Explanation:
im in a health class
The typical signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction (heart attack) include:
Chest pain or discomfort: a feeling of pressure, fullness, or tightness in the center of the chest that may last for several minutes or come and go.
Shortness of breath: feeling winded or having difficulty breathing.
Nausea or vomiting: feeling sick to the stomach or vomiting.
Sweating: breaking out in a cold sweat or sweating more than usual.
Pain or discomfort in other areas of the upper body: such as the arms, neck, jaw, back, or stomach.
Lightheadedness or dizziness: feeling unsteady, dizzy, or faint.
Fatigue: feeling tired or weak, especially with physical activity.
It's important to note that these symptoms can vary in intensity, duration, and pattern and may not be the same for everyone. If someone is experiencing symptoms of a heart attack, they should seek medical attention immediately.
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Which of these tests should be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 25 minutes of hospital arrival?
A. 12-lead ECG
B. Cardiac enzymes
C. Coagulation studies
D. Noncontrast CT scan of the head
The test to be performed for a patient with suspected stroke within 25 minutes of hospital arrival is: (D) Non-contrast CT scan of the head.
Stroke is also called brain attack. It is similar to heart attack in the way that the blood supply to the brain is stopped. This can occur to blood vessel blockage or due to bursting of the blood vessels supplying the heart. The stroke can cause ever-lasting brain damage or even death.
CT scan stands for Computed Tomography scan. It is diagnostic technique that makes use of the X-rays to produce images of the internal parts of the body. The CT scan produce more detailed images than the standard X-rays.
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What is the condition of the body called
pharmacokinetics in the elderly click and drag each item to where it affects pharmacokinetics in the elderly. True or False
Pharmacokinetics in the elderly is affected by several factors, which can include changes in body composition, organ function, and metabolism.
The elderly population is often at a higher risk for adverse drug reactions and therapeutic failure due to changes in pharmacokinetics. These changes can include reductions in body mass and lean body mass, changes in organ function, and alterations in drug metabolism and elimination. These pharmacokinetics changes can result in altered drug distribution, increased drug exposure, and decreased clearance of drugs, which can all impact the pharmacokinetics effectiveness and safety of medications. Understanding these changes is important for the safe and effective use of medications in the elderly population.
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A 35-year-old firefighter is ascending stairs at a rate of 3 1/2 floors/min with full equipment that includes the SCBA with 57.3 L of O2. Evidence suggests this work rate is = ~12 METS on avg.
According to recent testing his VO2max = 5.45L/min &he is 200lbswith10% bodyfat.
What is his relative VO2maxand how would you categorize/rate his aerobic fitness? What are the physiological determinants of his VO2max,and what factors influence those physiological determinants?
The greatest rate of oxygen intake during incremental exercise is known as VO2 Max, also known as maximal oxygen consumption.
Maximal oxygen uptake, peak oxygen uptake, or maximal aerobic capacity (exercise of increasing intensity).
The term is a combination of the words volume, oxygen, and maximum. Maximal oxygen uptake represents a person's overall cardiorespiratory fitness. It is a great technique to determine someone's level of fitness.
There is a prevalent misperception that only trained runners, cyclists, and endurance athletes may benefit from the VO2 Max test, even if it is true that the test can help evaluate endurance capacity during extended exercise.
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what is the recommended bls sequence for the 2020 ilcor guidelines
The recommended BLS sequence for the 2020 ILCOR guidelines is CABD (Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Defibrillate).
The main international resuscitation organisations meet in the International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation (ILCOR). The ILCOR's goals are to: Offer a venue for debate and coordination of all facets of cardiopulmonary and cerebral resuscitation on a global scale.
When assessing and treating patients who are in respiratory and cardiac distress, BLS practitioners are frequently directed by an acronym. CABD is this (Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Defibrillate). Ventricular fibrillation and non-perfusing ventricular tachycardia are two heart arrhythmias that defibrillation is used to treat. A defibrillator gives the heart a dose of electric current.
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using evidence-based practice, what screening would you need to make to ensure these patients are getting adequate care and health promotion.
Screening patients using evidence-based practice requires regular assessment of their health status, risk factors, and preventive care needs.
Evidence-based practice (EBP) in healthcare involves using the best available research evidence-based practice to inform clinical decision making and patient care. To ensure that patients are receiving adequate care and health promotion, healthcare providers must regularly screen patients using EBP. This may involve assessments of their current health status, including assessments of their physical, mental, and social well-being, as well as evaluations of their risk factors for various health conditions. Providers may also screen for evidence-based practice care needs, such as immunizations, screenings for chronic diseases, and lifestyle modifications to promote health and prevent disease. By using EBP, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the best possible care and promote their overall evidence-based practice health and well-being.
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Which learning disability is associated with a severe difficulty in recognizing and comprehending written words?
Phonemic awareness
Phonological awareness
Dyscalculia
Dyslexia
The learning disability which is associated with a severe difficulty in recognizing and comprehending written words is phonemic awareness.
A learning disability is a lower intellectual capacity and difficulties with day-to-day activities, such as taking care of the home, interacting with others, or managing money, that impacts a person for the rest of their life. Early-life psychological trauma or abuse may have an impact on brain development and raise the possibility of learning difficulties.
The ability to hear, recognise, and manipulate phonemes—the smallest conceptual units of sound that aid in differentiating units of meaning—is a component of phonological awareness. Phonemic awareness is needed to distinguish the three separate phonemes in the spoken word "cat."
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In your own words what is the replication crisis in psychology
Answer: The expanding conviction that many scientific research findings cannot be replicated and are therefore likely to be inaccurate.
Explanation: Numerous studies have demonstrated that many attempts to duplicate findings in published research fail, either because the replication studies discovered an effect that was not present in the earlier study or because they failed to identify the effect that was claimed in the previous study.
True or False: It is always obvious to the audience when a speaker is experiencing symptoms of speech anxiety.
It is False that It is always obvious to the audience when a speaker is experiencing symptoms of speech anxiety.
The given statement "It is always obvious to the audience when a speaker is experiencing symptoms of speech anxiety" is false because the majority of the speaker's anxiousness is hidden from the audience.
Glossophobia, often known as speech anxiety, is the fear of public speaking. Glossophobia's reasons are unknown, although hypotheses include communibiology and the illusion of transparency. Further causes range from anxiousness caused by a lack of preparation to social anxiety disorder, one of the most frequent mental conditions (SAD).
Its symptoms include one or more of the following: physiological changes, mental interruptions, and poor verbal performance. Glossophobia can be overcome through preparation and prepping, deconstructing beliefs, engaging in positive self-talk, visualizing optimum results, practicing mindfulness, breathing exercises, creating an anxiety pecking order, using virtual reality, computer assisted coaches, and medicines such as beta-blockers.
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Which of the following is true concerning the heart’s electrical conduction system?A Action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular nodeB Action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular bundle.C Action potentials pass slowly through the Purkinje fibers.D Action potentials pass slowly through the ventricle wall.
The true concerning the heart’s electrical conduction system is that A Action potentials pass slowly through the atrioventricular node so option A is correct.
The heart’s electrical conduction system is responsible for the orderly compression of the gallerias and ventricles. Action capabilities pass through the gallerias, through the atrioventricular( AV) knot, and also through the atrioventricular pack( AVB), the pack of His, and the Purkinje filaments to the ventricular walls.
The action capabilities travel sluggishly through the AV knot and the AVB, allowing time for the gallerias to contract before the ventricles contract. The Purkinje filaments act as a fast- conducting system to spread the action capabilities throughout the ventricular walls.
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identify what type of fat is associated with the health characteristic.
Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated are the type of fat which are associated with the health characteristics.
Several factors make monounsaturated fats beneficial for your health: Your LDL (bad) cholesterol level may be reduced with their assistance. A sticky, waxy material called cholesterol can restrict or clog arteries (blood vessels). Your risk of developing heart disease and stroke is lower if you maintain your LDL level low.
Dietary fats include polyunsaturated fat. Together with monounsaturated fat, it is one of the good fats. Salmon, vegetable oils, some nuts and seeds, as well as other plant and animal foods including nuts and seeds, contain polyunsaturated fat. Potentially even better than monounsaturated fats are polyunsaturated fats. In one study, switching to polyunsaturated fat sources instead of diets heavy in saturated fat lowered the risk of heart disease by 19%.
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The principle of recuperation states that in order to build muscles mass, you need sufficient rest between workout sessions
True
False
The given statement, "The principle of recuperation states that in order to build muscles mass, you need sufficient rest between workout sessions" is false.
The principle of recuperation defines that in order to improve the physical fitness one must take sufficient rest between two workout sessions. Here physical fitness does not necessarily refers to building muscle mass. Physical fitness simple refers to the healthy state of body and mind.
Muscle mass refers to the total muscles present inside an individual's body. It includes all the muscles of the body skeletal muscles, smooth muscles and cardiac muscles. A good amount of muscle mass states that the body is able to energy easily and faster.
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define mixed heat method in cooking
The mixed heat method occurs when you cook using by a dry and moist method. The most popular types of cooking methods that are mixed heat are braising, stewing, and making a pot roast. Additionally, this method can be used on a variety of ingredients, such as vegetables and even desserts, but it is most commonly used on meat.
Some small reminders:
Dry cooking occurs when food is exposed to a high amount of temperature without any moisture being created. This often occurs in a pan without a lid or in the oven.
The moist method occurs when water, broth, or juices are used to add moisture to the cooking process. This is often used to soften foods.
Hope this helps!
when testing a pulpally involved tooth, which teeth should serve as control – ideally
Contralateral asymptomatic tooth of same type is ideal control for pulpally involved tooth testing.
Testing a pulpally involved tooth requires a control tooth to help determine if the pain or sensitivity being experienced is a result of the pulp involvement or from other factors. The ideal control tooth is the contralateral asymptomatic tooth of the same type. This is because it helps to control for any variations in temperature sensitivity or pain perception between the two sides of the mouth, providing a more accurate assessment of the pulp involvement. Additionally, comparing a pulpally involved tooth to an asymptomatic tooth of the same type helps to rule out any systemic or non-dental causes of pain.
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QUICK! HELP! Grade 9 health!
what are some strategies and suggestions for someone in order to help guide them towards knowing if they are ready to have sexual experiences with another person?
Answer:
- Do you feel pressured into this?
- What makes you sure that you are ready?
- Are you using protection?
- Do you feel safe with this person?
- What makes you drawn to this experience?
Explanation:
What is the treatment for a mild allergic reaction?
Remove the offending agent.
Consider an antihistamine.
The treatment for a mild allergic reaction typically involves removing the offending agent, if possible, and taking an antihistamine.
Removing the allergen is the first step in treating an allergic reaction as it helps to minimize further exposure and reduce the severity of symptoms.
Antihistamines can be effective in treating mild allergic reactions by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the immune system during an allergic reaction.
Antihistamines are available over-the-counter and by prescription and can help to relieve symptoms such as itching, sneezing, runny nose, and hives.
It is important to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen, or if the patient is experiencing difficulty breathing or swallowing. In these cases, a more severe allergic reaction may be present and further medical intervention may be necessary.
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what is bid and tid switch
Answer:
BID: bis in die, twice a day; TID: ter in die: three times a day. The appropriate dosing regimen for a drug depends on exposure-response relationships (see dose finding and dose fractionation study) and is based on in vitro, in vivo, and clinical evidence.
Explanation:
Bid and TID switches are electrical switches used to control the flow of electricity in a circuit.
A bidirectional switch, also known as a bid or bidirectional interface device (BID), is a switch that can change the direction of current flow through it. This type of switch allows for the current to flow in two opposite directions and is often used in power supplies or motor control circuits.
A TID switch, or thermal interlocking device switch, is a safety switch used in electrical appliances and equipment to prevent overheating. The TID switch is designed to detect when the temperature of the equipment reaches a certain threshold, and will automatically disconnect the power supply to prevent damage or injury.
These switches are commonly found in heating elements, electric motors, and other electrical equipment.
Overall, bid and TID switches play important roles in controlling and ensuring the safe operation of electrical circuits and equipment.
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What does health and wellness mean to you?
Answer: What health and wellness means to me is being healthy mentally and physically. Health and wellness is a vital key part to enjoy everyday life. Being healthy and having good wellness will improve mood mentality and various other things. This is what health and wellness means to me.
Maria is a sedentary, 68-year-old woman who is overweight. She complains that her hands and feet are always cold, and she tires quickly when cleaning the house. At her most recent visit to her doctor, her blood pressure was 184/98 mm Hg. She has edema around her ankles and legs, and her physician is concerned about an echocardiogram that indicates Maria has an enlarged heart.Identify two reasons why Maria will have tissue ischemia. How might this lead to hypoxia?What two early and reversible changes occur to tissue cells when they are hypoxic?What specific type of cellular adaptation has taken place in Maria’s enlarged heart? What made you come to this conclusion?
Maria will have tissue ischemia due to her high blood pressure and the accumulation of fluid in her legs and ankles. This can lead to hypoxia, as the insufficient blood flow results in reduced oxygen delivery to the tissues.
The early and reversible changes in tissue cells when they are hypoxic include the inhibition of aerobic respiration hypoxia and the activation of glycolysis. The specific type of cellular adaptation in Maria's enlarged heart is cardiac hypertrophy, which is the enlargement of heart tissue muscle cells. This conclusion was made based on the echocardiogram indicating an enlarged heart tissue , which is a common hypoxia adaptation in response to increased workload from high blood pressure.
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what icd 10 cm codes are reported for uncontrolled hypertension with stage 3 chronic kdiney disease
ICD-10-CM codes I12.9, N18.3 are recorded for uncontrolled hypertension with stage 3 chronic renal disease. Option A is correct.
When both hypertension and a condition defined as category N18, Chronic kidney disease are present, ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.9.a.2 assigns codes from category I12, Hypertensive chronic kidney disease. Examine for Hypertension/kidney/with/stage 1 across stage 4 chronic kidney disease in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, which takes you to code I12.9. There is a remark in the Tabular List to use an extra code to designate the stage of chronic renal disease (N18.1-N18.4 or N18.9).
Look in the Alphabetic Index for diseased/kidney/chronic/stage 3 (moderate), which will lead you to code N18.3. Hypertension medication has emerged as the most essential intervention with in management of all kinds of chronic renal disease. Chronic Kidney Disease & Hypertension is a contemporary, succinct, and practical reference to identifying, treating, and managing hypertension in chronic kidney disease patients.
The complete question is
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for uncontrolled hypertension with stage 3 chronic kidney disease?
a. I12.9, N18.3
b. I12.9, N18.9
c. N18.3, I12.9
d. N18.9, I12.3
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what is considered an initial management priority in managing tachyarrhythmias
An initial management priority in managing tachyarrhythmias is ECG and coronary angiogram.
The electrical activity of the heart is measured by this rapid and painless examination. Electrical phase of the heartbeat and it's duration is recorded using an ECG. Your doctor can analyse signal patterns to identify the type of tachycardia and how potential cardiac issues might be contributing to the rapid heartbeat.
To examine the heart's blood arteries for blockages or enlargements, a coronary angiography is performed. It reveals the interior of the coronary arteries using a dye and specialised X-rays. When a person has ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, a coronary angiography may be performed to examine the blood flow to the heart.
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The nurse observes that a client with diabetic ketoacidosis is experiencing abnormally deep, regular, rapid respirations. How should the nurse correctly document this observation in the medical record? 1.Apnea
2.Bradypnea 3.Cheyne stokes 4.Kussmaul's respirations
The nurse observes that a client with diabetic ketoacidosis is experiencing abnormally deep, regular, rapid respirations. The nurse correctly document this observation in (4). Kussmaul's respirations is correct option.
Dehydration, fruity breath odour, Kussmaul's respirations, and abdominal pain are all symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis in the patient. Additionally, the individual will have hypotension rather than hypertension. The client's heart rate won't be bradycardic but tachycardic instead. A patient who was hospitalised with ketosis is being cared for by the nurse.
The client with diabetic ketoacidosis exhibits abnormally rapid, deep, and regular breathing patterns, which are noted as Kussmaul's respirations. Breathing stops for several seconds when an apnea occurs. Respirations are normal but excessively sluggish when there is bradypnea.
Due to changes in potassium levels brought on by DKA and its treatment, cardiac monitoring is crucial, although using an ECG monitor is not the first course of action.
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The patient is receiving blood when he suddenly complains of low back pain and develops diaphoresis and chills. The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
a. stop the transfusion.
b. start normal saline connected to the Y tubing.
c. notify the physician.
d. start normal saline using new intravenous (IV) tubing.
The patient is receiving blood when he suddenly complains of low back pain and develops diaphoresis and chills. The nurse should:
Stop the transfusion.Notify the physician.Start normal saline using new intravenous (IV) tubing. Options A, C and D are correct.Stop the transfusion, start normal saline with fresh primed tubing straight to the ventricular assist device (VAD) at the keep-vein-open rate (KVO), and inform the physician promptly if indications of a transfusion response appear. Back pain is the most prevalent musculoskeletal reason for emergency department visits, and it mainly affects those aged 18 to 65. A rare, deadly medical disease known as abdominal aortic aneurysm can cause lower back discomfort that extends to the front abdomen.
Damage to the cauda equina nerves can result in cauda equina syndrome, which causes significant deficits in the lower back and leg (s). Tumors can develop in the spine or spread there from other regions of the body, in which case tumors are more prone to lodge in the vertebrae due to the large network of blood arteries in the spine. The location of the tumor in the spine usually dictates the back and leg symptoms.
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what causes orbital hypertelorism, bific uvula
The Orbital hypertelorism is a medical condition where the eyes are abnormally far piecemeal. It's generally caused by a inheritable mutation and can be present at birth or develop latterly in life.
The most common cause of orbital hypertelorism is a mutation in the FGFR2 gene. This gene is responsible for controlling the development of facial features, including the eyes. Other causes may include craniosynostosis, a condition where the bones of the cranium fuse together precociously, and chromosomal abnormalities.
Bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula, the small fleshy delirium located at the reverse of the throat, is resolve into two corridor. It's generally caused by genetics, although environmental factors similar as smoking and alcohol consumption can also increase the threat. In some cases, it may be a sign of an beginning medical condition.
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9. The S.T.O.P. Method is an example of what type of skill?
O A. Time management skill
OB. Relationship skill
O C. Refusal skill
OD. Mindfulness skill
Option D is the correct answer .
What is STOP method ?
STOP is a method used to manage thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in challenging situations. STOP stands for:
S - Stop: Physically stop what you're doing and take a deep breath. This helps to interrupt any automatic or impulsive responses and bring your attention to the present moment.
T - Take a step back: Mentally step back from the situation and observe your thoughts, feelings, and behaviors objectively. This helps you gain a clearer perspective and avoid getting caught up in the emotions of the moment.
O - Observe: Pay attention to what is happening in your body, thoughts, and emotions. What are you feeling? What are you thinking? What are you physically experiencing?
P - Proceed: After observing the situation, proceed in a more intentional and mindful way. This could mean taking a different action, changing your thoughts, or finding a way to manage your emotions.
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mandy has developed type 2 diabetes mellitus. she has heard that her pancreas doesn’t work at all. did she recieve correct information? breifly explain.
Mandy has received incorrect information about her type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is not accurate to say that the pancreas does not work at all in individuals with type 2 diabetes.
Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition in which the body does not use insulin effectively and/or the pancreas does not produce enough insulin. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate the amount of sugar (glucose) in the blood.
In type 2 diabetes, the pancreas may still produce some insulin, but the body is unable to use it effectively. This can lead to high blood sugar levels, which can increase the risk of complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney disease.
Type 2 diabetes can be managed through lifestyle changes, such as healthy eating, regular physical activity, and weight management. In some cases, medication may be necessary to help regulate blood sugar levels.
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why is the clavicle at risk to fracture when a person falls on their shoulder
The clavicle is at risk to fracture when a person falls on their shoulder because it is a very slender and fragile bone.
Clavicle is the name for the collar bone. The bone is S-shaped with a length of about 6 inches. The clavicle is located between the ribcage and the scapula bone of the shoulder. Its function is to connect the arm to the body.
Fracture is the breaking of bones that may be one or multiple. There are various types of fractures based upon the damage they cause. These are: simple, compound, incomplete and complete fracture. The usual treatment for a fracture is application of a plaster cast to immobilize the bone.
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After making a documentation error, which action should the nurse take?
1. Use correcting liquid to cover the mistake and make a new entry.
2. Draw a line through it and write error above the entry.
3. Draw a line through it and write mistaken entry above it.
4. Draw a line through the mistake and write mistaken entry with initials above it.
After making a documentation error, the nurse should correct it by drawing a line across it and putting an incorrect entry with initials above it. Option 4 is correct
It is the most comprehensive response. Correcting liquid should not be used on the client's record because it is a legal record. Although many authors advise against adding "error" over a mistake, you may notice it. It is critical to provide your name or initials next to the text of the incorrect entry. A lack of comprehension of the exact information that must be supplied for coding reasons is the most typical cause of bad documentation.
Misspellings, wrong dates, transposed numbers, and missing information are all examples of common sorts of inaccurate data in healthcare. Handwriting that is incomplete or illegible might also cause issues. In some situations, an inaccuracy in one section of a document might render the entire document incorrect.
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3. Which of the following is not associated with My Plate for teens?
A. A my Plate app for your phone
B. Information on female health and wellness
C. Tips on becoming a successful healthcare employees
4. Cinthia goes to school all day, practices at the gym twice a week, hydrates with water, and eats a combination of plants, fruits, and proteins. She feels that it is unnecessary to wash her hands since she never gets sick and believes it forces her immune system to become stronger. Which component of disease prevention is Cinthia lacking?
A. Diet
B. Exercise
C. Social connections
D. Sanitation
5. Which of the following is least likely to take place during a health examination?
A. A PET scan to look for any abnormal growths in your abdomen
B. Performing a stress test that involves jogging in a treadmill
C. Undergoing surgery to repair a broken wrist
Following are the answers:
1. C. Tips on becoming a successful healthcare employees
2. D. Sanitation
3. A. A PET scan to look for any abnormal growths in your abdomen
What is PET scan?Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan is a non-invasive medical imaging procedure used to produce detailed 3-dimensional images of the body's organs and tissues. It works by injecting a small amount of radioactive material, called a tracer, into the patient's bloodstream. The tracer is then taken up by cells in the body, and as it decays, it emits positrons which collide with electrons in the body and produce gamma rays that can be detected by the PET scanner.
The gamma rays are used to create detailed images of the body's internal structures and functions, such as metabolism, blood flow, and cellular activity. The images produced by PET scans can help diagnose a wide range of medical conditions, including cancer, heart disease, brain disorders, and more. The procedure is generally painless and safe, although the use of radioactive material means that there are some potential risks, including exposure to ionizing radiation and the risk of false positive results.
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