The combining form curved is tropous is used as surfix meaning.
a postoperative vaginal hysterectomy client complains of pain that is more intense than this morning. this factor should be explained to the client as
This factor should be explained to the client as a typical pain response, acute pain tends to get worse during the day. The response of the brain to painful stimuli is categorized as central or peripheral (reflex response via the spine).
Acute pain usually has a fast onset and a sharp quality over a client. It acts as a sign of illness or a danger to the body. Many different things or circumstances can result in acute pain, including: Anesthesia Pain given to a client. Broken bones, cuts, or burns are a few examples of trauma acute pain. Regardless of the kind you use, a good general rule is to use it until the client replies, or for at least 15 seconds but no longer than 30 seconds if he doesn't.
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the nurse has been teaching a class on dysrhythmias to a group of patients with this disorder. the nurse determines that teaching has been effective when a patient makes which statement?
The nurse teaching a class on dysrhythmias to a group of patients with this disorder notices that the teaching has been effective when the patient states that their Sodium, Potassium, and Calcium levels must be okay for their hearts to have an electrical impulse.
In the question, it is stated that the nurse is teaching in the class about dysrhythmias to a group of patients diagnosed with the disorder. The nurse determines that the teaching has been efficient when the patient makes the statement that their Sodium, Potassium, and Calcium levels must be okay in order to have an electrical impulse for their heart.
The changes in the Sodium, Potassium, and Calcium levels generate an action potential in the myocardial cells. Antidysrhythmias medicines block the levels of these and help to control the condition.
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The correct answer is option 3, which says, Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it cant beat properly.
Dysrhythmia is of many types but one thing that is in all the dysrhythmia is that they can cause a defect in the generation and conduction of the electrical impulse throughout the myocardium of the heart.
When there is a lack of synchronization between atria and the ventricles then it means that it is very much possible this have heavy consequences such as decrease in the cardiac cycle of the heart.
Dysrhythmia is a condition of the heart when the heart do not works properly. Generally they are asymptomatic. If the if the patient is saying that dysrhythmia interrupts the normal electrical path in the heart so can't beat properly it means that the patient has fully understood what the nurse is trying to explain them. So option 3. is the answer in this case.
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Complete question - The nurse is teaching a class on rhythm abnormalities to patients who have experienced dysrhythmias. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when a patient makes which statement?
1. Dysrhythmias cause serious electrolyte imbalances; this results in heart block.
2. Dysrhythmias are the result of long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension.
3. Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it cant beat properly.
4. Dysrhythmias alter the blood flow through the heart and cause it to stop beating.
a recent immigrant from china is critically ill and dying. which question would the nurse ask when collecting information to meet this client's emotinal needs
Answer: Hi, I've actually taken this course before, this stated the correct answer provided by the instructor is which family member do you prefer to receive information from?
Hope that helps. Let me know if you have any further questions. :)
a client has been diagnosed with dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland. the nurse is aware that which hormones will likely be affected? select all that apply.
Growth hormone deficiency happens when anterior pituitary releases lower-than-normal levels of growth hormone .
Growth hormone deficiency in adults cause changes in body composition due to changes in fat and muscle and unhealthy cholesterol levels.
Hypopituitarism is a condition that affects the front lobe of the pituitary gland resulting in a partial or complete loss of functioning of that particular lobe. Pituitary disorders can happen when the pituitary gland makes either too much or too little of a particular hormone. These disorders are usually caused by a pituitary tumor.
If a doctor suspects a problem with the pituitary hormones, several tests will be asked to take to check hormone levels in body and search for a cause. Doctors usually use surgery, radiation therapy and medications to treat a pituitary tumor and return hormone production level to normal.
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a client is to receive peritoneal dialysis. what should the nurse do to prepare the client for the procedure?
A client is to receive peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should warm the solution in the warmer to prepare the client for the procedure.
The peritoneum in a person's abdomen serves as the membrane for the exchange of fluid and dissolved materials with the blood during peritoneal dialysis. In patients with kidney failure, it is used to remove extra fluid, fix electrolyte issues, and get rid of pollutants.
Peritonitis, hernias, blood sugar swings, potassium imbalances, and weight gain are among the most typical peritoneal dialysis side effects. Inform your medical provider of any symptoms you have while receiving treatment. With dietary and lifestyle adjustments, they can assist you in managing them. Peritoneal Dialysis (PD) solutions are often warmer to body temperature prior to inflow, according to a review of the literature, mostly for patient comfort.
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a power athlete is unable to consume the recommended amount of carbohydrate during exercise due to gastrointestinal upset. what recommendation should be provided to this athlete?
Every ten minutes or so, rinse your mouth with a carbohydrate solution.
Why would an athlete's consumption of a lot of carbs during a race be advantageous?Increased exogenous carbohydrate intake during prolonged exercise will protect liver glycogen, prevent a drop in blood glucose levels, and support the high rate of carbohydrate oxidation required to maintain exercise intensity. Exogenous carbohydrate is carbohydrate consumed in beverages or other foods.
By routinely consuming high-carbohydrate diets, athletes can boost their glycogen reserves. If a person's diet is low in carbohydrates, their ability to exercise may be hampered since their body won't have enough glycogen stored to power them.
By preventing exhaustion and allowing an athlete to compete at a higher level for a longer period of time, carbohydrates enhance athletic performance.
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If you were trying to determine the best antibiotic to use on an organism that had a resistance mechanism that altered how the drug was taken into the cell, which antibiotic would be the least effective?.
The antibiotic which would be the least effective on an organism that had a resistance mechanism that altered how the drug was taken into the cell is penicillin and is denoted as option D.
What is Antibiotic?This is referred to as the chemical substances which inhibit the growth or kill bacteria through various types of mechanisms and examples include azithromycin etc.
β-lactamase (penicillinase) is produced by bacteria and they function by bringing about a change in the structrure of the penicillin thereby leading to the reduction in its potency and the required antimicrobial properties.
Many bacteria have been known to be resistant for penicillin which was why new options were provided and is the reason why option D was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The options are:
ChloramphenicolTetracyclineTrimethoprimPenicillinAll other would be equally effective.β-lactamase (penicillinase),
a client is diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. the client's body mass index is 16.75 kg/m2. the nurse interprets this as indicating which level of severity of the condtion?
The nurse interprets this as indicating moderate level of severity of the condtion
What is anorexia nervosa ?An eating disorder marked by an unusually low body weight, a strong dread of gaining weight, and a skewed view of weight
Emaciation, a constant pursuit of thinness, a refusal to maintain a healthy weight, distorted body image, a severe fear of gaining weight, the absence of menstruation in girls and women, and very disordered eating habits are all signs of anorexia nervosa.The primary indicator is a considerable decrease in weight or low body weight. Even if they have lost a lot of weight, a person with atypical anorexia nervosa may nonetheless be of average weight. Severe loss of muscle mass is one of the physical indicators and symptoms of nutritional deficiency.Learn more about Anorexia nervosa here:
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a client postoperatively reports to the nurse the need to urinate, but is unable to void. what should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order? select all that apply.
To avoid bladder distention, lower bacterial urine counts, reduce urine stasis, and prevent reinfection, frequent voiding every 2 to 3 hours to thoroughly empty the bladder is advised.
Which form of incontinence is defined as the abrupt rise in intra abdominal pressure resulting in the involuntary leakage of pee via an intact urethra?Urodynamic stress incontinence has taken the role of "real stress incontinence" in terminology used by the International Continence Society (ICS). This disorder, which can be seen during urodynamic testing, is characterised by a rise in intra-abdominal pressure without a detrusor contraction and involuntary urine leaking.
Inserting and maintaining urinary catheters, collecting urine samples, caring for ostomies, educating patients about healthy elimination, and avoiding complications are common nursing interventions linked to facilitating elimination.
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after teaching a group of nursing students on the mechanism of action of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (acei) drugs, the instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which action as the result of aldosterone?
The instructor determines the session is successful when studying the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor drugs if student indicate the result of aldosterone is to cause sodium and water retention.
What are angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor drugs?The expression of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor drugs is used to denote medications that low blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor drugs relax blood pressure, which decreases the levels of the aldosterone hormone, a well-known hormone that is associated with sodium and water retention in normal body conditions.
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during percussion, the nurse hears a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. what is the most likely cause of this finding? group of answer choices decreased adipose tissue increased density of lung tissue shallow breathing normal lung tissue
A dull percussion note denotes aberrant lung density, such as that caused by a tumor, atelectasis, pleural effusion, or pneumonia. The predicted finding in healthy lung tissue is resonance.
It is common to hear dull or thudding sounds over thick organs like the liver or heart. Resonance is replaced by dullness when air-containing lung tissues are replaced by fluid or solid tissue, as is the situation with pneumonia, pleural effusions, or tumors.
Dullness to percussion is a sign of higher tissue density, such as zones of effusion or consolidation. By enclosing the area of interest when an anomaly is discovered, percussion can be used to determine the extent of the abnormality. Normal dullness at the front bases of the lungs covers the liver and spleen.
Chest expansion decreases on the effusion side as a result of reduced ventilation. Resonance is dull and flat to percussion.
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a nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of dark green fluid in the collection container. what is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding?
Since the nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. The nurse's best response to this assessment finding is option A) Document the presence of normal bile output.
What is the purpose of a biliary drain?A biliary drain enables bile to exit a clogged bile duct and flow into an external collection bag. The liver produces a fluid called bile. It aids in fat digestion. Bile flow can be stopped by blocked or constricted bile ducts, which may result in jaundice or a liver infection.
Therefore, Since the hue of bile is often dark green or brownish-yellow, this would be an expected assessment finding and no more action would be required.
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See full question below
A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of dark green fluid in the collection container. What is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding?
A) Document the presence of normal bile output.
B) Irrigate the drainage system with normal saline as ordered.
C) Aspirate a sample of the drainage for culture.
D) Promptly report this assessment finding to the primary care provider.
an example of a bariatric surgical procedure used today for treating severely obese individuals is .
Adjustable gastric band is an example of a bariatric surgical procedure.
A type of weight-loss surgery is called a laparoscopic adjustable gastric band (LAGB). Bariatric surgery is another name for surgery for weight loss. Small incisions are made in the upper abdomen during a laparoscopic procedure. The stomach's top portion is bandaged by the surgeon using an adjustable band. A little stomach pouch results from this. You will feel satisfied with less food because of the small stomach pouch. You'll lose weight thanks to this.
One can alter the band. By adding or removing fluid from a balloon around the band, this is accomplished. Your abdomen's skin serves as a conduit through which this is accomplished. The band around your stomach is connected to the port by a tube. Your physician will employ a needle during office visits following surgery.
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a drug company testing its own new drug is
In a laboratory, non-human tests on animals are performed first on drugs. To establish a level of safety, these laboratory tests are conducted.
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) then reviews the results of these tests to decide whether the treatment is secure enough to be tested on volunteers. Before being used, new medications must undergo testing and trials to ensure their safety and efficacy. For toxicity, effectiveness, and dose, new medications are rigorously tested. Computers and cell samples are used in the initial stage of the preclinical trial to identify chemicals that appear to have an effect on the target. Computer simulations and laboratory-grown human cells are used to test the drugs.
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good sources of riboflavin include group of answer choices refined grains and pork. citrus fruits and berries. milk, meats, and green vegetables. potatoes, carrots, and bananas.
Among the foods that are particularly high in riboflavin are milk, lean meats, kidney and liver organ meats, eggs, and organ meats. Riboflavin is also present in several plants. In the US and many other nations, cereals and grains are fortified with riboflavin.
Which of the following would be the ideal B12 source?Your body depends on vitamin B12 for a number of vital processes. Animal products, fortified meals, and dietary supplements all contain significant levels of it. The richest sources include dairy products, meat, sardines, clams, and liver.
Beginning with two primary substrates—GTP and Ribu5P—derived from purine biosynthesis or the pentose phosphate pathway, riboflavin biosynthesis produces the end product over the course of seven enzymatic steps.
The main source of riboflavin consumption in Western diets is milk and dairy products, making it distinct from other water-soluble vitamins. In addition to some fruits and vegetables, particularly dark-green ones, meat and fish are also excellent sources of riboflavin.
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a client has been treated for shock and is now at risk for which secondary but life-threatening complications? select all that apply.
A client has been treated for shock and is now at risk for which secondary but life-threatening complications. So here we can apply following:-kidney failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and acute respiratory distress syndrome.
What does it mean if your kidneys stop functioning?
Your kidneys lose their ability to do these tasks due to renal failure, which causes various health issues to manifest. Following your treatment plan can help you avoid or treat the majority of these symptoms when your kidney function declines.
What symptoms and indicators are present in acute renal failure?
Leg swelling, exhaustion, nausea, loss of appetite, and confusion are just a few symptoms that may appear. Uremia elevated blood potassium levels, and volume overload is complications of both acute and chronic failure.
Why does chronic renal failure occur?
Chronic renal failure has other, less typical causes, like renal polycystic disease Reflux kidney disease (damage caused by urine backflow from the bladder into the ureters and kidney) Chronic kidney disease Alport's illness Nephrotic syndrome renal stones prostate cancer.
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which patient would the healthcare professional assess for elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (adh) secretion?
The healthcare professional assesses for elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion in the patient being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
Small cell carcinoma is most commonly found in the lung, but it can also develop in a variety of extrapulmonary locations, including the stomach. Small cell carcinomas of the stomach (GSCC) are extremely rare, accounting for less than 0.1% of all gastric cancers. The clinical course of GSCC is aggressive, with early metastases. The localized disease has a median survival time of 1.4 to 3.5 years. A rare case of metastatic gastric small cell cancer in an elderly female is described.
ADH is a hormone that aids your kidneys in controlling the amount of water in your body. The ADH test determines the amount of ADH in your blood. This test is frequently used in conjunction with other tests to determine what is causing too much or too little of this hormone to be present in the blood.
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a nurse caring for a client with multiple sclerosis notes that the client has mood swings. which cause can best explain this?
Psychological manifestation due to involvement of white matter of the cerebral cortex.
Involvement of the cerebral cortex can lead to various mood and cognitive disorders. The main symptoms of Parkinson's disease are tremors, stiffness, slowness of movement, and a sedentary lifestyle. This condition results in physical manifestations such as tremors at rest stiffness with passive movements slowness of movement a sedentary lifestyle and hypokinesia.
Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of the nigrostriatal pathway. The three therapeutic interventions are L-dopa therapy, pallidectomy, and deep brain stimulation. There is no cure for Parkinson's disease, but there are many effective treatments. Emergency signs and symptoms of spinal cord injury after an accident include Weakness incoordination or paralysis in any part of the body.
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the nurse is a member of a team that is planning a client-centered, community-based approach to care of clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. in which areas should the team focus on improving quality of care and delivery? select all that apply.
The team should focus on these factors in order to make the team a client-centered, community-based approach to taking care of clients who have Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease. The factors are:
The Community Clinical Information SystemDelivery System DesignsIn the question, it is stated that the nurse is a member of a team who is planning to make the team a client-centered, and community-based approach in order to help clients affected with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease. The areas in which the team needs to work will be The community, Clinical Information System, and Delivery System Designs.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease is a disease in which a group of lung diseases block air passage and hinders breathing and makes it difficult to breathe.
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a client is admitted to the hospital with laennec cirrhosis and chornic pancreatitis. bile salts are prescribed, and the client asks why they are needed. how would the nurse respond
The nurse best response would be, They help in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
Bile salts are substances that help in fat digestion and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K. Bile salts do not stimulate prothrombin synthesis, bilirubin secretion in the urine, or common bile duct constriction. The primary cause of Laennec cirrhosis is excessive and prolonged alcohol intake.
The link between alcohol and cirrhosis is undeniable, but the mechanism of harm remains unexplained. Aside from cirrhosis, the afflicted person may have jaundice, gastrointestinal bleeding, and renal failure.
Chronic pancreatitis is a chronic inflammatory illness that results in irreparable damage of the exocrine and endocrine pancreatic parenchyma due to atrophy and/or replacement by fibrotic tissue. Severe stomach discomfort, hyperglycemia, and malabsorption are some of the functional effects.
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to compensate for the reduction of radiation reaching the ir when a grid is used, ___________ is typically increased.
To compensate for the reduction of radiation reaching the IR when a grid is used, mass is typically increased.
Radiation is energy that emanates from a source and moves through space at the speed of light. This energy has wave-like qualities and is accompanied by an electric and magnetic field. In nature, there is a huge variety of electromagnetic radiation. One illustration is light that can be seen. The most energetic types of radiation include gamma rays, x-rays, and ultraviolet light. There is a lot of energy in gamma and x-rays. They have the ability to take electrons away from atoms when they engage with them, ionizing the atom in the process.
Alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and neutrons are the four forms of ionizing radiation that radioactive atoms can emit.
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a student nurse is scheduled to observe a surgical procedure. the nurse provides the student nurse with education on the dress policy and provides all attire needed to enter a restricted surgical zone. which observation by the nurse requires immediate intervention?
The senior nurse should have immediate intervention of mask is placed over nose and extends to bottom lip.
The mask should be snugly fitted, covering the nose and mouth. The mask should extend below the chin. If the mask is only stretched to the lower lip, it may not adequately conceal the mouth. Hair, scrub top, drawstring, and shoe covering are all proper and do not need to be changed.
Cover your mouth and nose. Some masks contain a see-through plastic layer that conceals your eyes as well (shield). A respirator (special respiratory mask) forms a tight barrier over your nose and mouth. It can help to reduce the inhalation of tiny organisms like tuberculosis bacteria.
A face mask is a product that covers the wearer's nose and mouth. Face masks are not personal protective equipment and are intended for use by the general public and health care providers (HCP) as source control in compliance with CDC regulations.
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a client asks the nurse about possible ill effects from general anesthesia. what is the best response by the nurse?
Oversedation and bradycardia are two possible side effects of general anesthesia.
Surgery and anesthesia can result in over-sedation, allergic reactions, and bradycardia.
Oversedation has been linked to prolonged mechanical ventilation as well as increased rates of nosocomial infections, ICU-acquired weakness, and delirium.
To avoid oversedation, strategies have been developed based on either (1) the use of continuous intravenous hypnotics combined with daily interruption of sedatives every 24 hours, (2) the continuous titration of hypnotics according to predefined goals of comfort and consciousness, with frequent patient assessments and prescription changes, or (3) the first-intention use of alternatives to continuous intravenous midazolam or propofol.
Bradycardia is characterized by a slow heart rate. At rest, adults' hearts typically beat between 60 and 100 times per minute. Your heart beats less than 60 times per minute if you have bradycardia.
Bradycardia is a severe condition in which the heart rate is prolonged and the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to the body. If this occurs, you may experience dizziness, fatigue, weakness, and weakness, as well as shortness of breath. Bradycardia does not always result in symptoms or complications.
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which information would the nurse give a patient who had a transient ischemic attack (tia) and is being discharged home?
A patient who has experienced a transient ischemic attack is cared for by the nurse (TIA). The patient's spouse inquires about the condition's importance.
What does the word "patient" mean?As a noun, "patience" is the ability to wait patiently or put up with adversity for a long period of time without being upset or impatient. The plural version of the term "patient," however—"patients"—designates a person who receives medical attention.
Patient: Does it have two meanings?Both "patience" and "patients" sound alike: Despite having quite different meanings, they sound alike. The ability to wait or suffer adversity for a protracted period of time without becoming upset is referred to as "patience." The plural of the noun "patient," which refers to a person who receives medical attention, is "patients."
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When reading and analyzing a research study, what is the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome?
The sample was large with no exclusion criteria
Threats to validity suggest alternate causes of the outcome
Randomization controlled researcher bias
The literature review included ten relevant, current articles
When reading and analyzing a research study, the nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is the randomization controlled researcher bias and is denoted as option C.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery of the patient is achieved.
In a research, random selections are done so as to prevent any bias from being present. However, not all randomization are unbiased especially in a research which is used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment.
The nurse's primary reason to question the link between the treatment and the outcome is randomization controlled researcher bias because it questions the effectiveness which is therefore the reason why option C was chosen.
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which risk factors will the nurse identify when screening infants for iron-deficiency anemia? select all that apply.
The risk factors of the iron-deficiency anemia include the birth prior to 37 weeks of gestation, and maternal anemia during the pregnancy.
Risk factors for infant iron deficiency anemia are premature birth and maternal anemia during pregnancy. This is because infant iron stores become available at the end of pregnancy. Infants who vomit frequently and consume large amounts of milk may not be absorbing enough iron. Constipation and colic are not risk factors for iron deficiency anemia.The birth prior to 37 weeks of gestation is also one of the major risk factors of the iron-deficiency anemia. These are the major risk factors that can be identified while screening the infants for iron-deficiency anemia.
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the client is experiencing nausea and vomiting following surgery. what will the nurse expect the surgeon to order?
The client is experiencing nausea and vomiting following surgery and the nurse should expect the surgeon to order Ondansetron (Zofran).
Nausea is an uneasiness of the abdomen that usually accompanies the urge to vomit, however does not continuously cause puking. Vomiting is that the forceful voluntary or involuntary remotion ("throwing up") of abdomen contents through the mouth. Nausea will have causes that are not because of underlying malady.
Ondansetron is employed to stop nausea and puking that's caused by cancer medicines (chemotherapy) or actinotherapy. It's conjointly wont to stop nausea and puking which will occur once surgery. Ondansetron works within the abdomen to dam the signals to the brain that cause nausea and puking.
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a nurse is preparing to administer phenobarbital sodium (luminal) 6 mg/kg/day po divided in equal doses every 8 hr to a client who weighs 44lb. available is phenobarbital liquid 15 mg/5 ml. the nurse should administer how many ml per dose
The nurse should administer 2ml phenobarbital liquid per dose.
The dosage of phenobarbital sodium is 6 mg per kg per day. According to the question the weight of the client is 44lb which is 19.95 kg. Multiplying the weight with the day dose, that is,
44 x 6 = 264 mg/day.
we get 264 mg per day, which means the total count of the dose of phenobarbital is 264 in a day. Dividing the day dose with 2 we get 132 mg, that is,
264 / 2 = 132mg.
The available phenobarbital liquid is 15 mg per 5 ml, which means 3mg of phenobarbital is available per 1 ml. Then, according to this solution, 2 ml liquid contains 132 mg.
Therefore, we need 2 ml of liquid per dose.
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the patient returns without incident, and you document the time and condition of the patient on return to the room. the next day, you are summoned to the unit manager's office, along with the charge nurse and unit secretary. the manager describes how the patient was given a dose of glucophage the morning of the test. the physician wrote an order to hold the glucophage for 2 days prior to the test because of contraindications between the medication and the intravenous contrast dye. the manager demands an explanation for the incident because controls are in place because of similar incidents on the unit that should flag the medication, requiring the nurse to hold the medication prior to the test. who is responsible for initiating a root cause analysis (rca)? how would you conduct a root cause analysis to determine the cause of the problem? who would you include? what is the purpose for conducting the rca? the hospital has a nonpunitive policy for mistakes and errors. how does this affect the rca if the cause of the problem is identified as a mistake by the unit secretary?
• Everyone should be held accountable, but in this case, the charge nurse may bear the bulk of the blame.
• To conduct a RCA I would identify the possible causes of the issue and choose the cause that makes the most sense in the situation. I would include the charge nurse, the unit manager, the secretary, the physician, and anyone else who was involved. The purpose of RCAs are to eliminate the entire problem that happened and the factors that caused it rather than just eliminating the one last action that may have caused the problem.
• As a result, the RCA would no longer be applicable because it was a mistake and there is therefore no issue that requires fixing.
What is root cause analysis?
The cause analysis is the process of identifying root causes of problems in order to identify the best solutions (RCA). The principle of RCA is that root-cause analysis and systematic prevention produce better outcomes than treating symptoms as they arise and dousing fires.
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the nurse is doing a preoperative assessment of an 87-year-old man who is slated to have a right lung lobe resection to treat lung cancer. what underlying principle should guide the nurse's preoperative assessment of an elderly client?
Surgical procedure that is performed to remove all or part of the lung is called lung resection.
A surgical procedure where an entire lobe of lung is removed for a reasons that may include a lung cancer diagnosis or infection is called lobectomy. Lobectomy can be done even when problem is found in part of a lung.
Segmentectomy and wedge resection surgery are performed to remove cancer from the lung. These types of surgeries can remove only the lung mass and a small portion of the lung with it. Surgeries like lobectomy remove one or more lobes of the lung.
After surgery, it's common to feel tired for 6 to 8 weeks. The chest may also hurt and stay swollen for almost 6 weeks. For around 3 months, one can feel tightness, itching, numbness around the cut the doctor made.
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