For longer than three minutes of submaximal exercise, the energy system is primarily responsible for producing ATP is phosphorylation through oxidation.
What is oxidative phosphorylation?oxidative phosphorylation is the name given to the final stage of cellular respiration. It occurs in the mitochondria and is associated with the electron transport chain procedure. The electrons are transferred from one link in the transport chain to the next by a series of redox reactions. A chemical reaction known as an energetic process will cause a positive energy flow from the system to the environment. The term "exergonic" also refers to chemical processes that happen on their own. A series of enzymes uses very little energy to work to transfer the electrons from the NADH to the oxygen.
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TRUE/FALSE. in an exsexual species a beneficial allele and a deleterious allele are in linkage disequilibrium the selection pressure for the beneficial allele is lower than the pressure of purifying selection
Answer:
To that question the answer is True
Explanation:
Im pretty sure its True since i've had this simillar theme a litlle time ago.
Thank me Later
Tadano
which of the following represents a dna vaccine? a. attenuated measles virus b. a plasmid containing genes for influenza type a protein c. hepatitis b antigen produced in yeast cells d. tetanus toxoid
An example of DNA vaccine is a plasmid containing genes for influenza type a protein
what is DNA vaccine?
A DNA vaccine is a form of vaccine that works by infecting an organism's cells with a particular antigen-coding DNA sequence in order to elicit an immune response.
DNA vaccines function by infusing a genetically modified plasmid carrying the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is desired, prompting the cells to manufacture the antigen directly and triggering a protective immunological response. From the following a plasmid containing genes for influenza type a protein represents DNA vaccine.
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which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? dark-field fluorescence bright-field electron phase-contrast
A bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells are visible in phase-contrast microscopy images of cells.
What purpose does phase contrast serve in microscopy?When using light microscopy, the phase contrast technique is used to improve the contrast in pictures of transparent and colorless specimens. It allows for the visualization of cells and cell components that a regular light microscope would make difficult to see.
Without having to stain the specimen, phase-contrast microscopy is a technique used to gain contrast in a translucent specimen. The ability to use phase-contrast microscopy with high-resolution objectives is a significant benefit, but doing so necessitates a specialized condenser and more expensive objectives.
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GM crops have raised issues among communities in which they are produced. Which of the following are concerns raised by the public about genetically engineered crops?
-The Bt toxin could result in the death of non-pest species of insects.
-The Bt gene could ultimately make the plants pathogenic to humans.
-The Bt toxin could negatively affect the taste of the food that is produced from these crops.
The concerns raised by the public about genetically engineered crops are:
The Bt toxin may cause non-pest kinds of insects to perish. The Bt gene has the potential to transform the plants into human pathogens.The Bt toxin may have a bad impact on how tasty the food made from these crops tastes.In the middle of the 1990s, GM crops were first made available in the U.S. The majority of GM crops being farmed in the U.S. have been modified to be herbicide or insect resistant. The three GM crops with the highest acreages are corn, soybeans, and cotton. In Colorado, GM crops such corn, alfalfa, sugar beet, soybeans, and canola are planted.
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study the image below then click on all of the true statements these homologous chromomse shae different alleles
The image shows homologous chromosomes with different alleles, sister chromatids always have the same alleles and gene A is at the same locus On all four chromatids.
One chromosome from a pair that shares the same gene sequence, loci, chromosomal length, and centromere is referred to as a homologous chromosome. One chromosome from the father and one from the mother make up a homologous pair.
A sister chromatid is one that has two identical copies of a chromosome that are connected by a common centromere during chromosome DNA replication. In other words, a sister chromatid can also be thought of as "one-half" of a chromosome that has been duplicated. A dyad is a pair of sister chromatids. When all of the chromosomes in a cell are replicated during the synthesis (S) phase of interphase, a full pair of sister chromatids is produced. During mitosis or the second division of meiosis, the two sister chromatids split apart into two distinct cells.
Hence, homologous chromosome have same gene on similar chromosomes.
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Activity in brain networks, rather than structural differences, forms the basis of.
Anatomical connections connecting a group of brain components are referred to as structural connectivity. These connections often refer to white matter projections connecting cortical and subcortical regions at the level of the human brain.
What are brain networks?There isn't a set number of brain networks; however, at the highest level, the sensorimotor system, visual system, limbic system, central executive network (CEN), default mode network (DMN), and salience network can be considered to be the seven main networks of the brain. Other networks may exist, depending on how precisely they are defined.Fortunately, the UDL framework targets three different brain networks: emotive, recognition, and strategic, which can be used to organize learner .The term "structural connectivity" refers to the anatomical connections that connect a group of brain components. On a human brain size, these connections often refer to white matter projections connecting cortical and subcortical areasTo learn more about brain networks refer to:
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What is the relationship between traits alleles genes and chromosomes?.
They provide as guidelines for the production of proteins. On homologous chromosomes, each gene is present in a pair, one from each parent. These are referred to as alleles, and they are significant in determining an individual's features.
Once you understand the fundamentals, it's pretty simple to realize the distinction between Gene and Allele. Let's examine them more closely:
The most fundamental and useful component of heredity is the gene. In other terms, it means that genes are what make up the DNA structure in chromosomes our bodies and are what give us all of our genetic characteristics. Additionally, each human has two alleles, or copies of each gene, one from each parent. These gene alleles are in charge of a person's individuality and differences. Alleles refer to these various forms of a particular gene.
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if neonicotinoids bind to the acetylcholine receptors stoping the channels from opening what happens to the nerve impulse?
If neonicotinoids bind to the acetylcholine receptors stoping the channels from opening it will induce neuronal depolarisation and temporarily prevent the action of acetylcholine.
Neuronal depolarization relies upon on the hole of ion channels withinside the neuronal membrane and the following inflow of sodium ions (Na+) and efflux of potassium ions (K+). Neuronal responses to ion channel receptor activation by natural ligands/neurotransmitters or drugs are rapid and brief.
During depolarization, the cell's internal negative charge temporarily becomes more positive (less negative). This shift from negative to more positive membrane potential occurs during several processes, including action potentials.
Neonicotinoids bind to acetylcholine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane of insect cholinergic synapses. Because cholinesterase does not break down the pesticide, it remains bound to its receptors, preventing the binding of acetylcholine.This blocks synaptic transmission that kills insects.
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Part Which of the following statements about the interactions between the circulatory and respiratory systems is/are true? Select all that apply. During exercise, the heart pumps faster and the demand for oxygen decreases. Blood flows from the right side of the heart to the body, then to the left side of the heart and then to to lungs. The ability of oxygen to be carried in the blood is largely mediated by the presence of the protein hemoglobin. The interactions between alveoli and capillaries allow for gas exchange to occur.
Each applies To supply the body with oxygen, the respiratory system collaborates directly with the circulatory system.
How do alveoli and capillaries interact?The alveoli are encircled by capillaries, which are tiny blood vessels. The capillaries and alveoli's thin walls allow oxygen to get from the alveoli to the blood. The capillaries later join the veins, which are bigger blood vessels, to carry the oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
Do capillaries have a gas exchange system?Each alveolus is closely connected to a network of capillaries that transports deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery. Due to the thin alveolar and capillary walls, gases can interchange swiftly via passive diffusion along concentration gradients.
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Individuals with pku tend to have high levels of _______ in their blood because they have an inactive variant of an _______.
People with PKU cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine, which then accumulates in the blood and brain. This can lead to brain damage.
Phenylketonuria (commonly known as PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of a substance called phenylalanine in the blood. Phenylalanine is a building block of protein (an amino acid) that is obtained through the diet. It is found in all proteins and some artificial sweeteners.
Patients with phenylketonuria (PKU) have a diet-controlled deficiency in the conversion of phenylalanine (Phe) to tyrosine (Tyr), leading to decreased production of norepinephrine, adrenaline, and dopamine.
A genetic change (genetic mutation) causes PKU, which can be mild, moderate, or severe. In a person with PKU , a change in the phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) gene causes a lack or reduced amount of the enzyme needed to process phenylalanine, an amino acid.
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Further research proves that these _______ mutations in both ilp alleles are the reason why lp is always active and, consequently, induces the leukemic cells to constantly undergo cell division.
Further research demonstrates that these "Loss of Function" mutations in both ILP alleles are the reason why LP is always active and, as a result, causes leukemic cells to constantly divide.
What is a mutation?A mutation is a change in the nucleic acid sequence of the genome of an organism, virus, or extrachromosomal DNA. Viral genomes can be constructed from either DNA or RNA.
Harmful mutations can lead to genetic diseases or cancer. A genetic condition is a disease caused by a mutation in one or more genes. A human example is a cystic fibrosis. A single gene mutation causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus, which clogs the lungs and blocks digestive ducts.
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which tree species grows best with full sunlight?
Answer: Sweet Gum
Explanation:
The tree species that grows best with full sunlight is Sweet gum. The correct option is D.
What are the growth factors for trees?The phrase “growth factor” refers to a numerical factor (a straightforward number like "5") that is multiplied by the diameter of a tree to determine the age of the tree.
The “growth factor” of a species of tree is calculated by multiplying the diameters of several individual trees by the age of the trees, as measured by the number of growth rings on each tree.
The term “conditional statement” refers to a statement that makes assumptions about potential outcomes. A sentence is conditional when it contains the word "if." It represents the “Unreal past” when used in the past tense.
Therefore, the correct option is D) Sweet gum.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
A) White oak. B) Hickory C) Dogwood D) Sweet gum. E) Beech.
A diploid animal is dihybrid at the Head shape (H) and Tail length (T) loci. Which of the following gamete genotypes can it produce? ht HhTt HHTT HH
If a diploid animal is a dihybrid at the Head shape (H) and Tail length (T) loci, then the gamete genotypes that can it produce include ht HT, Ht and hT.
What are gamete combinations in a di-hybrid organism?Gamete combinations in a di-hybrid organism refer to the segregation of both gene variants for an organism that is heterozygous for two different loci.
In the case that both loci are not linked, gamete combinations in a di-hybrid organism will result in four different types of combinations, which include the four alleles two for each locus.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that gamete combinations in a di-hybrid organism can be four because segregation is able to generate all possible combinations in the case that the genes for the organism are not linked and therefore they segregate in different chromosomes.
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What is the purpose of a food defense plan?.
A food defense plan's main goal is to protect the safety of the nation's food supply by directing federal regulators' attention away from responding to contamination and toward avoiding contamination just to better the public's health .
Food defense plan refers to the safeguarding of food items against deliberate adulteration or contamination with the aim of endangering the public's health and/or disrupting the economy.
The vulnerability assessment indicated threats that must be reduced by the food defense plan team. They will also oversee and implement the program's procedures and tools. Developing and implementing an efficient food defense plan are among the other responsibilities.
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a parent cell starts with 40 chromosomes. how many chromosomes will each daughter cell possess after meiosis ii?
At the end of meiosis II, each cell (i.e. gamete) would have half the original number of chromosomes, i.e. 15 chromosomes.
After meiosis II, when each parent cell divides into two gametes, each gamete cell contains 23 chromosomes. In this phase, each gamete remains haploid in nature. At the end of meiosis II, each cell will have half of the actual chromosome, that is, 23 chromosomes. At the end of this process, a single cell produces two new daughter cells, each with the same amount of genome as that present in the parent (initial) cell. Therefore, a cell with 40 chromosomes during the onset of mitosis will produce daughter cells with 40 chromosomes. Option C is mitosis for a diploid organism. 14. D: G1 phase is prior to replication. During prophase I, all chromosomes are made up of 2 sister chromatids and we have not yet divided the genetic material, so the correct answer is 40 chromosomes x 2 chromatids/chromosome = 80 chromatids.
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Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a _________ mutation would be _________.
Suppose that for a certain gene, nearly 100 percent of the normal level of expression is required to produce the normal phenotype. Based on this requirement, one could predict that a loss of function mutation would be recessive.
What is a gene?
The fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity is a gene. DNA constitutes genes. A chromosome is a lengthy DNA strand with numerous genes on it.
The relationship between two variants of a gene is described as dominant. Every gene has two different variations, or alleles, that an individual inherits from each parent. One allele will be expressed when there are different alleles of a gene; this allele is the dominant gene. Recessive, the other allele, has little or no effect.
Alleles with wild types often code for a substance required for a particular biological process. The function that it encodes for is also lost if a mutation arises in that allele. These mutations are known as loss-of-function mutations in general. The function can be lost to varying degrees. A null mutation is one in which the function has completely disappeared. It's also conceivable that some function might endure, but not to the same degree as the wild type allele. They are referred to as leaky mutations.
Mutations that cause loss of function are often recessive. When the wild-type allele and the loss-of-function allele are heterozygotes, the level of expression of the wild-type allele is frequently enough to produce the wild-type phenotype. This would categorize the loss-of-function mutation as recessive in terms of genetics. On the other hand, the wild type allele might not make up for the loss-of-function allele. In those situations, the heterozygote's phenotype will be identical to that of the loss-of-function mutant, and the mutant allele will take the role of the dominant allele.
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biological basis of the differences of ephipehrine signaling to decrease the rate of glycolysis in the liver but increase the rate of glyclysis in the msulce
A) When given intravenously, epinephrine raises coronary artery pressure and increases coronary blood flow.
B) In the liver, adrenaline accelerates glycogen breakdown to glucose, resulting in an increase in blood glucose levels.
What is meant by Epinephrine ?Adrenaline, often known as epinephrine, is a hormone and medicine that regulates visceral functions (e.g., respiration). It appears as a white microcrystalline particle. Adrenaline is generally created by the adrenal glands and a small number of neurons in the medulla oblongata. It aids in the fight-or-flight response by increasing blood flow to muscles, cardiac output via the SA node, pupil dilation reaction, and blood sugar level. It accomplishes this by attaching to alpha and beta receptors. It is found in numerous species, including humans, as well as some single-celled creatures. It has also been isolated from the plant Scoparia dulcis, which grows in Northern Vietnam.
Epinephrine can assist raise blood pressure and possibly restart the heart.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) with epinephrine, reversal cardiac arrest The effects of alpha-1-adrenoceptor agonists are responsible for the action.
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The complete question is:
"Epinephrine signaling leads to a decrease in the rate of glycolysis in the liver, but an increase in the rate of glycolysis in the muscle (particularly the heart muscle). A). Explain the physiological basis (general function within the organism) for these differences. (why would it benefit the organism to have these different effects ?) B). Explain the biochemical basis of these differences. Propose two (there are more than 2 options, but any 2 reasonable approaches will count) mechanisms to accomplish these differences. (how is the organism able to get different effects in different tissues from the same hormone?)"
Which of the following is not a type of medulla found in a human hair?
a. fragmentation
b. continuous
c. stacked
d. interrupted
e. absent
Stacked is not a type of medulla found in a human hair,
Correct option is: (c)
What is medulla?The medulla is the lowest section of the brain and brain stem, and it is also familiar as the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata combines with the spinal cord at the aperture (foramen magnum) at the base of medulla oblongata combines with the spinal cord at the aperture (foramen magnum) at the base of the skull.
It assists in the regulation of your breathing, heart rhythms, blood pressure, and swallowing.
The medulla houses the cardiac, respiratory, vomiting, and vasomotor centers, and hence controls autonomic activities like breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure, as well as the sleep-wake cycle.
So, stacked is not a type of medulla found in a human hair.
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disorders refer to patterns of maladaptive behavior involving the use of psychoactive substances.
Substance use disorder refer to patterns of maladaptive behavior involving the use of psychoactive substances.
In the field of sociology and science, maladaptive behavior can be described as human behavior in which he is unable to cope with certain events in life and behaves in a weird manner.
Certain psychoactive substances are the leading cause of maladaptive behavior as the usage of these substances hinders a person from functioning normally. This kind of maladaptive behavior that occurs due to psychoactive substances is referred to as substance use disorder.
In order to prevent substance use disorder, a person needs to stay away from psychoactive substances.
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a benign neoplasm of the hepatic flexure is coded with code
The code for the malignant neoplasm is C19 when the results of the biopsy determined a malignant neoplasm of colon and rectum.
What is biopsy and what is the code for the malignant neoplasm here?Biopsy is a medical test done to check if the tissue or organ's cell is getting cancerous and to consider the tumors malignant and in biopsy test a sample of tissue is cut and taken to be under consideration for the further check up of the cut tissue.
Here the question is asked of the patient admitted for the biopsy of rectal tissue and the results came malignant that is cancerous and the code of the neoplasm.
Therefore, The code for the malignant neoplasm is C19 when the results of the biopsy determined a malignant neoplasm of colon and rectum.
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individuals migrating between populations can cause genotype frequencies in a population to change. group of answer choices true false
True migration will alter gene frequencies by introducing additional copies of an allele that is already present in the population.
Can the genotype frequencies of a population change?In a population, genotype frequencies can change while allele frequencies can stay the same. Non-random mating will alter genotype frequencies but not allele frequencies in the population.
How does emigration impact the frequency of genes?Genetically distinct creatures migrate when they leave one population for another. It is a different type of gene flow, but typically has a negative impact on genetic diversity. This is due to the exodus of rare alleles from the gene pool.
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in the vertebrate kidney almost everything is filtered out of the blood plasma and then useful solutes and water are reabsorbed. why? multiple choice question. this process has evolved because it saves the vertebrates a great amount of energy. this process evolved because most of the molecules in the blood plasma are waste molecules and not much has to be reabsorbed. this provides greater flexibility and opportunities to fine-tune the final urine content.
Since the kidneys filter blood and regulate the ratio of salt to water in physiological fluids, they are essential for osmoregulation and excretion in vertebrates.
What function does blood plasma serve?Plasma, the liquid component of your blood, accounts for 55% of its overall volume. In order to help your body recover from wounds, transport nutrients, remove waste, and prevent infection, plasma must flow throughout the circulatory system.
Is donating blood plasma advantageous to you?In addition to raising dietary knowledge, plasma donation has other advantages. It might also improve your physical health. By boosting good cholesterol and reducing bad cholesterol, regular plasma donation may assist people's health, especially women's health.
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at what phase of the cell cycle does a cell conduct its usual functions in the body? group of answer choices g1 s cytokinesis g0 g2
A normal cell spends the majority of its time in interphase, which is the phase of the cell cycle. The metabolic phase of the cell is known as interphase. During this time, the cell acquires nutrients and metabolises them, expands, and repeats its DNA in order to be ready for mitosis.
What occurs during the G1 G2 and S phases?The cell physically expands when in the G1 phase and produces more organelles and protein. The cell duplicates its nucleosomes and copies its DNA to create two sister chromatids during the S phase. Finally, the G2 phase involves continued cell development and cellular content organisation.
The majority of cellular development occurs in G1; cells increase in size and produce the proteins and organelles necessary for DNA synthesis.
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a woman who has blood type a positive has a daughter who is type o positive and a son who is type b negative. rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over rh negative and is designated by the alleles r and r, respectively. a third gene for the mn blood group has codominant alleles m and n. which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?
A third gene for the MN blood group has codominant alleles M and N. This means that the father of the children must have at least one R allele, one M allele, and one N allele. Therefore, a possible phenotype for the father would be blood type A positive, Rh positive, MN positive.
In order to determine the father’s genotype, we must look at the genotypes of the mother and the two children. Since the mother is type A positive, she must have two A alleles and two R alleles (AO and Rr). The daughter is type O positive, which means she has two O alleles and two R alleles (OO and Rr). The son is type B negative, which means he has two B alleles and two r alleles (BB and rr).
From this information, we can deduce that the father must have at least one A allele, one B allele, and two R alleles. Therefore, the possible genotypes for the father can be AO and Rr, BO and Rr, AB and Rr, or AB and RR. All of these genotypes would result in a phenotype of blood type A positive, Rh positive, MN positive.
In conclusion, a woman who has blood type A positive and two children with different blood types (O positive and B negative) could have a father with a phenotype of blood type A positive, Rh positive, MN positive. The possible genotypes for the father in this situation would be AO and Rr, BO and Rr, AB and Rr, or AB and RR.
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What evidence can be learned from the fossil record?.
The fossil record provides evidence about the history of life on Earth. It also shows how different groups of organisms, including species, have changed over time.
Fossils are dead plant and animal remains that have survived the passage of time and reveal details about their former existence.
The best way to describe fossil records is that they show that numerous species shared an ancestor, according to the options offered.
Researchers and geologists can quickly and easily determine the age of the fossil-bearing strata by using the fossil record. For instance, students could be aware that some fossil groups are older than others.
The fossil record is a crucial piece of evidence supporting evolution because it demonstrates how life on Earth has changed over time.
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olive oil consumption is not associated with the occurrence of these types of cancer. olive oil consumption and the occurrence of these types of cancer are dependent. the null hypothesis is true
The predicted counts depict olive oil use as being unrelated to the prevalence of these types of cancer, and the null hypothesis is accurate because the p-value is greater than o.o5 and 0.8175. The outcome isn't statistically significant.
The combined effect of the highest stratum of olive oil consumption vs the lowest stratum was statistically significant. More precisely, the greatest level of olive oil consumption was linked to a 31% decreased risk of having any type of cancer (RR = 0.69, 95% CI: 0.62-0.77).
Extra Olive Oil includes Oleocanthal, a potent chemical that aids in the elimination of cancer cells in the body without damaging healthy cells. This potent healthy oil is a staple of the Mediterranean Diet due to its numerous health benefits.
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if there are two non-homologous chromosomes of the same length, and same position of the centromere, how can one distinguish them most reliably in cells that typically undergo mitosis? (select the best choice)
Metaphase is stage of mitotic division in which two non-homologous chromosomes of the same length, and same position of the centromere.
A kind of cell division known as mitosis occurs when a single cell (the mother) divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. Mitosis, when referring to the cell cycle, is the stage of cell division during which the DNA in the cell's nucleus is divided into two identical sets of chromosomes.
The chromosomes are all lined up at the centre of the cell by the spindle during metaphase, ready to divide. At the metaphase plate, all the chromosomes line up (not a physical structure, just a term for the plane where the chromosomes line up).
The two kinetochores of each chromosome should be joined to microtubules coming from opposing spindle poles at this point.
Hence, In metaphase chromosomes structure can be easily studied.
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which of the following are stages of binary fission? select all that apply. the cell duplicates its chromosome and starts to extend its cell membrane and cell wall. when the cell has almost doubled in size, new membrane and cell wall are deposited across the midsection. the partitioning of the cell results in two identical descendant cells. the chromosome attaches to the inside of the plasma membrane.
The cell divides into two identical offspring after partitioning, duplicating its chromosomes and beginning to stretch its cell membrane and cell wall.
Binary fission is a method of prokaryote reproduction used by bacteria. Cell division is the only way for unicellular organisms to create new individuals. The result of cell reproduction in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is a pair of daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. Daughter cells are distinct entities in unicellular organisms. Several processes are necessary to produce identical daughter cells. To equip the two new cells with the equipment to support life, the cytoplasmic contents must be divided and the genomic DNA must be replicated before being distributed to the daughter cells. Because bacterial cells have a single circular DNA chromosomes for their whole genome, cell division is made easier. Since there is no nucleus or numerous mitochondria,
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two students decided to repeat the hershey and chase experiment, with modifications. like hershey and chase they used radioactive sulfur but they substituted radioactive nitrogen for radioactive phosphate. they reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogen atoms. thus, labeling the nitrogen atoms would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. which of the following is the biggest shortcoming in their experimental design?
The biggest shortcoming in their experimental design is that nitrogen is present in both proteins and DNA.
The goal of the Hershey and Chase experiments was to establish if the hereditary material is protein or DNA. They employed bacteriophages that contained radioactive phosphorous and sulfur. They discovered that the progenies generated after bacteria were infected, exclusively contained radioactive phosphorous. They chose radioactive phosphorus and sulfur as proteins don't have phosphorus, and DNA doesn't have sulfur.
The experiment that is being proposed has a number of flaws, but the most significant one is that nitrogen is present in both proteins and DNA. As a result, if radioactivity is found in progeny phages, we will not be able to distinguish whether it originated from DNA or protein.
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most exotoxins fall into three general categories that reflect their structure and general mechanism of action. what are these three categories?
The three categories include :
Super-antigensMembrane-damaging toxins,A-B toxinsWhat do you mean by Exotoxins ?
An exotoxin is a toxin secreted by bacteria.It can cause damage to the host by destroying cells or disrupting normal cellular metabolism. They are highly potent.They cause major damage to the host. The body's major defense against exotoxins is the production of antitoxin antibodies.They are used as carriers for the delivery of heterologous molecules.They elicit an immune response and as agents in the development of cell-specific chemotherapy.To know more about Exotoxins from the given link
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