The instruction that the nurse emphasizes when preparing a client for an emergency splenectomy is that the client will more easily experience post-splenectomy infections.
What is splenectomy?Splenectomy is a procedure performed by a surgeon to remove the spleen, either partially or completely. There are various conditions that make this operation necessary, such as damage or enlargement of the spleen.
The spleen is a fist-sized solid organ located under the left ribs. This organ plays a role in the immune system because it contains white blood cells that can fight infection. When someone performs a splenectomy, they will be susceptible to infection, especially after the first few months after surgery.
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after a subtotal gastrectomy, a client begins to eat more food in varied forms. after meals, the client experiences discomfort from cramping and a rapid pulse with waves of weakness, which often are followed by nausea and vomiting. the nurse concludes that the client is experiencing dumping syndrome. which process causes dumping syndrome? sluggish passage of food into the small intestine
The sudden passage of a hyperosmolar food solution into the small intestine is the process that causes the dumping syndrome.
Does dumping syndrome follow a gastrectomy?Syndrome of the dump. Following a gastrectomy, a person may have a constellation of symptoms known as "dumping syndrome." It is brought on when extremely sweet or starchy food enters your small intestine suddenly. Your stomach normally processed the majority of the sugar and starch before a gastrectomy.
Why undergo a partial gastrectomy?For middle and distal-third gastric cancer, subtotal gastrectomy is the preferred course of treatment because it offers comparable survival rates and superior functional outcomes when compared to total gastrectomy, particularly in cases of early-stage disease with a good outlook.
What is the duration of a subtotal gastrectomy?The procedure may take two to six hours. Your stomach's sick area will be cut out during surgery, along with part of the nearby lymph nodes. If all of your stomachs are gone, the small intestine and esophagus are connected.
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while establishing io access in a critically ill patient, you locate the appropriate anatomic landmark, cleanse the site, and insert the io catheter at a 45-degree angle. after attaching the iv line and turning the flow on, you note edema developing on the opposite side of the extremity. what has most likely happene
Extravasation due to an inappropriate angle of IO catheter insertion, while establishing io access in a critically ill patient.
Should you use the intramuscular route while giving medication?Quickly drive the needle into the skin at a 90° angle. Use your thumb and index finger to apply pressure to the skin surrounding the injection site as the needle is being placed. It is not required to aspirate. The space between each injection delivered in the same extremity should be as large as possible—ideally, at least 1".
What is true about isotonic solutions according to the following statements?The solvent and solute content in the isotonic solution is identical to that of the cytoplasm of the particular cell. In this situation, molecules can freely cross the membrane without affecting the solute concentration on either side.
Which of the following assertions is accurate when the cell is placed in an isotonic solution?If a cell is submerged in an isotonic solution, there won't be any net water inflow or outflow, and the volume of the cell will stay constant. The solution is isotonic to the cell if the concentration of solutes inside and outside the cell are equal, and the solutes cannot cross the membrane.
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The Physician of a 46-year-old premenopausal woman with breast cancer has prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex) beginning in the postoperative period following a lumpectomy. What should the nurse teach this woman regarding tamoxifen? A. It will help to relieve postoperative discomfort. B. She will take 100 mg of tamoxifen four times a day. C. Tamoxifen works by blocking the action of progesterone on the breast tissue. D. She may experience hot flashes and menstrual irregularities when taking tamoxifen. (D)
A 46-year-old premenopausal breast cancer patient was administered tamoxifen (Nolvadex) after a lumpectomy. "She may experience hot flashes and menstrual irregularities when taking tamoxifen" is the teaching that nurse should advise. Thus, option D holds the truth.
Tamoxifen is a type of hormone therapy used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by blocking the action of estrogen on breast tissue, which slows or stops the growth of cancer cells. The nurse should teach the patient that she may experience side effects while taking tamoxifen, including hot flashes and menstrual irregularities. These side effects are common and generally mild, but they can be managed with lifestyle changes and medication. Tamoxifen is not used to relieve postoperative discomfort and that the recommended dose and frequency of administration will depend on the patient's individual treatment plan.
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which physiological factors help maintain blood pressure in the client with hypovolemia
Answer: In hypovolemia, aldosterone, angiotensin II, and sympathetic nervous system activation all increase blood pressure.
Explanation:
Release of aldosterone
Activation of angiotensin II
Sympathetic nervous system activation
What is hypovolemia ?Hypovolemia is a condition of low extracellular fluid volume, usually brought on by simultaneous salt and water loss. To maintain homeostasis, all living things need to have a proper fluid balance.
Severe blood or other fluid loss renders the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body, resulting in hypovolemic shock, a life-threatening condition. A lot of organs could stop working as a result of this kind of shock.
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the earliest medical use for amphetamine was as a substitute for ephedrine in treating asthma.T/F
The statement is true that the earliest medical use for amphetamine was as a substitute for ephedrine in treating asthma.
Amphetamine had been created by Lazar Edeleanu in Germany in 1887, but it went unnoticed until 1929, when chemist Gordon Alles became aware of it. Alles were searching for an asthma prescription which was superior to the ones that were on the market at the time.
A central nervous system stimulant called ephedrine is frequently used to guard against low blood pressure when under anaesthesia. Although it has been used for overweight, insomnia, and asthma, it is not the recommended method of treatment. Its value in relieving nasal congestion is unknown.
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the first thing to check when patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is? mcq
The first thing to check when a patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is the occlusion, or the way the denture fits in the patient's mouth.
Improper fit and placement of dentures can cause discomfort, pain, and pressure on the gums, jawbone, and surrounding tissues. The occlusion should be evaluated to ensure that the denture is properly aligned and that the patient's bite is not causing any discomfort or pain.
In some cases, changes in the soft tissues of the mouth, such as the gums or tongue, may also contribute to discomfort or pain under the denture. The dentist should examine the patient's mouth for any changes in the soft tissues, such as redness, swelling, or sores, which could indicate an infection or injury.
If the denture is found to be in good condition and the occlusion is proper, the dentist may then consider other possible causes of the patient's pain, such as oral infections, oral cancer, or temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorder. The dentist may then order diagnostic tests, such as X-rays or an oral examination, to determine the root cause of the pain.
In conclusion, the first thing to check when a patient comes in complaining of pain under denture is the occlusion, or the way the denture fits in the patient's mouth. The dentist should evaluate the occlusion and examine the patient's mouth for any changes in the soft tissues that may be contributing to discomfort or pain. If the denture is in good condition and the occlusion is proper, the dentist may then consider other possible causes of the patient's pain.
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The full question was :
The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is
A. Occlusion B. Soft tissues changes
the parent of a 2-year-old toddler tells the nurse she needs to constantly scold the toddler for having wet pants. the parent says the toddler was potty trained at 12 months, but since starting to walk, the toddler wets the pants all the time. which nursing diagnosis would be most applicable?
The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the issue parents are having with the toddler would be one of inadequate parental knowledge.
A 2-year-parent old's informs the nurse that she must repeatedly chastise the child for wearing wet pants. The parent claims that their child was potty trained at the age of one year, but since learning to walk, the child has soiled their pants constantly. The lack of parental information of improper methods for toilet training should be brought up by the parents.
Lack of relevant knowledge or the psychomotor skills required for maintaining, restoring, or promoting health are referred to as knowledge deficits. To manage toddlers that require additional care, knowledge is essential.
When a patient lacks the knowledge or cognitive capacity to comprehend the information required to carry out their healthcare plan, it is a nursing diagnostic known as a knowledge deficit.
Knowledge is a crucial indicator utilized in a typical treatment plan. It takes into account the patient's existing knowledge of key components of their therapy, such as nutritional requirements, side effects, and disease prevention, and fills in the gaps to enable the patient to lead a better life.
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while reviewing a client's the record, the nurse sees that the client received a dose of interferon alpha-2b? for what disorder does the nurse suspect the client was being treated?
The nurse will suspect chronic hepatitis C after seeing a dose of interferon alpha-2b in a client's record. A is the correct answer.
Interferon alpha-2b is a medication used to treat chronic hepatitis C, a viral infection that affects the liver. It works by stimulating the immune system to fight the virus. The nurse, by seeing the client received a dose of interferon alpha-2b, can suspect that the client was being treated for chronic hepatitis C. Chronic hepatitis C can cause serious liver damage over time, and early diagnosis and treatment is important to prevent progression of the disease. Treatment options for chronic hepatitis C include antiviral medications like interferon alpha-2b, as well as combination antiviral therapies. The nurse should monitor the client's response to the medication and report any adverse effects to the healthcare provider.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A) chronic hepatitis CB) asthmaC) bacterial pneumoniaD) ankylosing spondylosisThe correct answer is option A.
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a client is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with hiv. what nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy?
The most likely nursing action to increase the likelihood of successful therapy is to provide the client with detailed education about the prescribed drugs, including how and when to take them, potential side effects, and how to manage them.
Promoting Successful Antiretroviral Therapy Through Patient EducationIt is important for the nurse to provide comprehensive education to the client about their newly prescribed antiretroviral drugs. The nurse should ensure that the client understands the details of the drug regimen, including how and when to take the prescribed medications, potential side effects, and how to manage them. Education should also include information on any interactions between the drugs and other medications, as well as any precautions that should be taken when taking the drugs.
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Which of the following actions should the CPCT take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher?
The actions that the CPCT should take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher is a. Elevating the bed to a position equal to the height of the stretcher.
Moving a patient from one flat surface to another is referred to as patient care transfer. Patient transfers from a bed to a stretcher and from a bed to a wheelchair are the most prevalent. During the transfer of patient care, the receiving health care professionals should be able to ask clarifying questions about the information that has been given.
Health care facilities should make every effort to obtain patient care transfer reports on time, allowing EMS units to return to service. Bed to stretcher, bed to wheelchair, wheelchair to chair, wheelchair to toilet, and vice versa are all examples of hospital transfers.
The complete question is:
Which of the following actions should the CPCT take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a chair?
A. elevating the bed to a position equal to the height of the stretcher
B. elevating the bed to a position lower than the height of the stretcher
C. reaching across the stretcher to assist the patient
D. elevating the bed to a position higher than the height of the stretcher
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Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias?
A. Rouleaux
B. Positive DAT
C. Splenomegaly
D. Increased erythrocyte count
B. Positive DAT best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias
In immune hemolytic anemia, the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys its own red blood cells (RBCs), leading to a decrease in their count and resulting in anemia.
To diagnose this type of anemia, a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is performed, which detects the presence of antibodies or complement proteins that are attached to the surface of RBCs. If the DAT is positive, it indicates that the RBCs are being destroyed by the body's immune system, and immune hemolytic anemia is diagnosed.
On the other hand, other types of hemolytic anemias may be caused by genetic disorders, medications, or infections, and do not result in a positive DAT. For example, in non-immune hemolytic anemia, RBCs are destroyed due to structural abnormalities in the cells themselves, rather than an immune attack. So, the presence of a positive DAT distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other types of hemolytic anemias.
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a client is brought to the ed by family members who tell the nurse that the client has been exhibiting paranoid, agitated behavior. what should the nurse do when interacting with this client?
A client exhibits paranoid and agitated behavior. What nurses do to interact is to calm the client and keep away from harmful objects.
What is paranoid?Paranoia is a personality disorder characterized by suspiciousness and distrust of other people for no apparent reason. People with this disease tend to think, behave, and act in a way that is not normal for other people.
If left unchecked, a paranoid personality disorder can interfere with the sufferer's life and daily activities. This disease is also at risk of causing depression and agoraphobia.
To communicate with someone who is paranoid, it must be in a calm atmosphere so that he is not nervous and make sure there are no dangerous objects around him.
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the nurse is preparing a teaching plan for new parents about why newborns experience heat loss. which information about newborns would the nurse include?
In order to generate heat, newborns only have a small amount of voluntary muscular action.
As opposed to muscles that move regularly, like the heart, voluntary muscles are those that you chose move, such as those in the legs and the arms. Animals' muscles are the types of tissue that cause movement or motion. Voluntary refers to action taken of one's own free will or will.
Hundreds or even thousands of muscle fibers fire simultaneously when a muscle contracts voluntarily, as in arm wrestling. Additionally, intentional movement has a higher frequency of muscle fiber activation than reflex motion.
the skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle, often known as voluntary muscle, is the most prevalent of the five types of muscle found in vertebrates. Tendons connect skeletal muscles to bones, and these muscles control all of the movement of body components in the skeleton.
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What are some solutes, other than proteins, that are not filtered into the nephron?
For some solutes, the nephron does not filter them. Protein and substance X are examples of them. This is the case because they are present in the glomerulus but not in the Bowman's capsule.
Large proteins like albumin and platelets as well as cells, platelets, and platelets do not freely enter the Bowman's capsule. The nephron, on the other hand, has the ability to filter out nutrients, nitrogenous waste, and blood components.
The nephron is the kidney's minuscule or microscopic structure and functioning unit. Both a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule make up this organ. The Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus, a tuft of capillaries in the shape of a cup, make up the renal corpuscle. From the capsule, the renal tubule protrudes.
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which action would the nurse take in caring for a client after surgical placement of an external fixator on the client's leg?
Answer:
Below
Explanation:
1) Check pulses and oximeter readings in the distal limb
check wounds for cleanliness/bleeding
administer pain meds
the nurse is caring for a group of clients in labor and delivery. which client is at greatest risk for placental abruption
The patient who is 28 y.o G1 at 30 weeks' gestation with a blood pressure of 150/94 and history of cigarette smoking, is at greatest risk for placental abruption (abruptio placentae).
Placental abruption (abruptio placentae), a potentially life-threatening condition that happens when the placenta separates from the uterus wall before birth, is significantly increased by smoking and high blood pressure. High blood pressure, or hypertension, can harm the blood arteries that supply the placenta with nutrients and oxygen, causing the placenta to separate from the uterus. Contrarily, smoking has been linked to reduced blood flow to the placenta and a higher chance of placental abruption. Smoking also raises the possibility of hypertension during pregnancy, which heightens the danger of placental abruption.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is as:
The nurse is caring for a group of clients in labor and delivery. Which client is at greatest risk for placental abruption (abruptio placentae)?
A: 28 y.o G1 at 30 weeks' gestation with a blood pressure of 150/94 and history of cigarette smoking
B: 42 y.o G7P6 at 42 weeks' gestation who had limited prenatal care and has a BMI of 24
C: 30 y.o G2 at 32 weeks' gestation and a history of infertility. Her first pregnancy resulted in a stillbirth at 38 weeks
D: 25 y.o. G4P3 at 38 weeks' gestation with a sedentary life style, BMI of 34, and a placenta previa
true or false: any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.true false question.truefalse
It is true that Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.
The given statement "Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused." is True because sensitization is defined as a drug-induced decrease in resistance to a pharmacological action as a result of past drug exposure.
A drug is any chemical substance that, when eaten, induces a change in the physiology or psychology of an organism. Food and substances that provide nutritional support are frequently distinguished from medications. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed through a skin patch, suppository, or dissolved beneath the tongue.
A drug is a chemical substance having a well-defined structure that, when administered to a living being, has a biological impact. A pharmaceutical drug, often known as a medication or medicine, is a chemical compound that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease, or to improve health. Psychoactive medicines are chemical compounds that modify the central nervous system's function, affecting perception, mood, or awareness.
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a multigravida woman with a history of cesarean births is admitted to the maternity unit in labor. the client is having excessively strong contractions, and the nurse monitors the client closely for uterine rupture. which finding is noted if complete rupture occurs?
The finding to be noted when a client has excessively strong contractions and if complete uterine rupture occur is: decreasing blood pressure.
Uterine rupture is a serious complication during pregnancy. This complication occurs during the childbirth and is more prominent in women who have had a cesarean in earlier pregnancy and then try for a normal birth in the other one.
Blood pressure is the force with which the heart pumps blood into the blood vessels, especially the arteries because they supply blood to the whole body. Blood pressure stability is essential during a suspected uterine rupture for hemodynamic stability.
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which instruction would be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy? take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.
The instruction to be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy is: (1) Take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.
Thyroidectomy is the removal of the thyroid glands of an individual by surgery. These glands are located in the front portion of the neck. The hormones released by thyroid gland are necessary for the body's accurate metabolism.
Thyroid replacement is the process of administering thyroid hormones from the outside source to maintain their normal levels in the body. The source usually are the thyroid medications. The most commonly used medication is Levothyroxine that replaces the thyroxine hormone.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which instruction would be included in the discharge plan for a client status post-total thyroidectomy?
1) Take thyroid replacement medications as prescribed.
2) Be aware of signs and symptoms of dehydration.
3) Avoid all over the counter medications.
4) Report signs of hypoglycemia.
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which is a priority nursing intervention that the nurse should perform for a client who has undergone surgery for a nasal obstruction?
The nurse should ensure mouth breathing.
The inability to breathe and move air via the nasal passages is known as nasal blockage. The bulk of the time, this is caused by deviations from the nose's typical anatomy. These anomalies may result from anatomical changes brought on by trauma or normal development that restrict the nasal channel, or they may result from inflammatory changes that inflate and expand the tissues of the nose.
The majority of people with nasal blockage lament being unable to breathe from one or both sides of their nose, or having decreased ability to do so. Additionally, they frequently see snoring, mouth breathing, sleepiness, and frequent runny noses.
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the nurse is teaching a client who had a thyroidectomy to observe for symptoms of surgically induced hypothyroidism. which symptoms would be included in the teaching plan? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. dry skin
The symptoms associated with surgically induced hypothyroidism are: (2) Weight loss; (3) Tachycardia; (4) Restlessness and (6) Exophthalmos.
Hypothyroidism is the condition of lack of thyroid hormones in the body because the gland is unable to produce enough hormone. The condition can severely affect various aspects of metabolism. The condition is more prevalent on older women.
Exophthalmos is the protrusion of eyes outwards from the orbit. This can occur in any one eye or both the eyes. The condition is simply known as bulging eyes. Thyroid associated disorders are the most common cause of this condition. It can even lead to vision loss.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is teaching a client who had a thyroidectomy to observe for symptoms of surgically induced hypothyroidism. which symptoms would be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
1 Dry skin
2 Weight loss
3 Tachycardia
4 Restlessness
5 Constipation
6 Exophthalmos
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the nurse obtains daily stool specimens for a client with chronic bowel inflammation. the nurse recognizes that the stool examinations were prescribed for which reason? to evaluate fat content
The daily stool specimens obtained by the nurse for a client with chronic bowel inflammation are most likely being collected to evaluate for the presence of fat in the stool.
This information is important because chronic bowel inflammation, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, can cause malabsorption and decreased fat digestion. An evaluation of the fat content in the stool, also known as a steatocrit test, can help determine the extent of the malabsorption and the effectiveness of any treatment being used to manage the condition.
Other tests that may be performed on the stool specimens include a complete blood count, stool culture, and stool analysis for parasites and other pathogens.
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Answer:
to determine the presence of occult blood.
Explanation:
Occult blood in the stool may indicate active bleeding.
describe how natural selection is playing a role in antibiotic resistance.
The antibiotic naturally selects for antibiotic-resistant bacteria while eradicating all of its bacterial rivals.
Natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals as a result of phenotypic variations. The change in the heritable features typical of a population through generations is a crucial process of evolution. Natural selection was popularized by Charles Darwin, who contrasted it with artificial selection, which, in his opinion, is purposeful, but natural selection is not.
Variation exists within all biological populations. This occurs in part because random mutations occur in an individual organism's DNA, and their descendants can inherit such mutations. Individuals' genetics interact with their surroundings to create characteristic differences throughout their lifetimes. Natural selection is a fundamental concept in modern biology.
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which statement would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager?
"If I get itchy around the cast, I'll rub the itchy area gently." would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager.
In general, the cast should be kept dry. A wet cast can cause skin irritation and infection. Plaster and fiberglass casts with traditional padding are not waterproof. Keep your child's cast dry while bathing or showering by covering it with two layers of plastic and sealing with rubber bands or tape.
After applying plaster, perform cast care. Support the exposed cast with your palms to avoid denting. Make sure the jersey is pulled over the rough edges of the cast.Elevate the cast leg above heart level. Provides coverage and warmth in non-fluffy areas.
It is important to take good care of the cast or splint to minimize the risk of potential complications such as skin infections.
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Complete question :
which statement would cause the nurse to conclude that discharge instructions regarding cast care have been understood by a teenager?
'If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll pat the area with an alcohol swab.
''If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll ask my doctor for a prednisone prescription.
''If I get itchy around the cast, I’ll sprinkle a layer of powder around the itchy spots.'
"If I get itchy around the cast, I'll rub the itchy area gently."
a client is admitted to the hospital with suspected liver disease, and a needle biopsy of the liver is performed. after the procedure, the nurse would maintain the client in which position? supine
After a liver biopsy procedure, the client is usually maintained in a supine position.
This is to help prevent bleeding from the biopsy site and to allow the client to rest comfortably. The nurse would monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or complications, such as pain or tenderness at the biopsy site, and report any concerns to the healthcare provider immediately.
The client may also be instructed to avoid certain activities, such as heavy lifting, for a period of time following the procedure to minimize the risk of bleeding or other complications.
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in a client with burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?
a. Applying knee splints
b. Elevating the foot of the bed
c. Hyperextending the client's palms
d. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises
Applying knee splints is an important nursing intervention for preventing contractures in clients with burns on the legs.
correct option is A
Contractures occur when the skin and underlying tissues heal in a shortened position, leading to decreased range of motion and flexibility. Knee splints help to maintain the proper alignment of the knee joint, promoting proper healing and preventing contractures.
Additionally, other measures such as regular range-of-motion exercises, skin care, and wound management are also important components of preventing contractures in clients with burns.
Knee splints are orthopedic devices used to support and immobilize the knee joint. They are used to treat a variety of conditions, including knee injuries, arthritis, and postoperative rehabilitation.
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the nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. administer intravenous (iv) levothyroxine.
The nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. The following interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care :
Administer intravenous (IV) levothyroxine.Give IV normal saline.Myxedema coma is defined as severe hypothyroidism resulting in depressed mental status, hypothermia, and other symptoms associated with decreased multiorgan function. Emergency medical care with a high mortality rate.
Myxedema coma is the most severe form of hypothyroidism induced by acute stressors. Intravenous medication with levothyroxine (LT4) and perhaps liothyronine is used as treatment (LT3). Although the use of LT3 may be advantageous, an excess of LT3 may increase mortality.
Levothyroxine, also known as L-thyroxine, is the manufactured form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. Used to treat thyroid hormone deficiency, including a severe form known as myxedema coma. It can also be used to treat and prevent certain types of thyroid tumors. It is Not applicable for weight loss.
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Complete question :
The nurse is admitting a client with severe myxedema coma. Which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Administer intravenous (IV) levothyroxine.
Avoid use of corticosteroids.
Give IV normal saline.
Wait for laboratory results before treating.
Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours.
a client is admitted to the hospital after taking an overdose of aspirin. a nasogastric tube is inserted for lavage. which solution would the nurse obtain for the gastric lavage? normal saline
The solution that the nurse will do for gastric lavage due to an overdose of aspirin is to enter normal saline or intravenous fluids.
What is aspirin?Aspirin is a medicine to relieve pain, fever, and inflammation. This drug, which is also known as acetylsalicylic acid, is also used to prevent blood clots from forming, thereby reducing the risk of heart attack or stroke in people with cardiovascular disease.
The use of aspirin must be in accordance with the doctor's instructions to prevent side effects from appearing.
If a person experiences an overdose of aspirin, gastric lavage will be performed. Gastric lavage is a medical procedure to clean and empty stomach contents. This action is usually performed as a treatment for cases of poisoning (such as food or drug poisoning), stomach bleeding, or gastrointestinal obstruction. This action is carried out by incorporating warm water or normal saline fluids or intravenous fluids.
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in which two ways can a family health tree help you improve your own health? multiple select question. by helping to identify potential risks by illustrating familial patterns of health and illness by eliminating the possibility of inheriting certain genetic disorders by improving knowledge of different occupations
Answer:
by helping to identify potential risks
by illustrating familial patters of health and illness
during a preadmission assessment, for what diagnosis would the nurse expect to find decreased tactile fremitus and hyperresonant percussion sounds?
The nurse would expect to find decreased tactile fremitus and hyperresonant percussion sounds during a preadmission assessment for a pneumothorax (collapsed lung).
A pneumothorax is a condition where air gets trapped in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lung and the chest wall. This trapped air exerts pressure on the lung, causing it to collapse. Decreased tactile fremitus is a sign of a pneumothorax because the normal vibration that is felt during speech is diminished.
Hyperresonant percussion sounds, which are loud, drum-like sounds that occur when the chest is percussed, are also signs of a pneumothorax. This is because the pleural cavity is filled with air, so there is less resistance to the percussive force. These physical exam findings, combined with the patient's symptoms, can help the nurse diagnose a pneumothorax.
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