which muscle is not a main target of the bench press?

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Answer 1

The bench press is a popular strength training exercise that targets several muscle groups. However, there is one muscle that is not the main target of the bench press.

The main muscle groups targeted in the bench press include the chest, triceps, and shoulders. The chest muscle, also known as the pectoral muscle, is the primary muscle that is worked during the bench press. The triceps and shoulders also play a crucial role in the exercise as they assist in the pushing motion.

The muscle that is not the main target of the bench press is the biceps. While the biceps play a minor role in assisting in the pushing motion, the bench press primarily focuses on the chest, triceps, and shoulders. This is why the bench press is often referred to as a compound exercise as it targets multiple muscle groups at once.

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Related Questions

A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Floor bridge
b. Reverse crunch
c. Knee-up
d. Standing cobra

Answers

Standing cobra exercise is the only exercise he can really do safely. Option D is correct.

Blood pressure refers to the force produced by flowing blood on the walls of the body's arteries, which are the primary blood vessels. Hypertension is characterized by unusually high blood pressure. Blood pressure is represented by two digits. When the heart contracts and beats, the initial (systolic) result represents blood vessel pressure. The second number (diastolic) represents the pressure in the arteries across heartbeats.

Unhealthy diets (excessive salt consumption, a diet heavy in saturated fat and trans fats, a poor intake of fruit and vegetables), physical inactivity, cigarette and alcohol use, and being overweight or obese are all modifiable risk factors. A family history for hypertension, age over 65, and co-existing disorders such as diabetes or renal disease are non-modifiable risk factors.

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which cognitive system is responsible for pedaling a stationary bike while you watch tv at the gym?

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Cognitive System 1 is responsible for riding a stationary bike in the gym while watching TV.

Cognitive System understand, learn, and make decisions. Cognitive System are based on human abilities and skills. They are able to perceive and understand things, draw conclusions, and learn. It also ensures that you can handle the unexpected. System 1 works automatically and quickly, with little or no effort, and no voluntary sense of control. System 1 activities include the mental activities we are born with. For example, our willingness to perceive the world around us, to perceive objects, to direct our attention, to avoid loss, and to fear spiders. This can take the form of idly reading the text on billboards, knowing how to tie your shoelaces without thinking about tying them, or instinctively skipping puddles on the sidewalk.

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the measurement of glycated hemoglobin (the hba1c level) to monitor the regulation of blood glucose is not reliable in individuals with certain conditions or diseases.

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The hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test measures the amount of blood sugar (glucose) attached to hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to rest of your body. It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled

In general, A1c measurement is not reliable in patients with homozygous hemoglobin variants (i.e., HbS or HbC), whereas A1c measurement can be used in patients with heterozygous hemoglobin variants (i.e., HbAS, HbAC) as long as appropriate assay is used

The American Diabetes Association has recommended glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) as possible substitute to fasting blood glucose for diagnosis of diabetes. HbA1c is an important indicator of long-term glycemic control with ability to reflect the cumulative glycemic history of the preceding two to three months

HbA1C lacks precision in certain populations. Some drawbacks include: It misses some diabetes that would be found by the FPG or OGTT. Normal values cannot be used in pregnant women because pregnancy appears to lower HbA1C levels (Mosca, 2006).

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for three aspects of your organisation’s ethical policies, identify any instances where there is an overlap with legal requirements.

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The three ethical policies are which are an overlap with legal requirements. are Anti-discrimination, Equal Pay and Health and Safety.

Anti-discrimination There's an imbrication between anti-discrimination ethical  programs and legal conditions, as  numerous countries have laws that  cover  individualities from demarcation in the plant. This includes legislation that prohibits demarcation on the base of race, gender, age, and disability, among other characteristics. Equal Pay is the programs are also subject to legal conditions, as  numerous countries have laws that  enjoin employers from paying  workers else grounded on gender or other protected characteristics.  Health and Safety is the  programs are also subject to legal conditions, as employers must cleave to the applicable laws and regulations in order to  insure the safety of their  workers. This includes  furnishing applicable defensive  outfit,  icing the plant is free from hazards, and  icing that  workers are  apprehensive of the  pitfalls associated with their job tasks.

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what is the a specific standard for decision-making and provision of care

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A standard of care is a recommendation for medical or psychological care that may be generic or specialised. Shared decision-making (SDM) is a process that is essential to social work practise.

According on scientific data and cooperation between medical and/or psychiatric specialists participating in the treatment of a certain problem, it describes the proper course of treatment. In SDM, the patient and the professional discuss treatment options in light of the patient's values and circumstances, then jointly decide whether and how to proceed with treatment. A vast network of physicians, medical researchers, government regulators, and authors for medical journals work together to create the standard of care. Standards are decided on by elected doctors once a year; they are not passed into law.

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How do you keep your muscles healthy? What types of exercise or personal fitness do you engage in to maintain your muscle strength? Do you have any fitness goals that you are working towards?

Answers

Push ups

Explanation:

because push ups That exercise

need help with this i need it done by well whenver i guess i forgot to turn it in last week but i still have the chance to fo back and do it. Its not much of health but they didnt have fitness listed if you cant read it here.

Topic sentence: Each letter in the acronym FITT represents... (Example: Each letter in the acronym FITT represents a key factor in determining how much physical activity is enough.)

Concrete detail (fact): One example is… (Example: One example is frequency, which refers to how often you do physical activity.)

Concrete detail (fact): To build ________ you should… (Example: To develop strength, you might need to exercise two days a week.)

Concluding sentence: I can benefit… (Example: I can benefit from using the FITT principle to improve my cardiovascular endurance.)​

Answers

Each letter in the acronym FITT represents a key factor in determining a fitness routine.

One example is intensity, which refers to the level of effort required for an activity.

Another is time, which refers to the duration of the activity. To achieve overall fitness, it is important to consider all factors in the FITT principle.

I can benefit from using the FITT principle to create a balanced and effective fitness plan to reach my health and wellness goals.

What is Overall Fitness?

Physical fitness is a condition of health and well-being, as well as the capacity to participate in sports, jobs, and daily activities.

Physical fitness is often accomplished with the correct diet, moderate-to-vigorous physical activity, adequate rest, and a system recovery plan.

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blank drinking is a pattern of regular drinking alcohol that results in blood alcohol concentration (bac) being above the legal limit of 00.8 percent

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Binge drinking refers to a pattern of regular drinking alcohol that increases blood alcohol levels.

What is Binge drinking?

Binge drinking is a serious public health problem but it can be prevented. Binge drinking is the most common as well as costly way of excessive alcohol which is used in the United States. Binge drinking is defined as consuming 5 or more drinks on an occasion for males and 4 or more drinks on an occasion for females.

Binge drinking refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that increases blood alcohol concentration level to 0.08% or more. This pattern of drinking is usually related to 5 or more drinks for men or 4 or more drinks for women within about 2 hours.

So we can conclude that Binge drinking is the right answer.

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if you sit down for an exam and your heart is racing, what is simultaneously happening to your blood pressure?

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It is linked to high blood pressure, a higher likelihood of developing hypertension, and, among hypertensives, a higher risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

Heart palpitations are the experience of your heart speeding, skipping beats, or pounding (fluttering). When you exercise, your heart beats more quickly, so it's normal to hear or feel it "pound." Any physical activity you engage in could make you feel it. However, if you experience palpitations, you might feel as though your heart is racing even when you are simply sitting motionless or moving gently.

Different people may have different types of heart palpitations. Your heart can seem to be missing a beat as a result. They might cause your chest to flap. Or they might feel like the pounding previously mentioned.

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It is often said that you what you put into this health care program is what you get out of it. What do you plan on investing into this program and how will you follow through with your initial goals.

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I would plan to bring financial freedom, money investment, time management, health, and seriousness in my health care program.

It is stated that the amount of money you spent determines your reward in the market of life. In response to the question, I want to devote some time—more specifically, roughly three hours each day—to this programme. I expect to succeed in doing so by consciously making an effort to carve out the necessary time in my hectic schedule.

My initial goal is to build financial freedom and i have it in mind to achieve this initial goals by constantly building my knowledge base capacity through constant study, research and development.

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A nurse is assessing the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which of the following activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform? Select all that apply.
Dress himself appropriately
Align two or more blocks
Go to the bathroom without help
Put on and tie his shoes
Turn the pages of a book one at a time
Washing and drying hands

Answers

The activities that the nurse would expect the mother to report that the child can perform are:

A. Turn the pages of a book

E. Align two or more blocks

Infancy, childhood, and adolescence are the three major phases of motor development. Infancy is commonly assumed to endure from birth to one year, childhood from one year to around the age of ten, and adolescence from ten to nineteen. Babies will kick their legs and wave their arms about even in their first two months. The infant should be able to roll, reach, and sit independently by 6 to 8 months of age. Most babies start walking between the ages of 12 and 18 months.

By 24 months, the youngster can put on simple clothing but cannot distinguish between front and back. Children of this age can also zip huge zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and flip the pages of a book one at a time. Fine motor skills required to tie shoes are not yet developed. By the age of 4 to 5 years, the kid is more self-sufficient and can dress, eat, and use the restroom without assistance.

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The nurse will be caring for several older adults who will be undergoing general anesthesia. Which older adult will require the closest monitoring for a prolonged effect of anesthesia?
1. An older adult with an increase in liver size 2. An older adult with an increase in plasma proteins 3. An older adult with an increased kidney cell function 4. An older adult with increased amount of fatty tissue

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The nurse will be caring for several older adults who will be undergoing general anesthesia. The older adult will require the closest monitoring for a prolonged effect of anesthesia (4). An older adult with increased amount of fatty tissue is correct option.

The closer monitoring for a sustained anesthetic effect is especially important for elderly adults.

An older person's body eliminates anesthetic substances more slowly, which may prolong the duration of these medications' negative effects. As a result, many seniors claim that they experience post-operative confusion for days, weeks, or even months.

Because the ageing brain is more susceptible to it, anesthesia, a drug that commonly sedates or renders you unconscious to keep you from feeling pain during surgery, is a problem for older patients.

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which of the followong are true about length of sprint?
a. Sprint length is determined during Sprint Planning, and should be long enough to make sure the Development Team can deliver what is to be accomplished in the upcoming Sprint
b. The length of the Sprint should be proportional to the work that is done in between Sprints.
c. It is best to have Sprints of consistent length throughout a development effort.
d. All Sprints must be 1 month or less.
e. Sprint length is determined during Sprint Planning, and should hold the time it will take to code the planned features in the upcoming Sprint, but does not include time for any testing.

Answers

a. Sprint length is determined during Sprint Planning, and should be long enough to make sure the Development Team can deliver what is to be accomplished in the upcoming Sprint.

c. It is best to have Sprints of consistent length throughout a development effort.

In Scrum, the length of a Sprint is determined during the Sprint Planning meeting and is typically between 1 week and 1 month. The length of a Sprint should be long enough to allow the Development Team to deliver a usable increment of the product and short enough to allow for frequent feedback and inspection.

Having Sprints of consistent length helps in establishing a rhythm and predictable cadence for the development effort. This also allows the Development Team and stakeholders to plan effectively and manage their expectations.

It is important to note that the length of a Sprint should not be proportional to the work that is done between Sprints, as this can lead to longer and longer Sprints. Additionally, all Sprints do not have to be 1 month or less, as the appropriate length will depend on the specific context of the development effort.

Finally, the Sprint length should include time for both coding and testing, as testing is an integral part of the development process in Scrum.

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1. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?
a. Anatomy
b. Physiology

Answers

Answer:

Physiology

The term physiology refers to how organs function

what are somatic cells? dental assisitng chapter 38

Answers

Answer:

Any of the body cells except the reproductive (germ) cells.

Explanation:

Somatic cells are any cells in the body that are not reproducing (egg or sperm cells). The great majority of cells in the body are skin cells, muscle cells, and organ cells. In the context of dental help, somatic cells may refer to cells found in oral tissues such as the gums, cheek lining, and tongue.

What is cells?

In biology, the smallest unit that can exist on its own and is made up of all living creatures and bodily tissues. A cell is made up of three major components: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm. The cell membrane surrounds the cell and regulates the molecules that enter and exit the cell. Cells are the fundamental building elements of all life. Trillions of cells make up the human body. They support the body's structure, absorb nutrients from meals, transform those nutrients into energy, and perform specific activities.

Here,

Somatic cells are any non-reproductive cells in the body (egg or sperm cells). Skin cells, muscle cells, and organ cells comprise the vast bulk of cells in the body. Somatic cells may refer to cells present in oral tissues such as the gums, cheek lining, and tongue in the context of dental assistance.

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The nurse is teaching a new mother the proper techniques for breastfeeding her newborn. Which of the following is a recommended guideline that should be implemented?
A) Wash the hands and breasts thoroughly prior to breastfeeding.
B) Stroke the nipple against the baby's chin to stimulate wide opening of the baby's mouth.
C) Bring the baby's wide-open mouth to the breast to form a seal around all of the nipple and areola.
D) When finished the mother can break the suction by firmly pulling the baby's mouth away from the nipple.

Answers

A recommended guideline that should be implemented is option C) Bring the baby's wide-open mouth to the breast to form a seal around all of the nipple and areola.

The U.S. Dietary Guidelines for Americans advise parents to nurse their newborn exclusively for the first six months or so, then to continue while gradually adding supplementary foods until their child is 12 months old or older.

There is no need to sanitise the breasts or nipples before to breastfeeding. Actually, bacteria from your breast's surface can help your baby's gut flora develop. Try rubbing a few drops of fresh breast milk into your baby's nipples before and after feedings to see if it will help heal any damage.

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when checking a wound you should note the color of the wound and surrounding tissue as well as the

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When checking a wound, you should note the color of the wound and the surrounding tissue, as well as the approximation.

Most wounds, regardless of their cause, heal quickly. Some wounds, on the other hand, are prone to conditions that hinder healing, yet these do not prohibit healing provided the wounds are properly controlled. A small percentage of wounds would become chronic and unhealing. Rather of curing the wound, the ultimate objective in these circumstances is to treat the symptoms while avoiding consequences.

A detailed clinical history must include information on the duration of the ulcer, previous ulceration, trauma history, family history of ulceration, ulcer characteristics (such as site, pain, odour, and exudate and discharge), limb temperature, underlying medical conditions (such as diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease ischaemic heart disease, hemorrhagic stroke, neuropathy, collagenous diseases (such as rheumatoid arthritis), varicose veins, deep vein thrombosis  Appropriate investigations should be conducted.

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a 40-year-old patient who is blind and deaf has been admitted to the medical floor. what is the nurse’s primary responsibility for this patient?

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The nurse’s primary responsibility for this 40-year-old patient who is blind and deaf and has been admitted to the medical floor is that your supervisor should be informed of your worries regarding the patient's impairments.

Light sensitivity, which includes tunnel vision and many other types of blindness, is the ability to distinguish between various lights. However, it's important to keep in mind that those who were born blind cannot identify whether they see total darkness or not as well, they just can't.

A hearing loss that is so extreme that there is minimal to no practical hearing is typically referred to as being "deaf." The term "hard of hearing" describes a hearing damage in which there may be sufficient residual hearing that such an aural aid or FM system can process speech effectively.

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The nurse manager is reviewing the QSEN quality and safety competencies for nurses. Which competencies are included in this initiative? Select all that apply.
a. Teamwork and collaboration
b. Establishment of clinical career ladders
c. Quality improvement (QI)
d. Revamping the licensing requirements for foreign-educated nurses
e. Client-centered care

Answers

The QSEN (Quality and Safety Education for Nurses) initiative includes several key competencies for nurses related to quality improvement (QI) and patient safety. These competencies include:

a. Teamwork and collaboration: This competency focuses on the importance of nurses working effectively with other healthcare professionals to ensure the delivery of high-quality, patient-centered care. Nurses are expected to understand the importance of effective communication, mutual respect, and cooperation in achieving positive outcomes for patients.

c. Quality improvement (QI): This competency emphasizes the role of nurses in continuously improving the quality of care they provide. This may involve conducting assessments of care processes, gathering data, analyzing outcomes, and making evidence-based changes to improve care delivery.

e. Client-centered care: This competency focuses on the importance of putting the needs and perspectives of patients at the center of care delivery. This includes understanding and addressing the unique physical, emotional, and cultural needs of each patient, as well as promoting patient engagement and participation in the care process.

The QSEN initiative does not include the competencies of establishing clinical career ladders or revamping the licensing requirements for foreign-educated nurses.

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when a cast becomes too tight due to swelling of an extremity

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The indication in a patient with leg cast that swelling is occurring and the cast is becoming too tight would be: (2) The area distal is a dusky color and cold.

Leg cast is a device applied to fractured bones in order to prevent their dislocation and promote healing. The applications of casts also reduces the pain and swelling. Casts can be of various types: Plaster cast, Synthetic cast, Cast brace, and Splint (half cast).

Swelling is the enlargement if some body part, skin or organ. This happens due to the accumulation of fluids in the affected area. Swelling can be generalized or localized. There can be several reasons for swelling.

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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

While assessing the patient with a leg cast an indication that swelling is occurring and the cast is becoming too tight would be.

1. The cast is hot to touch

2. The area distal is a dusky color and cold

3. Capillary refill distantly is 10 to 15 seconds

4. The patient complains of discomfort

for which reason would the nurse ask the patient to say ""ahhh"" during throat assessment?

Answers

A nurse may ask a patient to say "ahhh" during a throat assessment for several reasons. One of the main reasons is to inspect the patient's pharynx, which is the part of the throat

located behind the mouth. By having the patient say "ahhh," the nurse can visualize the back of the throat and look for any signs of inflammation, swelling, or infection. This can help the nurse to identify common conditions such as tonsillitis, pharynx, or a sore throat. Additionally, by observing the patient's tonsils and uvula (the small, fleshy structure  hanging from the middle of the back of the throat), the nurse can check for any signs of enlargement or abnormal growths, which may indicate a more serious condition.

Another reason for asking the patient to say "ahhh" during a throat assessment is to assess the patient's voice quality and speech patterns. By having the patient produce sound, the nurse can listen for any changes in the patient's voice, such as hoarseness, which may indicate a problem with the larynx or vocal cords. Overall, asking the patient to say "ahhh" during a throat assessment is a simple and effective way for the nurse to gather important information about the patient's throat health and identify any potential issues that may need further evaluation or treatment.

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While examining a client's leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply? Marked out of 1.00 Flag question O Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze O b. Dry sterile dressing O C. Moist, sterile saline gauze O d. Sterile petroleum gauze

Answers

Until a wound specialist can be reached, the nurse should apply a moist sterile saline gauze dressing. Option C is correct.

The growth of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels on the surfaces of such a wound throughout the healing process is referred to as granulation tissue. Granulation tissue normally develops from the wound's base and may fill wounds of nearly any size. Pyogenic granulomas & pulp polyps are both examples of granulation tissue. The proliferation of fibroblasts and new thin-walled, fragile capillaries (angiogenesis), infiltrating inflammatory cells inside a loose extracellular characterize its histological appearance.

The most often used irrigating fluid is sterile normal saline. It is always safe to use in wounds due to its physiologic nature. However, it lacks surfactants, which are more efficient in lifting germs and debris from of the wound and peri wound region and are present in commercial wound cleaners.

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A care plan states that a patient should attend groups on the unit, but the patient states, "I do not want to go; just let me sleep." What is the best response by the nurse?

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The best response by the nurse would be a supportive and empathetic one.

The nurse could say something like, "I understand that you may not feel like going to the groups right now, but participating in the activities is a crucial part of your care plan. Let's work together to find a solution that will benefit you. Perhaps there's a way we can make the groups more enjoyable for you."  

The nurse should listen to the patient's concerns and acknowledge their feelings while also addressing the importance of the care plan.

By taking a collaborative approach and seeking a solution together, the nurse can help the patient understand the importance of the care plan, address their concerns, and increase their motivation to participate. Communication and understanding are key in this situation.

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Which step of the nursing process determines whether the client understands the health teaching that is provided? Evaluation includes observing the client, asking questions, and then comparing the client's behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.

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Evaluation is the step of the nursing process that determines whether the client understands the health teaching provided.

Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process, which is used to determine the effectiveness of the care provided to a client. During the evaluation step, the nurse will observe the client, ask questions, and compare the client's behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. This helps the nurse to determine whether the client has understood the health teaching provided and whether the desired outcomes have been achieved.

For example, if the nurse provided health teaching on proper hand washing techniques, during the evaluation step, the nurse would observe the client's hand washing technique, ask the client questions about their understanding of the proper technique, and compare their behavior with the expected outcome of clean and properly washed hands.

The evaluation step is crucial in ensuring that the client has received and understood the health teaching provided and that the desired outcomes have been achieved. This information can then be used to make any necessary changes to the care plan, to ensure that the client continues to receive effective and appropriate care.

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The nurse is caring for a patient with dark skin who is having gastrointestinal bleeding. How can the nurse determine from skin color change that shock may be present?
a. The skin is ashen gray and dull.
b. The skin is dusky blue.
c. The skin is reddish pink.
d. The skin is whitish pink.

Answers

The nurse can determine from skin color change that shock may be present if option a. The skin is ashen gray and dull.

GI bleeding, also known as gastro-intestinal bleeding, is a sign of a digestion problem. Although it isn't usually evident, the blood frequently manifests in stools or vomiting, making the latter seem dark or viscous. Life-threatening bleeding could vary in intensity from moderate to severe.

Gastrointestinal (GI), genitourinary, and bleeding from surgical intervention are some of the causes of hemorrhagic shock. The major cause of hypovolemic shock is GI-related. Between 3 and 6 litres of fluid are typically secreted everyday by the digestive system.

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you begin to think of your therapist in much the same way as you think of your sister, so you begin to treat the therapist as you treat your sister. this behavior is referred to as

Answers

This situation of thinking of your therapist as your sister in known as transference.

Transference is a phenomenon in which one appears to direct feelings or desires toward someone who is not an important figure in one's life, such as a parent. Transference is thought to occur when a patient expresses feelings toward the therapist that appear to be based on the patient's past feelings about someone else in the context of psychoanalysis and related forms of therapy. In the 1890s, Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic practice gave rise to the concept of transference. Freud believed that childhood experiences and internal conflicts laid the groundwork for an adult's development and personality. Psychoanalysis seeks to uncover those unconscious conflicts that may be causing current emotional and behavioral patterns. Transference is one method for recognizing and, hopefully, resolving those conflicts.

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Magazines such as Condé Nast Traveler, Field & Stream, Golf Digest, and Fitness focus on how people live their lives, and thus all use a ________ segmentation strategy.

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Magazines such as Fitness, Field & Stream, Golf Digest, and Health focus on how people live their lives, and thus all use a psychographic segmentation strategy.

Psychographic segmentation is a research approach that divides customers into groups based on psychological traits such as personality, lifestyle, social status, activities, interests, opinions, and attitudes. A luxury mobile-manufacturing business that specializes in customisation is a prominent example of psychographic segmentation. These phones are not available to individuals of all socioeconomic backgrounds.

Psychographic segmentation is important because it may assist healthcare providers acquire a better knowledge of their patients/members by revealing personality- and attitudinally-driven reasons. These findings influence patient participation in marketing and medical treatment. Women do not buy candles because they are women. Psychographic segmentation, on the other hand, suggests that some women buy candles to adorn their homes.

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which action would the nurse take to minimize the patient’s risk for infection when changing the dressing on a cvad?

Answers

The  nurse would must take several  conduct to minimize the case’s  threat for infection when changing the dressing on a CVAD. First, they would make sure the case’s skin is clean by washing it with a mild cleaner and water, and  also dry the area gently.

Also, the  nurse would put on clean gloves and a face mask, and remove the old dressing. The  nurse would  also clean the area around the CVAD with a chlorhexidine or alcohol grounded  result according to the manufacturer’s instructions. The  nurse should use a new sterile dressing and secure it with tape recording as per the manufacturer’s instructions.

After the area is  gutted and the new dressing is in place, the  nurse would  also dispose of the gloves and mask in an applicable container and wash their hands with cleaner and water. Following these  way can help to minimize the case’s  threat of infection.

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a patient wearing shoes with toes and other areas cut-out suggest a history of what disease: a.Photosensitivity b.gout c.recent weight loss d.none of the answer correct

Answers

A patient who is wearing shoes with cutouts for the toes and other regions may have had gout in the past. So, (B) gout is the right answer.

A typical and excruciating type of inflammatory arthritis is gout. One joint is often affected at a time (often the big toe joint). There are remissions and flares, or periods without symptoms. Flares are periods when symptoms worsen. Gouty arthritis, an aggravating type of arthritis, can develop as a result of recurring cases of gout. Flares of gout can begin unexpectedly and linger for days or weeks. Before another flare starts, these flares are followed by protracted periods of remission lasting weeks, months, or even years. Typically, gout only affects one joint at a time. It frequently appears in the big toe. The smaller toe joints, ankle, and knee are also frequently impacted, in addition to the big toe.

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17. What type of boundary can help protect your feelings, emotions, self-esteem, and personal beliefs?
O A. Social
OB. Financial
O C. Physical
O D. Emotional

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Your body, sense of personal space, sexual orientation, and privacy are examples of physical limits.

Which four sorts of personal boundaries are there? Your body, sense of privacy, and sexual orientation are all examples of physical limits.Clothing, shelter, noise tolerance, verbal instruction, and body language are just a few ways that these limits are communicated.Your self-worth and capacity to distinguish your sentiments from those of other people are both protected by these boundaries.Typically, these boundaries can be classified into the following groups:emotional (preserving our own emotional well-being) (protecting our own emotional well-being)physical (preserving our physical space) (protecting our physical space)sexual (protecting our needs and safety sexually) (protecting our needs and safety sexually)workplace (preserving our ability to conduct our work without interference or turmoil) (protecting our ability to do our work without interference or drama).The more you practice setting clear boundaries, the more people will view you as a deserving, self-respecting individual, and the more your self-esteem will grow—all to the long-term advantage of both you and them.Your ability to establish limits will increase with your level of self-worth.

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