The following disasters which can affect an agent’s biosecurity at a given organization is referred to as tornado and is denoted as option B.
What is Tornado?This is referred to as a violently rotating column of air touching the ground, usually attached to the base of a thunderstorm. It occurs within a convective cloud which is in contact with the ground.
Biosecurity on the other hand is defined as the measures which are carried out in other to prevent the introduction and/or spread of harmful organisms to animals and plants.
Tornado can affect an agent’s biosecurity at a given organization because it deals with air moving things from one place to another in a violent manner which could result in different forms of contamination which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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The options are:
HurricaneTornadoFloodthe inheritance of eye color indicates that. choose one or more answers. a. eye color is determined by what a pregnant woman eats. b. other characteristics, such as the texture at the back of the eye, can affect the phenotype. c. two different genes, oca2 and herc2, determine eye color
The inheritance of eye color suggests that other traits, such the texture at the rear of the eye, can have an impact on the phenotypic, making Option B the correct response.
The inheritance of eye color is categorized as a Mendelian feature in its most basic form. Eye color has a more complicated pattern of inheritance based on the observation of more than two phenotypes. Different tints of eye color brown, hazel, green, blue, gray, and, in a few rare instances, violet and red, are among the ranges traits of eye color. Phenotypes include things like blood type, eye color, and hair color. Your eye color may be brown if you have a brown-eye phenotype, and your hair will likely be brown if you have a brown-hair phenotype.
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The most notable difference between PrPC (normal protein) and PrPSc (prion protein) is
a. PrPC is a much longer polypeptide chain, compared to PrPSc.
b. PrPC causes a cell to undergo rapid apoptosis.
c. PrPc folds appropriately whereas PrPSc does not fold correctly.
d. PrPc is a functional glycolytic enzymewhereas PrPSc is nonfunctiona
The most notable difference between PrPC (normal protein) and PrPSc (prion protein) is (c) PrPc folds appropriately whereas PrPSc does not fold correctly.
Prions are proteins that have been folded incorrectly and have the ability to pass on their incorrect folding pattern to normally folded forms of the same protein. They describe a number of deadly and contagious neurodegenerative disorders in both humans and numerous other animals. The PrPc protein is a typical component of brain tissue. Prion disorders are characterised by the transformation of normal PrPc into the misfolded form of PrPSc. PrPSc is an insoluble conformer that is rich in beta structure, whereas PrPSc is a normal protein that is rich in alpha helices.
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there are 24 species of hornbills that live in africa, all descended from a common ancestor. there are differences in nesting behavior, feeding morphology, and the habitats in which they are found, which include forests, woodlands, and savannahs. which statement best reflects how ecology and competition could have played a role in diversification of the hornbill lineages? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices resource partitioning may have occurred between different groups, resulting in competitive exclusion and speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. resource partitioning could have provided a selective force resulting in multiple speciation events over the evolutionary history of hornbills. competitive exclusion due to interspecific competition may have occurred between different groups, resulting in speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. competitive exclusion could have provided a selective force resulting in multiple speciation events over the evolutionary history of hornbills.
Resource partitioning may have occurred between different groups, resulting in competitive exclusion and speciation during the evolutionary history of hornbills. thus correct option (A)
Several species of birds have huge, horn-like bills, and these birds are known as hornbills. There are 54 species of hornbill, with 31 species found in Asia and 23 in Africa, predominantly in tropical rain forests and savannahs. East of the Wallace Line, just four species are present. About 15 million years ago, hornbills first emerged in the fossil record. They appear in several tribes' mythologies from Southeast Asia and Indonesia. The hill tribes of Borneo believe that rhinoceros hornbills carry souls to the afterlife. Every five to seven years, hornbills are celebrated in western Borneo. They serve as faithfulness symbols on Sumba.Hornbills are found only in the Old World. Toucans are regarded as their New World equivalent. The largest hornbill are the size of turkeys. The smallest is the size of doves. Many large ones have horn-like casques on their bill. Some bird live as long as 45 years.As a result of deforestation, habitat loss, and poaching for their bills, feathers, and flesh, several hornbill species are endangered or threatened. Some people have died after ingesting poisons placed out for animals. Others are kidnapped by poachers, who may fetch up to $1,000 per chick for the eggs of certain species.To learn more about hornbill visit:
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Which of the following correctly describes the synthesis of proteins?
DNA is transmitted to mRNA, which then attaches to a ribosome where it is translated into a protein.
DNA is translated to tRNA, whihc then attaches to a ribosome where it is transcribed into a protein.
DNA is transcribed to mRNA, which then attaches to a ribosome where it is translated into a protein.
DNA is transcribed to tRNA, which then attaches to a ribosome where it is translated into a protein.
The amino acid sequence for the protein is translated onto a ribosome in the cytoplasm after being transcribed from an RNA strand in the nucleus.
How would you define protein synthesis?Cells create proteins through a process known as protein synthesis. Transcription and translation take place simultaneously. Transcription is the process by which genetic information is transformed from DNA to mRNA in the nucleus. Its three steps are initiation, elongation, and termination.
What is the step-by-step procedure for making proteins?Initiation, elongation, and termination are its three stages.Following processing, the mRNA transports the instructions to a ribosome in the cytoplasm.The ribosome, which is made up of proteins and rRNA, is where translation happens.
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what does a sensory neuron not necessarily need to generate a signal? group of answer choices ions with concentration gradients a leaky channel a long axon neurotransmitter output
Sensory Neuron - Afferent neurons, also referred to as sensory neurons, are neurons in the nervous system that use their receptors to translate a particular kind of stimuli into action potentials or graded potentials.
It is known as sensory transduction. The dorsal ganglia of the spinal cord are home to the sensory neurons' cell bodies.
The inside of a neuron has a negative charge compared to the positive charge outside the cell when it is not transmitting messages. Ions, electrically charged atoms, keep the balance between positive and negative charges.
K+
K+ tends to leak out of cells through K+ leak channels due to the differential in its concentration. The unbalanced negative charge that K+ leaves behind as it leaves the cell creates an electrical field, or membrane potential, which tends to oppose further K+ efflux.
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select the highlighted phrases that accurately represent english naturalist a. r. wallace’s experience in papua new guinea.
They employ their own labor as well as that of family members or other group members to cultivate the land. In hunter-gatherer cultures, food is obtained through hunting, fishing, and foraging for wild plants and other nutrients like honey
Malinowski established the benchmark for ethnographic fieldwork in sociocultural anthropology with his research in a local setting, conducted in the local tongue, data collection through participant observation, and inductive rather than deductive analysis. Up until around 12,000 years ago, all humans engaged in hunting and gathering.
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A muscle strain is a sustained contraction of the muscle.
A muscle strain is not a sustained contraction of the muscle. Therefore, the given statement is false.
A muscle strain refers to the equivalent of a sprain to ligaments. A muscle strain can occur when muscle fibers cannot cope with the demands placed on them by exercise overload which leads to the tearing of the fibers. It is a contraction-induced injury where by muscle fibers tear due to extensive mechanical stress. This mostly happens as a result of an over-stretching or powerful eccentric contraction of the muscle. Thus, it is typical for non-contact sports with dynamic traits such as sprinting and jumping.
"
Complete question:
A muscle strain is a sustained contraction of the muscle.
True
False
"
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Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by
O having fur.
O the young developing in a pouch.
O laying eggs.
O having a placenta.
O longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas. o
Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by: having fur, having placenta, longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas.
A grouping of mammals could be made based on placentation. A single maternal layer (endometrium), an exterior embryonic layer (chorion), and an inner embryonic layer make up the placenta that surrounds the foetus.
The inner embryonic layer of eutherian mammals is an allantoic membrane, while that of metatherian mammals is a vitelline membrane.
Those mammals that don't have a placenta are known as prototherian mammals.
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The primary goal of conservation biology is to integrate human culture back into nature estimate the total number of species that exist catalog species maximize the land set aside for wildlife counter the loss of biodiversity
The primary goal of conservation biology is counter the loss of biodiversity
Conservation biology as a discipline aims to provide answers to specific questions that can be applied to management decisions. The main goal is to establish workable methods for preserving species and their biological communities.
The major goal of conservation biology is to: preserve the diversity of living organisms.
the goals of conservation biology Conservation biologists seek to maintain three important aspects of life on Earth: biological diversity, ecological integrity, and ecological health. Biological diversity is a measure of the diversity of all life at all levels of organisation.
Conservation may be classified as either in-situ conservation, which is protecting an endangered species in its natural habitat, or ex-situ conservation, which occurs outside the natural habitat. In-situ conservation involves protecting or restoring the habitat.
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match each of the following characteristics to the lytic cycle, lysogenic cycle, or both.: Lytic Lysogenic Both the phage genome replicates with the host DNA the host DNA is degraded the phage genome enters the host cell the bacterial cell wall is broken open the bacterial genome contains the integrated phage genome
In the lytic cycle, viruses produce new copies of themselves inside a host cell before bursting outside the cell.
The viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's DNA during the lysogenic cycle, causing internal infection. In the lytic cycle, viruses produce new copies of themselves inside a host cell before bursting outside the cell.Bacteriophages insert their DNA, or genetic material, into bacterial cells both the lysogenic and lytic cycles, and then exploit the machinery of the cells to duplicate and spread. The viral genome is incorporated into the host cell's DNA during the lysogenic cycle, causing internal infection.The viral genome integrates into the host genome during the lysogenic cycle and continues there during replication till the lytic cycle is initiated.
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In an experiment, a student measures the force acting on a toy car and the toy car’s acceleration. Based the data collected a conclusion was drawn by the student that the amount of force applied affects acceleration. What reasoning led to the interpretation of the data and the conclusion?
A) As distance increases, the rate acceleration increases. As distance increases, the rate acceleration increases.
B) As distance increases, the rate acceleration decreases. As distance increases, the rate acceleration decreases.
C) As force increases, the rate acceleration increases. As force increases, the rate acceleration increases.
D) As force increases, the rate acceleration decreases. As force increases, the rate acceleration decreases.
C) As force increases, the rate acceleration increases. As force increases, the rate acceleration increases.
According to Newton's second law of motion, the force applied to an object is directly proportional to the acceleration it experiences. This means that if you apply more force to an object, it will accelerate more quickly. Conversely, if you apply less force to an object, it will accelerate more slowly.
So in this case, if the student measured an increase in force and an increase in acceleration, it is reasonable to conclude that the amount of force applied affects the acceleration of the toy car. This is the interpretation of the data that led to the conclusion.
Examine the image below.
Which of the following is true about brown eyes?
There is always a 25% chance offspring will have brown eyes.
A parent or offspring can be heterozygous for brown eyes.
If one parent has brown eyes, all offspring will have brown eyes.
The brown eye allele is recessive to any other color eye allele.
By examining the image below, we can see that the statement A parent or offspring can be heterozygous for brown eyes is true about brown eyes (Option b).
What is a heterozygous individual for a genetic trait?A heterozygous individual for a genetic trait is one who carries two different alleles or gene variants for a given gen locus, which may be controlled by complete dominance as in this case.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that a heterozygous individual for a genetic trait carries two alleles for the same gene locus.
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what process generates many b cells and t cells that are activated against specific antigens?
Antigen-specific T cells and B cells are encouraged to proliferate by the process of clonal selection.
Absence of any memory population leads to a full-fledged spontaneous proliferation in which T cells with higher affinity to MHC-self-antigens (and commensal antigens) are triggered for proliferation.In humoral immunity, antigens bind to antibodies, activating B cells to produce plasma cells and memory B cells. Antigens then recognise them so they can be eliminated. The antigen is swallowed by macrophages during cell-mediated immunity, which then exposes it on their surface. Helper T cells cling to macrophages and stimulate them.
For example, cytotoxic T cells can kill infected cells, and macrophages can eliminate intracellular infections as part of cell-mediated immune responses.
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if a patient presents with an elevated lymphocyte count compared to other white blood cells, they likely have a(n) choose one: a. viral infection. b. allergy. c. parasite infection. d. bacterial infection.
If a patient presents with an elevated lymphocyte count compared to other white blood cells, they likely have a bacterial infection.
If your doctor determines that your lymphocyte count is high, the test end result is probably proof of one of the following conditions: infection (bacterial, viral, different) most cancers of the blood or lymphatic device. An autoimmune sickness inflicting ongoing (continual) infection.
Lymphocytes assist fight off diseases, so it is normal to look a brief growth after an infection. A count number considerably higher than three,000 lymphocytes in a microliter of blood is generally taken into consideration to be lymphocytosis in adults.
Lymphocytosis often outcomes from viral infections. micro organism and parasites can also reason infection, ensuing in a excessive lymphocyte depend. Infectious reasons of lymphocytosis include: Epstein-Barr virus (the virus that causes mononucleosis).
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interspecific competition often leads to what disastrous outcome for the less fit species
Extinction is frequently caused by interspecific competition.
Less suited species may receive a smaller amount of the resources both species require. As a result, it is less probable that individuals from that species will survive, and it could even become extinct.
What is Interspecific competition?
The competition between members of various species is known as interspecific competition. We also recognize two types of competition under this category, but unlike intraspecific rivalry, which involves individuals from the same population, here the competition is between members of different species.
Additionally, there is interspecies rivalry between organisms of different species for resources. For instance, in ocean ecosystems, sharks, dolphins, and seabirds frequently consume the same species of fish. Direct and indirect competition both exist.
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what cell type is frequently bi-nucleated, contains membranous plaques and other specializations to to protect the organ from with hyperosmotic toxic components of urine in the bladder and ureter?
The ureters are the tubes that carry urine from the kidneys into the urinary bladder. They are made of smooth muscle fibers. Uretic peristalsis is the name of this procedure. The smooth muscular contraction in the ureter tubes during ureter peristalsis results in the continual movement of urine toward the bladder.
The ureter is 25–30 cm long and 3–4 mm in diameter in adults. One of the vital organs of the urinary tract that regulates the movement of urine is the ureter.The two ducts or structures that link the kidneys and bladder are referred to as the ureters. These smooth muscle structures' primary job is to move or convey urine from the kidney, where it is produced and filtered through blood, to the bladder, where it is stored before passing through the urethra for elimination. The ureters also start in the renal pelvis, a region of the kidneys, before moving downward to the bladder. The ureter, then, is the organ responsible for transferring urine from the kidney to the bladder.
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platelets are:___.
a. red cells that lack a nucleus
b. blue cells that have a nucleus.
c. tiny cells with a polynucleus.
d. cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.
e. large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.
Red blood cells make up the bottom red layer, while platelets and white blood cells (WBCs) make up the middle white layer (RBCs).
Red cells without a nucleus are platelets, right?Platelets lack a nucleus of their own because they are not cells. However, they do have a lot of granules (or vesicles). The liver and kidneys secrete the hormone thrombopoietin, which controls the development of megakaryocytes and platelets.
Do platelets include nucleus DNA?Therefore, rather than being complete cells, platelets resemble cell fragments. The fact that platelets lack a nucleus and supporting DNA material is arguably one of the greatest arguments in favor of this theory (apart from the mitochondrial genome).
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a lab technician uses a coombs test to determine whether a mother and fetus are incompatible for the rhesus (rh) blood antigen, and determines that there is no agglutination. which of the following is true? group of answer choices the fetus is not at risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. there is rhesus incompatibility between the mother and the fetus, and therefore risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. the mother's red blood cells are rh- and the fetus's red blood cells are rh . the mother's red blood cells express rh and type a blood antigen.
Hemolytic illness in the infant is not a concern for the fetus. Due to the mother's rhesus incompatibility with the fetus, the baby is at risk for hemolytic illness.
If the test is normal (negative), it suggests the mother really hasn't produced antibodies to the fetus' blood. Anti-D antibodies are discovered in the mother's serum using the indirect Coombs test. These would hemolyze fetal RBCs if they came into touch with them, which would result in HDN. Treatment for HDN can be administered by detecting maternal anti-D before fetal RBCs have been attacked. When a Rh negative woman gives birth to a child with a Rh positive father, HDN results. The mother's immune system will produce antibodies to fight her unborn child if she has been exposed to Rh positive blood and has been sensitized.
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mary hanson, a 2-year-old, was brought to the doctor's office by her mother after she discovered two swollen and painful lumps in mary's groin. staphylococcus aureus was cultured from phagocytic cells obtained from the affected lesions and granulomas were noted. additional tests revealed that neutrophils from mary do not activate respiratory bursts after phagocytosis. the most likely protein defect causing the inability to generate reactive oxygen intermediates during the respiratory burst in mary's neutrophils would be
The most plausible protein flaw responsible for Mary's neutrophils' failure to produce reactive oxygen intermediates during the respiratory burst would be granulomatous.
Two-year-old Mary Hanson was taken to the doctor by her mother after she saw two uncomfortable and swelling lumps in Mary's groin. Granulomas were discovered after staphylococcus aureus was cultivated from phagocytic cells taken from the afflicted lesions. Additional research showed that after phagocytosis, Mary's neutrophils do not initiate respiratory bursts.
Biopsies of a 67-year-old man with several skin lesions that developed over a 2-year period revealed granulomatous dermatitis with accompanying tiny yeasts. The findings of the urine antigen test were negative for Histoplasma infection, and no fungi or other possible pathogens grew in the cultures made from the biopsies. The results of the chest roentgenogram were normal. An analysis of the morphology indicated characteristics of a Malassezia species.
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if cracked fissured vibrated or otherwise disturbed soil is not
if the soil has cracks, fissures, vibrates, or has been type B.
What kind of soil is cohesive yet has been tampered with or cracked?Type B soil is cohesive, frequently broken or disturbed, and has fragments that don't adhere to one another as well as Type A soil. Between 0.5 and 1.5 tons per square foot, Type B soil has a medium unconfined compressive strength.
What does Type 1 soil mean?Type A Soils, b. i. Cohesive soils classified as Type A Soils have an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 tons per square foot (tsf) (144 kPa) or more. Typical examples of Type A cohesive soils are clay, silty clay, sandy clay, clay loam, and, occasionally, silty clay loam and sandy clay loam.
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Carbohydrates will ferment in the following order from fastest to slowest. A. Sucrose fructose glucose starch water Water starch sucrose fructose glucose C Glucose sucrose fructose starch water D. Glucose fructose sucrose starch water What is your strategy? A. To determine the rate of fermentation, will measure the change in color of the solution_ To determine the rate of fermentation, will measure the height of the COz bubble produced. To determine the rate of fermentation, will measure the temperature of the solution D. To determine the rate of fermentation, will measure the pH of the solution.
Glucose will be the first one to ferment and will do so most quickly. The second carbohydrate has the slowest rate of fermentation and produces the least gas. And that is the starch and informed him that water was the only thing he should walk as.
What sugars ferment most quickly?Glycolysis occurs with all sugars. Because glucose is a Carbohydrates and does not need to be broken down, it ferments in yeast the fastest and most effectively of the three sugars (glucose, sucrose, and fructose). Because it is already in a useful state, it can be used right away in the glycolysis cycle.
Which ferments more quickly, glucose or sucrose?According to studies, some yeast and sugar varieties ferment at a higher rate than others. Our conclusion was that a monosaccharide's The rate of fermentation of a monosaccharide (glucose) would increase faster than that of a disaccharide (sucrose).
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drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the stages in which the lagging strand is synthesized.
1. DNA polymerase begins synthesizing the lagging strand by adding nucleotides to a short segment of RNA.
2. After each piece of the lagging stand is complete, it is released from DNA polymerase.
3. A different DNA polymerase replaces the RNA segments with DNA.
4. DNA ligase seals the gaps between the pieces, and eventually forms continuous strand.
How are lag strands produced?
Instead of being formed as continuous duplex DNA, lagging strands are instead created as isolated, small DNA fragments known as "Okazaki fragments." In order to create an Okazaki fragment, a primer comprised of RNA-DNA needs to be produced by polymerase (Pol) -primase.
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how does the intestinal mucosa prevent the development of food allergies mounted against innocuous food antigens? group of answer choices it has several tolerogenic (aka immunosuppressive) mechanisms that inhibit immune activation to non-infectious material there are no adaptive immune cells (t or b cells) in the intestine no antibodies can cross the intestinal epithelium to initiate complement signaling all food antigens are broken down into individual atoms before reaching the intestine
There are no adaptive immune cells (t or b cells) in the intestine .
In general, the epithelial cells transport antibodies, particularly IgA, into the intestinal lumen and these specialized antibodies helps to contribute and act as a barrier by excluding the uptake of antigens or microbes.
So, in order to prevent a food allergy reaction it is required to completely avoid the food and any product that may contain any such ingredient. Intolerant Food never trigger the immune system and also not considered life threatening, although it may cause similar symptoms like diarrhea and stomach pain.
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please help
which statement is correct about the krebs cycle?
a. it occurs in the cytoplasm of cells
b. it produces electron carriers that supply the electron transport chain in aerobic respiration
c. it is a phase of anaerobic respiration that is performed by bacteria
d. it is the light-independent reaction in photosynthesis
(Please explain the correct answer-- I picked letter A)
The highest surface wind speeds occur when there is a:
A) 4 millibar air pressure difference between 2 nearby locations
B) 4 millibar air pressure difference between 2 distant locations
C) 20 millibar air pressure difference between 2 nearby locations
D) 20 millibar air pressure difference between 2 distant locations
a hemoglobin molecule is composed of
Two alpha chains with 141 amino acid residues each and two beta chains with 146 amino acid residues each make up the four polypeptide chains that make up a hemoglobin molecule.
Who or what makes up hemoglobin?Alpha and beta polypeptide chains combine to form the two identical dimers that make up the tetramer hemoglobin. Hydrophobic interactions firmly attach the polypeptide chains to one another. The two dimers are bound together by weaker polar connections and are mobile with respect to one another.
Do four heme molecules exist in hemoglobin?Four polypeptide chains (Alpha 1, Beta 1, Alpha 2, Beta 2) that are noncovalently linked to one another make up the hemoglobin molecule. The heme-iron complexes number four. One Fe++ atom is included in a heme group in each chain.
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the cells located in the leaves of plants contain large amounts of chloroplasts.what is the purpose of chloroplasts in plant cells?
Plants can catch the energy of the Sun in the form of energy-rich molecules thanks to organelles called chloroplasts; cell walls allow plants to have stiff structures as diverse as wood trunks and flexible leaflets; and vacuoles allow plant cells to alter size.
What are the primary functions of chloroplasts in plant cells?Photosynthesis and oxygen-release activities in chloroplasts provide energy, which supports plant growth and crop output. As a result, chloroplasts are in charge of producing active molecules such as amino acids, phytohormones, nucleotides, vitamins, lipids, and secondary metabolites.
They are in charge of photosynthesis, which is the process of converting light energy into sugar and other organic compounds that plants and algae utilize as sustenance.
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Three organisms have part of a gene for a digestive enzyme sequenced, and homologous parts of those sequences are shown below. One organism is a fungus and the other two are green algae.
Organism | Sequence
1 | AGATTCGATTCGCTTTAAA
2 | ACAGTCGAT_CGGCATAAA
3 | AGAT_CGATTCGGTTTAAA
Based on this data, identify which organisms are which and explain why.
Organism 1 and 3 have homologous genome sequence while 2 is different and belongs to fungus.
What is homologous sequence?The biological homology that exists between DNA, RNA, or protein sequences is referred to as sequence homology. This homology is characterized in terms of common ancestry throughout the course of the evolution of life. Although sequences of homologous genes can be quite similar to one another, this does not necessarily indicate that the genes are homologous.
An key instrument for evaluating the structure, function, and evolution of proteins is a method known as inference of homology from protein sequences.
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two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic. group of answer choices true false
The two distinguishing factors of the epsilon proteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic is a true statement.
Epsilon proteobacteria are significant chemo lithotrophic primary producers in deep-sea hydrothermal vent systems, where they are frequently the predominant bacterial lineage in vent plumes and deposits as well as nearby microbial mats.
One hundred or more different types of bacteria make up the class Epsilon proteobacteria, which is known as the most common bacterial cause of human gastroenteritis globally. This group includes Campylobacter jejuna.
Proteobacteria are linked to extraintestinal and gastrointestinal diseases. Furthermore, studies also point to a role in lung conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, but there is little evidence to support this.
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Human blood types are, in part, determined by the ABO system. the allele frequency for blood type IA is 0.3, and IB is 0.1. What is the frequency of B-type individuals in a population?
This indicates that although each person can only have two different alleles, there are three different alleles present in the population: IA, IB, and i. the frequency is 0.6.
What percentage of the population carries the IA allele?There are three alleles of the human gene that determines the ABO blood group. The frequency of the IA allele in a population of 1000 persons is.3, whereas the number of those with type O blood in the population is .36.
What name is given to the shifts in population allele frequencies over generations?Genetic drift is the generational shift in allele frequencies in a population that results from random events. Genetic drift is actually a change brought on by "sampling error" while choosing the alleles for the following generation from the gene pool of the current generation.
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